Ch `11-Anesthetic agents Flashcards

1
Q

Fentanyl (Innovar) is used in surgery primarily as a(n):

A

analgesic.

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2
Q

Droperidol (Inapsine) is used as a preanesthetic medication primarily because of its ability to act as a(n):

A

antiemetic.

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3
Q

When asked which drug is often administered with regional anesthetics to prolong their effect, the nurse should reply:

A

epinephrine.” causes vasoconstriction to delay absorption of regional anesthetic agents.

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4
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is believed to be the result of:

A

stress and an inherited susceptibility to develop the disorder.

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5
Q

The nurse is monitoring her client and notes that he is flushed and is experiencing excitement and urinary retention following administration of anticholinergic preanesthetic medications. She explains that this is:

A

a normal reaction to anticholinergics.

These manifestations are normal responses to anticholinergic medications.

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6
Q

The last sense to disappear and the first to reappear in an unconscious person is:

A

hearing

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7
Q

For clients who have received general anesthesia, the usual assessment that indicates that the artificial airway can be removed is:

A

the gag and swallowing reflexes return.

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8
Q

For clients in the recovery room, the two major problems the nurse should monitor are:

A

pain and shivering

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9
Q

The nurse monitors for emergence reactions requiring special nursing care most frequently following the use of:

A

ketamine.

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10
Q

Clients receiving local anesthetic agents would be monitored for which of the following frequently noted effects?

A

allergic reactions.

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11
Q

To decrease the likelihood of headaches following spinal anesthesia, the nurse should:

A

keep the client lying in a recumbent position and offer frequent fluids.

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12
Q

The nurse understands that epidural anesthesia is most appropriate for use in:

A

labor and delivery- The epidural results in loss of sensory function, but not complete motor function when used in labor and delivery.

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13
Q

After having regional anesthesia, the client would be monitored for hypotension because of:

A

the loss of blood and body fluids.

This can occur as a result of the surgical procedure and inadequate replacement of these fluids.

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14
Q

When transcribing the order for the preanesthetic agents morphine sulfate and atropine sulfate, the nurse understands that these medications:

A

may be mixed in the same syringe.

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15
Q

The client receiving succinylcholine rapidly develops a pulse rate of 130 bpm, muscle rigidity, and an elevated temperature. The nurse prepares to administer:

A

dantrolene

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16
Q

The client received spinal anesthesia for a surgical procedure. The nurse knows the effects of the anesthesia have worn off when the client:

A

is able to move the toes

17
Q

The client is 1 hour post aortic aneurysm repair. Over the previous 1 hour, the client’s pulse rate has steadily increased from 80 to 110, with a gradual drop in blood pressure from 120/80 to 100/70. The nurse’s best action is to:

A

ask the client if the pain level can be rated on a scale of 1 to 10.

18
Q

Prior to the administration of the preanesthetic medication before surgery, the nurse should:

A

assist the client to the bathroom to void.

19
Q

Thirty minutes ago, the client received atropine and morphine sulfate parenterally as a preoperative medication. The client asks the nurse why he has developed such a dry mouth. The nurse’s best response is:

A

Dry mouth is an expected side effect of the preoperative medication.”

20
Q

The nurse is responsible for administering some preoperative medications to clients. In addition to checking the compatibility chart, the nurse understands that which of the following drugs should never be combined with another drug in the same syringe?

A

diazepam (Valium)

21
Q

The nurse working in the operating room of the hospital should:

A

be sure the work area is well ventilated.

22
Q

The client undergoing anesthesia is experiencing rapid eye movements, increased heart rate, and increased skeletal muscle response cueing the nurse that which stage of anesthesia has been reached

A

Stage 2

23
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer midazolam IV as a preanesthetic agent and understands that its primary purpose is to:

A

provide amnesic effects.

24
Q

The client following major surgery under general anesthesia arrives on the nursing unit 4 hours following surgery. The first set of vital signs are T 37.6, P 100, R 30, and BP 100/68. The nurse’s first action should be to:

A

assess the vital sign readings from the recovery room.

25
Q

When preparing dantrolene for administration to a client, the nurse should:

A

rotate the vial until the fluid is clear.

26
Q

When a client who has received ketamine HCl is admitted following surgery, the nurse should:

A

place the client in a quiet area with as little stimulation as possible.

27
Q

For the recovery room client experiencing the problem associated with peripheral vasoconstriction resulting from anesthesia, the nurse should:

A

cover the client with warm blankets and reassure the client that the condition will soon pass.

28
Q

The person usually responsible for administering preanesthetic medication is:

A

the nurse preparing the client for OR.

29
Q

Which of the following would NOT be the reason for the nurse to check the vital signs of clients before preanesthetic or anesthetic agents are given?

A

It is the protocol of the surgical department, and nurses must follow these guidelines.

30
Q

The nurse caring for the client receiving continuous extravascular infusion should do which of the following actions?

A
Monitor the client’s pain level.
Prevent catheter displacement.
Provide emotional support.
Monitor for bradycardia.
Follow procedures for prevention of infection at the catheter site.
31
Q

A client who has received ketamine would be monitored for which of the following emergence reactions? Select all that apply

A

confusion
excitement
irrational behavior
hallucinations

32
Q

The client received Brevital, the ultra-short-acting barbiturate general anesthetic agent. The nurse would monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

A

pruritus
hiccups
nausea and vomiting
increased oral secretions

33
Q

The client who received a spinal with Lidocaine 5% dextrose 7.5% should be monitored for signs/symptoms of CNS toxicity. These would include which of the following?

A
vertigo
blurred vision
restlessness
depression
anxiety