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Corpsman Manual Navy HM > Chapter 6: Human Anatomy And Physiology > Flashcards

Chapter 6: Human Anatomy And Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

When the body is in the anatomical position, the thumbs point

  1. Medially
  2. Laterally
  3. Anteriorly
  4. Posteriorly
A

Laterally

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2
Q

A person lying on his/her back is in what position?

  1. Prone
  2. Erect
  3. Supine
  4. Lateral recumbent
A

Supine

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3
Q

The physical and chemical breakdown of the food we eat is called?

  1. Metabolism
  2. Digestion
  3. Anabolism
  4. Catabolism
A

Digestion

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4
Q

The transfer of fluids across the plasma membrane of a cell from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is a process known as?

  1. Infusion
  2. Diffusion (osmosis)
  3. Perfusion
  4. None of the above
A

Diffusion (osmosis)

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5
Q

Homeostasis is defined as?

  1. Control of bleeding
  2. Absorption, storage, and use of food products
  3. Self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment
  4. The power of voluntary movement
A

Self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment

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6
Q

That portion of a cell containing all the genetic material important in the cell’s reproduction is called the?

  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Reticulated endothelium
A

Nucleus

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7
Q

The secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of digested foods and liquids is the chief function of which tissue?

  1. Columnar
  2. Osseus
  3. Sercus
  4. Squamous
A

Columnar

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8
Q

The body’s primary thermo-regulatory action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the?

  1. Stratum germinativum
  2. Sweat glands
  3. Sebacceous glands
  4. Melanin
A

Sweat glands

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9
Q

Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?

  1. Ossein and calcium
  2. Phosphorus and calcium
  3. Sodium and phosphorus
  4. Periostium and ossein
A

Phosphorus and calcium

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10
Q

The bones of the wrist are classified as which of the following bones?

  1. Long
  2. Short
  3. Flat
  4. Irregular
A

Short

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11
Q

Bones of the cranium include which of the following?

  1. Maxilla
  2. Occipital <
A

Occipital. Bones of the Cranium include: Frontal, Pareital, Occipital, Temporal, Sphenoid, Ethmoid

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12
Q

The axial skeleton is composed of which two regions of the skeletal system?

  1. Skull and vertebral column
  2. Thorax and upper extremities
  3. Pelvis and thorax
  4. Upper and lower extremities
A

Skull and vertebral column

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13
Q

The upper three ribs on each side are known as which of the following types?

  1. True
  2. False
  3. Floating
  4. Sternal
A

True

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14
Q

The concavity into which the head of the humerus articulates is called the?

  1. Scapula
  2. Acetabulum
  3. Glenoid fossa
  4. Epicondyle
A

Glenoid fossa

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15
Q

The innominate bone is composed of three parts that are united in adults to form a cuplike structure called the?

  1. Glenoid fossa
  2. Acetabelum
  3. Symphysis pubis
  4. Obturator Foramen
A

Acetabelum

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16
Q

The prominence easily felt on the inner and outer aspects of the ankle are called?

  1. Medial and lateral malleolus
  2. Medial and lateral condyle
  3. Greater and lesser turberosities
  4. Greater and lesser trochanters
A

Medial and lateral malleolus

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17
Q

Bones that develop within a tendon are known as which of the following?

  1. Condyloid
  2. Sesamoid
  3. Veriform
  4. Fasliform
A

Sesamoid

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18
Q

Moving an extremity away from the body is called?

  1. Flexion
  2. Extension
  3. Abduction
  4. Adduction
A

Abduction

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19
Q

The act of straightening a limb in known as?

  1. Flexion
  2. Extension
  3. Abduction
  4. Adduction
A

Extension

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20
Q

The primary function of the muscles includes all of the following EXCEPT?

  1. Providing heat during activity
  2. Maintaining body posture
  3. Producing red blood cells
  4. Providing movement
A

Producing red blood cells

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21
Q

Which of the following properties describes the ability of muscles to respond to a stimulus?

  1. Contractility
  2. Irritability
  3. Extensibility
  4. Tonicity
A

Irritability (or excitability)

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22
Q

The ability of muscles to regain their original form when stretched is known as?

  1. Contractility
  2. Elasticity
  3. Extensibility
  4. Tonicity
A

Elasticity

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23
Q

Actin and myosin are two protein substances involved in?

  1. Muscle recovery
  2. Muscle nourishment
  3. Muscle contraction
  4. Rigor mortis
A

Muscle contraction *E-Learning believes this is incorrect, but it is right.

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24
Q

If a generally sedentary person in less than good physical health enters a marathon with the intent to complete the race, which of the following outcomes can he/she be expected to encounter?

  1. If the day is cool, there will be no significant risk
  2. Any physical deficiency can be overcome with a carbohydrate-rich diet before the race
  3. If stretching exercises are performed before the race, he/she will be ok
  4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
A

He/she runs the risk of muscle damage

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25
Q

Intramuscular (IM) injections are frequently given in which of the following muscles?

  1. Trapezius
  2. Pectoralis majoris
  3. Deltoid
  4. All of the above
A

Deltoid

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26
Q

Intramuscluar injections are usually given in which of the following muscles?

  1. Quadriceps
  2. Sartorius
  3. Gastrocnemius
  4. Gluteus maximus
A

Gluteus maximus

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27
Q

The total blood volume in the average adult is in what range?

  1. 3 to 4 liters
  2. 4 to 5 liters
  3. 5 to 6 liters
  4. 6 to 7 liters
A

5 to 6 liters

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28
Q

A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count could be the result of a medical condition affecting the?

  1. Compact bone
  2. Perioteum
  3. Yellow marrow
  4. Red marrow
A

Red marrow

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29
Q

A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000 may indicate what condition? (TRY INFECTION)

  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Normalcy
  3. Infection
  4. Vetiligo
A

E-Learning uses INFECTION but it could also be Leukocytosis. (references state differently in chapters 6 and 19. Both answers are correct.)

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30
Q

In an accident victim suffering from a fibrinogen deficiency, the rescuer may have difficulty performing which of the actions listed below?

  1. Controlling hemorrhage
  2. Immobilizing a fracture
  3. Supporting respiratory function
  4. Reducing a dislocation
A

Controlling hemorrhage

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31
Q

In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes?

  1. To convert fibrinogen into blood serum to aid healing
  2. To form the foundation for new tissue growth
  3. To manufacture leukocytes
  4. None of the above
A

To form the foundation for new tissue growth

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32
Q

The valves of the heart include all of the following EXCEPT?

  1. Atrial
  2. Mitral
  3. Vagus
  4. Pulmonary
A

Vagus

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33
Q

Oxygenated blood is carried by which of the following vein(s)?

  1. Inferior vena cava
  2. Superior vena cava
  3. Portal
  4. Pulmonary
A

Pulmonary

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34
Q

The contraction phase of the heart is?

  1. Systole
  2. Tension
  3. Diastole
  4. Active
A

Systole

35
Q

The pulse pressure is the difference between which of the following measurement?

  1. Venous and arterial pressure
  2. Resting and active pulse rate
  3. Arterial and ventricle pressure
  4. Systole and diastole
A

Systole and diastole

36
Q

The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the?

  1. Portal
  2. Pulmonary
  3. Abdominal
  4. Pelvic
A

Portal

37
Q

Lymph nodes participate in all of the following functions EXCEPT?

  1. Manufacture of the white blood cells
  2. Filtration of bacterial debris
  3. Production of hormones***(jrich619) (Hurleyeagle gives full reference)
  4. Collection of large protein molecules
A

Collection of large protein molecules “Lymph nodes vary in size and act as filters to remove bacteria and particles from the lymph stream. Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes, which help defend the body against harmful foreign particles, such as bacteria, cells, and viruses. Lymph nodes also contain macrophages, which engulf and destroy foreign substances, damaged cells, and cellular debris.” Pg 6-60

38
Q

Windpipe is another term for?

  1. Nares
  2. Larynx
  3. Trachea
  4. Pharynx
A

Trachea

39
Q

The primary muscle of respiration is known as the?

  1. Pleura
  2. Alveolus
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Mediastinum
A

Diaphragm

40
Q

Of the following nerves, which, if any, controls the larynx during the process of breathing?

  1. Phrenic
  2. Intercostal
  3. Vagus
  4. None of the above
A

Vagus

41
Q

A nerve, cell, or neuron is composed of all of the following EXCEPT a/an?

  1. Synapse
  2. Axon
  3. Perikaryon
  4. Dendrite
A

Synapse

42
Q

The impulse receptors of a nerve are called?

  1. Dendrites
  2. Schwann cells
  3. Ganglia
  4. Neurons
A

Dendrites

43
Q

The space through which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another is called a/an?

  1. Myelin sheath
  2. Synapse
  3. Axon
  4. Ganglion
A

Synapse

44
Q

Balance, coordination or movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain?

  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Pons
  4. Temporal lobe
A

Cerebellum

45
Q

Circulation and respiration are controlled primarily from what area of the brain?

  1. Medulla
  2. Pons
  3. Cerebral cortex
  4. Cerebellum
A

Medulla

46
Q

The meninges, which cover the outer portion of the brain and spinal cord are composed of all the following EXCEPT?

  1. Dura mater
  2. Pia mater
  3. Arachnoid membrane
  4. Foramen magnum
A

Foramen magnum

47
Q

In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?

  1. Central Ventricles
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Meninges
  4. Medulla Oblongota
A

Central Ventricles

48
Q

The 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs spinal nerves form what nervous system?

  1. Peripheral
  2. Central
  3. Autonomic
  4. Sympathetic
A

Peripheral

49
Q

This nerve controls the muscles of the tongue.

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Abducens
  3. Glossopharyngeal
  4. Hypoglossal
A

Hypoglossal

50
Q

This nerve allows you to stick out your tongue.

  1. Troclear
  2. Facial
  3. Glossopharyngeal
  4. Hypoglossal
A

Facial???

51
Q

This nerve receives sensory input from the face.

  1. Trigeminal
  2. Abducens
  3. Vagus
  4. Spinal Accessory
A

Trigeminal

52
Q

The autonomic nervous system is composed of two main divisions.

  1. Pons and medulla oblongata
  2. Voluntary and involuntary systems
  3. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
  4. Central and peripheral systems
A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

53
Q

Conservation and restoration of energy are the result of nerve impulses arising from which, if any, of the following nervous systems?

  1. Sympathetic *** (nat_greene) (HospitalCorps)
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Voluntary
  4. None of the above
A

Sympathetic

54
Q

Which nervous system is most responsible for <>

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Peripheral
  4. Central
A

Sympathetic “The parasympathetic system also counterbalances the effects of the sympathetic system, and restores the body to a resting state. For example, during an emergency the body’s heart and respiration rate increases. After the emergency, the parasympathetic system will decrease heart and respiration rate to normal. The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems work together to preserve a harmonious balance of body functions and activities.” Pg 6-72

55
Q

Which nervous system is most responsible for <>

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Peripheral
  4. Central
A

Peripheral

56
Q

Which nervous system is most responsible for <>

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Peripheral
  4. Central
A

Parasympathetic *E-learning might dock you for this, but it is right.

57
Q

Which nervous system is most responsible for <>

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Peripheral
  4. Central
A

Central

58
Q

Hormones secreted by the endocrine system are?

  1. Secreted directly into the gland, tissue, or organ it influences
  2. Directed to the gland, tissue, or organ by a duct system
  3. Secreted into the circulatory system
  4. Typically produced in large quantities
A

Secreted into the circulatory system

59
Q

The overproduction of which hormone leads to acromegaly?

  1. Somatotropin
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Gonadotropin
  4. Thyroxin
A

Somatotropin

60
Q

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a deficiency of the antidiuretic hormone?

  1. Myxedema
  2. Diabetes insipidus
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Addison’s disease
A

Diabetes insipidus

61
Q

An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT?

  1. Weight gain
  2. Fatigue
  3. Profuse sweating
  4. Slowed heart rate
A

Profuse sweating

62
Q

Calcium levels in the blood are controlled by which of the following hormones?

  1. Thyroxin
  2. Vasopressin
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Parathormone
A

Parathormone

63
Q

Electrolyte balance is a function of the hormone produced by the?

  1. Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
  2. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
  3. Cortex of the adrenal gland
  4. Medulla of the adrenal gland
A

Cortex of the adrenal gland

64
Q

A metabolic response to epinephrine includes which, if any, of the symptoms listed below?

  1. Decreased heart rate
  2. Increased blood pressure
  3. Respiratory distress
  4. None of the above
A

Increased blood pressure

65
Q

What hormone is produced by the alpha cells of the islands of Langerhans in the pancreas?

  1. Glucagon
  2. Insulin
  3. Norepinepherine
  4. Androgens
A

Glucagon

66
Q

The cornea is part of the protective outer layer of the eye called the?

  1. Sclera
  2. Conjunctiva
  3. Choroid
  4. Crystalline body
A

Sclera

67
Q

The inner part of the eye derives its dimensional nourishment primarily from what vascular tissue?

  1. Conjunctiva
  2. Sclera
  3. Vitreous humor
  4. Choroid
A

Choroid

68
Q

Dilation of the pupil, a muscular response of the iris, normally occurs as a result of what?

  1. Increased intensity of light
  2. Decreased intensity of light
  3. Irritation to the sclera
  4. Irritation to the conjunctiva
A

Decreased intensity of light

69
Q

Of the elements listed below, which makes seeing in the dark possible?

  1. Rods
  2. Cones
  3. Iris
  4. Choroid
A

Rods

70
Q

By what process is three-dimensional vision produced?

  1. Accommodation
  2. Convergence
  3. Refraction
  4. Stimulation
A

Convergence

71
Q 
The mechanical transmission of sound
from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a function of which of the following?
1. Auditory ossicles
2. Eustachian tubes
3. Bony labyrinth
4. Organ of corti
A

Auditory ossicles

72
Q

What structure(s) of the inner ear provide(s) neural stimuli used to maintain equilibrium?

  1. Fenestra rotunda
  2. Fenestra ovalis
  3. Semicircular canals
  4. Organ of corti
A

Semicircular canals

73
Q

The conversion of mechanical impulses (sound waves) to neural impulses that can be interpreted by the brain is a function of the ______?

  1. Endolymph
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Organ of Corti
  4. Fenestra ovalis
A

Organ of Corti

74
Q

The enzymatic action of amylase results in the chemical breakdown of ______?

  1. fats to fatty acids
  2. starches to fats
  3. starches to complex sugars
  4. proteins to complex sugars
A

starches to complex sugars

75
Q 
Absorption of food occurs predominantly in which of the following
areas of the intestines?
1. Small intestines
2. Large intestines
3. Mouth
4. Stomach
A

Small intestines

76
Q

Of these listed below, which function as the accessory organs of digestion for the small intestines?

  1. Pancreas, liver, and villae
  2. Spleen, liver, and gallbladder
  3. Pancreas, pylorus, and spleen
  4. Pancreas, liver, and gallbladder
A

Pancreas, liver, and gallbladder

77
Q

The gallbladder performs which of the following purposes?

  1. Stimulates the production of insulin
  2. Stores bile
  3. Metabolizes sugars
  4. Produces antibodies
A

Stores bile

78
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is called the?

  1. Nephron
  2. Malpighian body
  3. Glomerulus
  4. Loop of Henle
A

Nephron

79
Q

Which of the following is/are (a) function(s) of the kidneys?

  1. To maintain acid-base balance
  2. To remove excess waste from the blood
  3. Formation of urine
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

80
Q

What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder?

  1. 250 ml
  2. 300 ml
  3. 600 ml
  4. 750 ml
A

600 ml

81
Q

Testosterone production is a function of which of the following glands?

  1. Cowper’s
  2. Prostate
  3. Testes
  4. Bulbourethral
A

Testes

82
Q

Which of the following is/are considered the primary female reproductive organs?

  1. Ovaries
  2. Fallopian tubes
  3. Uterus
  4. Endometrium
A

Ovaries

83
Q

Fertilization of an ovum normally takes place in the?

  1. Ovaries
  2. Fallopian tubes
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
A

Fallopian tubes

84
Q

The limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements?

  1. The rating’s occupational standards
  2. The rate training manual
  3. The provider’s training and experience
  4. All of the above
A

The provider’s training and experience *find a reference in manual

Corpsman Manual Navy HM (8 decks)

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