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NAVEDTRA 15009B Yeoman > Chapter 6 > Flashcards

Chapter 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining an Information Security Program and Personnel Security Program?

A. SECNAV B. OPNAV C. SECDEF D. CJC

A

A. SECNAV

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2
Q

Who is the personnel security adjudicative determination authority for the Department of the Navy personnel?

A. OPM
B. DODCAF
C. AFCAF
D. Security manager

A

B. DODCAF

Director, Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility

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3
Q

Who will be afforded direct access to the commanding officer to ensure effective management of the command’s security program?

A. Admin officer
B. Executive officer
C. Security manager
D. Security representative

A

Security manager

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4
Q

For Navy personnel, who should receive a copy of the security manager’s designation letter?

A. CNO (N09N2) B. OPM
C. DODCAF
D. NCIS

A

A. CNO (N09N2)

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5
Q

What directive(s) provide the basis of the Navy’s program for safeguarding classified information?

A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30
B. SECNAV M-5510.32 and SECNAV M-5516.30
C. SECNAVINST 5501.25 and SECNAVINST 5510.22
YSECNAVINST 5510.30

A

A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30

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6
Q

Who assists commands with queries regarding the status of personnel security investigations at the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) issuing Letters of Intent (LOI) and Letters of Notification (LON)?

A. DON
B. OPM
C. DODCAF
D. NCIS

A

C. DODCAF

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7
Q

The Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) is maintained for how many years from the date of signature?

A. 75 years B. 65 years C. 70 years D. 50 years

A

70 years

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8
Q

What form is a written legally binding statement?

A. SF-312
B. SF-700
C. Form 4414 D. SF-701

A

C. Form 4414

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9
Q

How often should personnel having access to classified information receive a refresher briefing?

A. Monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Semiannually D. Annually

A

D. Annually

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10
Q

What is the DoD’s personal security clearance and access database?

. DEERS B. DCII
C. JPAS D. OPM

A

C. JPAS

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11
Q

What form is used to ensure all areas that process classified information are properly secured?

A. SF 700
B. SF 701
C. DD 312
D. Form 4414

A

B. SF 701

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12
Q

How many user levels are there in JPAS?

A. Eight B. Ten C. Four D. Nine

A

D. Nine

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13
Q

What item is prohibited in a SCIF?

A. Electronic calculators
B. Personal camera
C. Heart pacemaker
D. Radio

A

B. Personal camera

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14
Q

What authority is authorized to grant, deny, or revoke security clearances for all Department of the Navy personnel?

A. OPNAV B. SECNAV C. BUPERS D. DODCAF

A

D. DODCAF

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15
Q

The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security should carry what classification?

. Secret
B. Top Secret C. Confidential D. Guarded

A

B. Top Secret

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16
Q

The Command Security Manager must be a military officer or civilian employee in at least what pay grade?

A. GS-9
B. GS-7
C. GS-5
D. GS-11

A

A. GS-9

17
Q

A command accredited for and authorized to receive, process, and store SCI will designate what individual?

A. Security Manager
B. Security Officer
C. Special Security Officer
D. Security Representative

A

C. Special Security Officer

18
Q

All
SCI matters shall be referred to what individual?

A. Special Security Officer
B. Command Security Manager
C. Executive officer
D. Admin officer

A

A. Special Security Officer

19
Q

The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally serious damage to national security should carry what classification?

A. Secret
B. Top Secret
C. Confidential
D. Sensitive

A

A. Secret

20
Q

The disclosure of information that could cause identifiable damage to national security should carry what classification?

A. Secret
B. Top Secret
C. Confidential
D. Interim

A

C. Confidential

21
Q

Who is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command?

A. Security Manager
B. Administrative Officer
C. Executive Officer
D. Commanding Officer

A

D. Commanding Officer

22
Q

Who is delegated the responsibility to ensure personnel are instructed on prevention of unauthorized disclosure of classified information?

A. Security Manager
B. Administrative Officer
C. Commanding Officer
D. Executive Officer

A

A. Security Manager

23
Q

Top Secret documents cannot be reproduced without the permission of what authority?

A. Department Head
B. Security Manager
C. Commanding Officer
D. Issuing or higher authority

A

D. Issuing or higher authority

24
Q

After a Top Secret document has been transferred, downgraded, or destroyed, the record of disclosure should be maintained for how many years?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Five

A

B. Two

25
Q

What is the highest classification allowed for mailing classified material via USPS?

A. Secret
B. Top Secret
C. Confidential
D. Guarded

A

A. Secret

26
Q

How many officials are required to witness the destruction of Top Secret material?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

B. Two

27
Q

What is the maximum amount of hours a Temporary Secure Working Area (TSWA) can be used?

A. 50 hours a month
B. 40 hours a week
C. 50 hours a week
D. 40 hours a month

A

B. 40 hours a week

28
Q

What does the acronym SAER stand for?

A. Security Advanced Eligibility Report
B. Security Access Eligibility Response
C. Security Access Eligibility Report
D. Security Appeals Eligibility Report

A

C. Security Access Eligibility Report

29
Q

How many days is the initial response time to a Letter of Intent (LOI)?

A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 15 days
D. 60 days

A

C. 15 days

With and additional ability to get 45 days total of 60

30
Q
  1. Who conducts counterintelligence briefings?

A. Security Manager
B. Commanding Officer
C. Naval Criminal Investigative Service Agent
D. Defense Investigative Service Agent

A

C. Naval Criminal Investigative Service Agent

31
Q

When a security debriefing has been conducted for a member, what disposition is made of the original Security Termination Statement, OPNAV Form 5511/14?

A. Filed in the individual’s electronic service record
B. Filed in the classified material records file
C. Forwarded to Director, Naval Investigative Service
D. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval Personnel

A

A. Filed in the individual’s electronic service record

32
Q

When the security clearance of a Marine has been revoked for cause, what disposition is made
of the original security termination statement?

A. Filed in the individual’s service record
B. Filed in the command’s files for two years
C. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine Corps
D. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service

A

A. Filed in the individual’s service record
B. Filed in the command’s files for two years
C. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine Corps
D. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service

33
Q

What disposition is made of the security termination statement when the statement is executed at the conclusion of a limited access authorization?

A. Filed in the individual’s service record
B. Filed in the command’s files for two years
C. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval Personnel
D. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service

A

B. Filed in the command’s files for two years

34
Q

The initial determination of a person’s loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness is based on what investigation?

A. SSBI
B. NACLC
C. SBI
D. PSI

A

D. PSI

Personnel Security Investigation

35
Q

How many members sit in on a PSAB Board?

A. One
B. Two
C. Six
D. Three

A

D. Three

36
Q

For an SSBI, when should a PR be initiated?

A. 4.5 years from completion of the last investigation
B. 5 years from completion of last investigation
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 4 years

A

B. 5 years from completion of last investigation

NAVEDTRA 15009B Yeoman (7 decks)

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