Chapter 6 & 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Ligaments

A

strong bands of fibrous connective tissue that attach to

bones and hold them together. bones-bones

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2
Q

tendons

A

strong bands of connective tissue that attach skeletal muscles to bones; muscles-bones

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3
Q

chondroblasts

A

Hyaline cartilage consists of these specialized cartilage producing cells

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4
Q

chondrocyte

A

When matrix surrounds a chondroblast, it becomes this rounded cell that occupies a space called a lacuna within the matrix.

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5
Q

perichondrium

A

double-layered connective tissue sheath covering most cartilage

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6
Q

Articular cartilage

A

cartilage covering the ends of bones where they come together to form joints, has no perichondrium, blood vessels, or nerves.

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7
Q

appositional growth

A

chondroblasts in the perichondrium add new cartilage to the outside edge of the existing cartilage.

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8
Q

interstitial growth

A

chondrocytes within the tissue divide and add more matrix between the existing cells

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9
Q

hydroxyapatite

A

The inorganic material within the bone matrix that consists

primarily of a calcium phosphate crystal

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10
Q

Osteoblasts

A

bone-forming cells that have an extensive endoplasmic reticulum and numerous ribosomes.

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11
Q

matrix vesicles

A

Osteoblasts also release these membrane-bound sacs formed when the plasma membrane buds, or protrudes outward, and pinches off.

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12
Q

Ossification or osteogenesis

A

formation of bone by osteoblasts.

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13
Q

osteocyte

A

Once an osteoblast becomes surrounded by bone matrix,

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14
Q

lacunae

A

The spaces occupied by the osteocyte cell bodies

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15
Q

canaliculi

A

the spaces occupied by the osteocyte cell processes

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16
Q

Osteoclasts

A

responsible for the reabsorption, or breakdown, of bone.

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17
Q

ruffled border

A

Where the plasma membrane of osteoclasts contacts bone matrix and forms many projections

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18
Q

stem cells

A

Some of the mesenchymal cells become stem cells, which can replicate and give rise to more specialized cell types.

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19
Q

Osteochondral progenitor cells

A

stem cells that can become osteoblasts or chondroblasts.

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20
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

also known as brittle bone disorder. This connective tissue disease is caused by a gene mutation that leads to the production of less collagen than normal or collagen that is abnormal in structure.

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21
Q

woven bone

A

collagen fibers are randomly oriented in many directions; first formed during fetal development or during the repair of a fracture.

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22
Q

bone remodeling

A

The process of removing old bone and adding new bone

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23
Q

Lamellar bone

A

mature bone that is organized into thin sheets or layers called lamellae

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24
Q

spongy bone

A

consists of interconnecting rods or plates of bone called trabeculae; Between the trabeculae are spaces that, in life, are filled with bone marrow and blood vessels.

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25
Q

Compact bone

A

denser and has fewer spaces than spongy bone

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26
Q

central canals

A

contain vessels that run parallel to the long axis
of the bone; lined with endosteum and contain blood
vessels, nerves, and loose connective tissue.

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27
Q

Concentric lamellae

A

circular layers of bone matrix that surround a common center, the central canal.

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28
Q

osteon or haversian system

A

consists of a single central canal, its contents, and associated concentric lamellae and osteocytes.

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29
Q

circumferential lamellae

A

forms the outer surfaces of compact bone; thin plates that extend around the bone

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30
Q

interstitial lamellae

A

Between the osteons; remnants of concentric or circumferential lamellae that were partially removed during bone remodeling.

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31
Q

perforating canals

A

how blood vessels from the periosteum or medullary cavity enter the bone; run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

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32
Q

Long bones

A

longer than they are wide. Most of the bones of the upper and lower limbs are long bones.

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33
Q

Short bones

A

round or nearly cube-shaped; bones of the wrist (carpal bones) and ankle (tarsal bones).

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34
Q

Flat bones

A

have a relatively thin, flattened shape and are usually curved; certain skull bones, the ribs, the breastbone (sternum), and the shoulder blades (scapulae).

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35
Q

Irregular bones

A

vertebrae and facial bones; have shapes that do not fit readily into the other three categories.

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36
Q

diaphysis or shaft

A

composed primarily of compact bone, but it can also contain some spongy bone.

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37
Q

articular cartilage

A

Within joints, the end of a long bone is covered with this hyaline cartilage

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38
Q

epiphysis

A

part of a long bone that develops from a center of ossification distinct from that of the diaphysis.

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39
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

growth plate; Area of hyaline cartilage between the diaphysis and epiphysis; cartilage growth followed by endochondral ossification results in growth in bone length

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40
Q

epiphyseal line

A

When bone stops growing in length, the epiphyseal plate becomes ossified and is called the epiphyseal line

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41
Q

Medullary cavity

A

Large cavity within the diaphysis

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42
Q

Periosteum

A

Double-layered connective tissue membrane covering the outer surface of bone except where articular cartilage is present; ligaments and tendons attach to bone through the periosteum; blood vessels and nerves from the periosteum
supply the bone; the periosteum is where bone grows in diameter

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43
Q

perforating fibers or Sharpey fibers

A

bundles of collagen fibers that strengthen the attachment of the tendons or ligaments to the bone.

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44
Q

Endosteum

A

Thin connective tissue membrane lining the inner cavities of bone

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45
Q

sinuses

A

air-filled spaces some of the flat and irregular bones of the skull have, which are lined by mucous membranes.

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46
Q

intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification

A

During fetal development, bone forms in these two patterns which initially produce woven bone, that is
then remodeled and they both look the same: intramembranous ossification (takes place in connective
tissue membranes) and endochondral ossification (takes place in cartilage)

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47
Q

centers of ossification

A

The locations in the membrane where ossification begins

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48
Q

fontanels or soft spots

A

The larger, membrane-covered spaces between the developing skull bones that have not yet been ossified

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49
Q

hyaline cartilage model

A

what the chondroblasts produce as a map of the approximate shape of the bone that will later be formed

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50
Q

bone collar

A

when the osteoblasts produce compact bone on the surface of the cartilage model

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51
Q

hypertrophy

A

enlarge

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52
Q

calcified cartilage

A

when the chondrocytes release matrix vesicles, which initiate the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals in the cartilage matrix.

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53
Q

primary ossification center

A

area of diaphysis bone formation where the osteoblasts produce bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage, forming bone trabeculae, which changes the calcified
cartilage of the diaphysis into spongy bone.

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54
Q

secondary ossification centers

A

additional sites of ossification that appear in the epiphyses

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55
Q

zone of resting cartilage

A

nearest the epiphysis and contains randomly arranged

chondrocytes that do not divide rapidly.

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56
Q

zone of proliferation

A

The chondrocytes here produce new cartilage through interstitial cartilage growth.

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57
Q

zone of hypertrophy

A

here the chondrocytes produced in the zone of proliferation mature and enlarge.

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58
Q

zone of calcification

A

very thin and contains hypertrophied chondrocytes and calcified cartilage matrix. The hypertrophied chondrocytes die, and blood vessels from the diaphysis grow into the area.

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59
Q

rickets

A

Insufficient vitamin D in children causes this disease resulting from reduced mineralization of the bone matrix.

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60
Q

“adult rickets” or osteomalacia

A

softening of the bones as a result of calcium depletion.

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61
Q

Vitamin C

A

necessary for collagen synthesis by osteoblasts. In

children, vitamin C deficiency can retard growth.

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62
Q

scurvy

A

In both children and adults, vitamin C deficiency can result in scurvy, which is marked by ulceration and hemorrhage in almost any area of the body because normal collagen synthesis is not occurring in connective tissues.

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63
Q

Growth hormone

A

from the anterior pituitary increases general tissue growth, including overall bone growth, by stimulating interstitial cartilage growth and appositional bone growth.

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64
Q

Thyroid hormone

A

also required for normal growth of all tissues, including cartilage; therefore, a decrease in this hormone can result in a smaller individual.

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65
Q

Sex hormones

A

also influence bone growth. Estrogen and testosterone initially stimulate bone growth, which accounts for the burst of growth at puberty, when production of these hormones increases.

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66
Q

bone remodeling

A

when bone that becomes old is replaced with new bone

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67
Q

basic multicellular unit (BMU)

A

a temporary assembly of osteoclasts and osteoblasts that travels through or across the surface of bone, removing old bone matrix and replacing it with new bone matrix.

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68
Q

hematoma

A

localized mass of blood released from blood vessels but confined within an organ or a space.

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69
Q

callus

A

mass of tissue that forms at a fracture site and connects the broken ends of the bone.

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70
Q

internal callus

A

forms between the ends of the broken bone, as well as in the marrow cavity if the fracture occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone.

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71
Q

external callus

A

forms a collar around the opposing ends of the bone fragments.

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72
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

major regulator of blood Ca 2+ levels. PTH, secreted from the parathyroid glands when blood Ca 2+ levels are too
low, stimulates an increase in the number of osteoclasts, which break down bone and elevate blood Ca 2 + levels

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73
Q

receptor for activation of nuclear factor kappaB ligand (RANKL)

A

When PTH binds to these receptors, these cells respond by producing this

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74
Q

receptor for activation of nuclear factor kappaB (RANK)

A

RANKL is expressed on the surface of the osteoblasts and stem cells and can combine with RANK found on
the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursor cells.

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75
Q

osteoprotegerin (OPG)

A

Osteoclast production is inhibited by OPG, which is secreted by osteoblasts and stem cells.

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76
Q

Calcitonin

A

secreted from the thyroid gland when blood Ca 2+ levels are too high, decreases osteoclast activity by binding to receptors on the osteoclasts.

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77
Q

open fracture (compound)

A

occurs when an open wound extends to the site of the

fracture or when a fragment of bone protrudes through the skin.

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78
Q

closed fracture (simple)

A

If the skin is not perforated in a fracture

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79
Q

complicated fracture

A

If the soft tissues around a closed fracture are damaged

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80
Q

incomplete fracture

A

does not extend completely across the bone

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81
Q

complete fracture

A

the bone is broken into at least two fragments.

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82
Q

greenstick fracture

A

An incomplete fracture that occurs on the convex side of the curve of the bone

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83
Q

Hairline fractures

A

incomplete fractures in which the two sections of bone do not separate; common in the skull.

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84
Q

comminuted fracture

A

complete fracture in which the bone breaks into more than two pieces—usually two major fragments and a smaller fragment.

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85
Q

impacted fracture

A

one fragment is driven into the spongy portion of the other

fragment.

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86
Q

Linear fractures

A

run parallel to the long axis of the bone

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87
Q

transverse fractures

A

right angles to the long axis.

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88
Q

Spiral fractures

A

take a helical course around the bone

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89
Q

oblique fractures

A

run obliquely in relation to the long axis

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90
Q

Dentate fractures

A

have rough, toothed, broken ends

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91
Q

stellate fractures

A

have breakage lines radiating from a central point.

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92
Q

hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

A

decreases osteoclast numbers by inhibiting the production of RANKL

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93
Q

Statins

A

drugs that inhibit cholesterol synthesis; they also stimulate osteoblast activity

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94
Q

bisphosphonates

A

concentrate in bone.

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95
Q

tubercle or process

A

If a bone possesses a tubercle (lump) or a process (projection), most likely a ligament or tendon was attached to that tubercle or process during life.

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96
Q

foramen

A

If the bone has a foramen in it, that foramen was

the opening through which a nerve or blood vessel passed.

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97
Q

sinuses

A

mucous membrane–lined air spaces that some skull bones contain

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98
Q

axial skeleton

A

composed of the skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and rib cage, or thoracic cage.

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99
Q

skull or cranium

A

protects the brain; supports the organs of vision, hearing, smell, and taste; and provides a foundation for the structures that take air, food, and water into the body.

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100
Q

calvaria or skullcap

A

The top of the skull

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101
Q

parietal bones

A

The paired parietal bones are joined at the midline by the sagittal suture

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102
Q

frontal bone

A

the parietal bones are connected to the frontal bone by the coronal suture

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103
Q

occipital bone

A

The parietal bones are joined to the occipital bone by the lambdoid suture .

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104
Q

sutural bones

A

extra small bones that form along the lambdoid suture.

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105
Q

external occipital protuberance

A

present on the posterior surface of the occipital bone

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106
Q

ligamentum nuchae

A

an elastic ligament that extends down the neck and helps

keep the head erect by pulling on the occipital region of the skull.

107
Q

Nuchal lines

A

a set of small ridges that extend laterally from the protuberance and are the points of attachment for several neck muscles.

108
Q

squamous suture

A

joins the parietal bone and the squamous part of the temporal bone

109
Q

external auditory canal (or external acoustic meatus)

A

A prominent feature of the temporal bone is this large hole, which transmits sound waves toward the tympanic membrane

110
Q

mastoid process

A

Just posterior and inferior to the external auditory canal is this large inferior projection

111
Q

mastoid air cells

A

The process is not solid bone but is filled with these cavities, which are connected to the middle ear.

112
Q

temporal lines

A

superior and inferior temporal lines, which are attachment points of the temporalis muscle, one of the major muscles of mastication, arch across the lateral surface of the parietal bone.

113
Q

sphenoid bone

A

the lateral surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone is immediately anterior to the temporal bone

114
Q

zygomatic bone

A

Anterior to the sphenoid bone; cheekbone

115
Q

zygomatic arch

A

consists of joined processes from the temporal and zygomatic bones, forms a bridge across the side of the skull

116
Q

maxilla

A

upper jaw; is anterior and inferior to the zygomatic bone to which it is joined.

117
Q

mandible

A

lower jaw; is inferior to the maxilla and articulates posteriorly with the temporal bone; consists of 2 main regions: body, which extends anteroposteriorly, and the
ramus (branch), which extends superiorly from the body toward the temporal bone.

118
Q

The superior end of the ramus has:

A

a mandibular condyle, which articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone, and the coronoid process, to which the powerful temporalis muscle, one of the chewing muscles, attaches.

119
Q

orbits

A

the most prominent openings into the skull are the orbits and the nasal cavity. Each of the two orbits is a cone-shaped fossa with its apex directed posteriorly

120
Q

nasolacrimal canal

A

holds the nasolacrimal duct that passes from the orbit into the nasal cavity, carrying tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity.

121
Q

optic canal

A

The optic nerve for vision passes from the eye through the

optic canal at the posterior apex of the orbit and enters the cranial cavity.

122
Q

nasal cavity

A

has a pear-shaped opening anteriorly and is divided into right and left halves by a nasal septum

123
Q

nasal septum

A

consists primarily of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. Hyaline cartilage forms the anterior
part of the nasal septum.

124
Q

nasal conchae

A

three bony shelves on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity, which are directed inferiorly

125
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

large cavities within several of the bones associated with the nasal cavity, which open into the nasal cavity; decrease the weight of the skull and act as resonating chambers during voice production.

126
Q

cranial cavity

A

skull cavity occupied by the brain.

127
Q

crista galli

A

A prominent ridge located in the center of the anterior fossa; point of attachment for one of the meninges, the dura mater, a thick connective tissue membrane that supports and protects the brain

128
Q

cribriform plate

A

plate of the ethmoid bone forms the floor of each olfactory fossa.

129
Q

olfactory foramina

A

sievelike perforations in the cribriform plate through which the olfactory nerves extend from the cranial cavity into the roof of the nasal cavity

130
Q

sella turcica

A

central prominence located within the floor of the cranial cavity that resembles a saddle, the body of the sphenoid bone forms it; occupied by the pituitary gland.

131
Q

anterior cranial fossa and middle cranial fossa

A

The lesser wings of the sphenoid bone form a ridge to

each side of the optic canals. This ridge separates the anterior cranial fossa from the middle cranial fossa.

132
Q

petrous portion

A

portion of the temporal bone extends posterolaterally from each side of the sella turcica; thick, bony ridge is hollow and contains the middle and inner ears.

133
Q

posterior cranial fossa

A

The petrous portion separates the middle cranial fossa from the posterior cranial fossa.

134
Q

Several important openings in the floor of the middle cranial fossa:

A

superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum, the foramen ovale, the foramen spinosum, and the internal opening
of the carotid canal

135
Q

foramen lacerum

A

in the floor of the carotid canal, is an artifact of the dried skull; filled with cartilage.

136
Q

foramen magnum

A

through which the brain is connected to the spinal cord, is in the posterior fossa

137
Q

hypoglossal canal

A

located on the anterolateral sides of the foramen magnum

138
Q

Jugular foramina

A

lie on each side of the foramen magnum near the base of the petrous portion.

139
Q

internal auditory canal

A

located about midway up the face of each petrous portion

140
Q

Occipital condyles

A

smooth points of articulation between the skull and the vertebral column, lie on the lateral and anterior margins of the foramen magnum.

141
Q

carotid canals

A

through which blood reaches the brain by way of

the internal carotid arteries

142
Q

styloid processes

A

Two long, pointed projections that project from the floor of the temporal bone

143
Q

mandibular fossa

A

where the mandible articulates with the rest of the skull, is anterior to the mastoid process at the base of the zygomatic arch.

144
Q

medial pterygoid plate and the lateral pterygoid plate

A

The posterior opening of the nasal cavity is bounded on each side by these vertical bony plates of the sphenoid bone

145
Q

vomer

A

forms most of the posterior portion of the nasal septum and can be seen between the medial pterygoid plates in the center of the nasal cavity.

146
Q

hard palate or bony palate

A

forms the floor of the nasal cavity.

147
Q

auditory ossicles

A

the skull contains six which function in hearing

148
Q

braincase or neurocranium

A

consists of 8 bones that immediately surround and protect the brain.

149
Q

cleft lip

A

results if the maxillae do not form normally

150
Q

cleft palate

A

occurs when the palatine processes of the maxillae do not fuse with one another

151
Q

facial bones or viscerocranium

A

form the structure of the face in the anterior skull.

152
Q

alveolar processes

A

jaws possess alveolar processes with sockets for the attachment of the teeth.

153
Q

hyoid bone

A

is unpaired, is often listed as part of the facial bones because it has a common developmental origin with them.

154
Q

body

A

bony disk that’s the weight-bearing portion of the vertebra

155
Q

vertebral arch

A

projects posteriorly from the body

156
Q

The vertebral arch is divided into left and right halves, and each half has two parts

A

pedicle, which is attached to the body, and the lamina, which joins with the lamina from the opposite half of the arch.

157
Q

vertebral foramen

A

vertebral arch and the posterior part of the body surround this large opening

158
Q

vertebral canal

A

The vertebral foramina of adjacent vertebrae combine to

form the vertebral canal, which contains the spinal cord or cauda equina

159
Q

transverse process

A

extends laterally from each side of the arch between the lamina and the pedicle

160
Q

spinous process

A

a single spinous process lies at the junction between the two laminae

161
Q

intervertebral foramina

A

Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord through this

162
Q

intervertebral notches

A

Each intervertebral foramen is formed by these in the pedicles of adjacent vertebrae.

163
Q

Lordosis

A

hollow back; an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region.

164
Q

Kyphosis

A

hump back; an exaggeration of the concave curve of the thoracic region.

165
Q

Scoliosis

A

an abnormal lateral and rotational curvature of the vertebral column, which is often accompanied by secondary abnormal curvatures

166
Q

spina bifida

A

when vertebral laminae partly or completely fail to fuse

(or even fail to form) during fetal development

167
Q

articular facet

A

The region of overlap and articulation between the superior and inferior articular processes creates a smooth articular facet on each articular process.

168
Q

intervertebral disks of fibrocartilage

A

located between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae; provide additional support and prevent the vertebral bodies from rubbing against each other.

169
Q

external annulus fibrosus

A

The intervertebral disks consist of an external annulus fibrosus and an internal, gelatinous nucleus pulposus

170
Q

cervical vertebrae

A

have very small bodies; most have bifid spinous processes and a transverse foramen in each transverse process through which the vertebral arteries extend toward the head.

171
Q

herniated disk (or ruptured disk)

A

results when the annulus fibrosus breaks or balloons, releasing all or part of the nucleus pulposus

172
Q

laminectomy

A

removal of a vertebral lamina, or vertebral arch.

173
Q

hemilaminectomy

A

removal of a portion of a vertebral lamina.

174
Q

Fenestration

A

involves removal of the nucleus pulposus, leaving the

annulus fibrosus intact.

175
Q

atlas

A

first cervical vertebra; holds up the head

176
Q

axis

A

second cervical vertebra; a considerable amount of rotation occurs at this vertebra to produce a “no” motion of the head.

177
Q

dens or odontoid process.

A

axis has this highly modified process on the superior side of its small body

178
Q

vertebral prominens

A

most prominent spinous process near 7th vertebra

179
Q

Whiplash

A

traumatic hyperextension of the cervical vertebrae.

180
Q

thoracic vertebrae

A

possess long, thin spinous processes directed inferiorly, and they have relatively long transverse processes.

181
Q

lumbar vertebrae

A

have large, thick bodies and heavy, rectangular transverse and spinous processes.

182
Q

sacral vertebrae

A

highly modified compared with the others.

183
Q

sacrum

A

five sacral vertebrae are fused into this single bone

184
Q

alae

A

wing-shaped areas that are superior surfaces of the lateral parts

185
Q

auricular surfaces

A

Much of the lateral surfaces of the sacrum; ear-shaped; join the sacrum to the pelvic bones.

186
Q

median sacral crest

A

The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form the median sacral crest along the dorsal surface of the sacrum.

187
Q

sacral hiatus

A

spinous process of the fifth vertebra does not form, thereby leaving a sacral hiatus at the inferior end of the sacrum, which is often the site of anesthetic injections.

188
Q

sacral foramina

A

The intervertebral foramina are divided into these anterior and posterior foramina, which are lateral to the midline.

189
Q

Transverse lines

A

where the individual sacral vertebrae fuse

190
Q

sacral promontory

A

anterior edge of the body of the first sacral vertebra bulges to form this, a landmark that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

191
Q

coccyx or tailbone

A

most inferior portion of the vertebral column and usually

consists of three to five semifused vertebrae that form a triangle, with the apex directed inferiorly.

192
Q

rib cage or thoracic cage

A

protects the vital organs within the thorax and forms a semirigid chamber that can increase and decrease in volume during respiration.

193
Q

ribs

A

12 pairs; classified as either true ribs or false ribs.

194
Q

true ribs

A

superior 7 pairs are called true ribs or vertebrosternal ribs; they articulate with the thoracic vertebrae and attach directly through their costal cartilages to the sternum.

195
Q

false ribs

A

inferior 5 pairs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae but do
not attach directly to the sternum.

196
Q

vertebrochondral ribs

A

joined by a common cartilage to the costal cartilage of the seventh rib, which in turn is attached to the sternum.

197
Q

floating ribs or vertebral ribs

A

Two of the false ribs, the eleventh and twelfth ribs; do not attach to the sternum.

198
Q

separated rib

A

a dislocation between a rib and its costal cartilage that allows the rib to move, override adjacent ribs, and cause pain.

199
Q

cervical ribs

A

transverse processes of the seventh cervical vertebra form these separate bones

200
Q

sternum or breastbone

A

sword-shaped and has three parts: manubrium is the sword handle; the body, or gladiolus (sword), is the blade; and the xiphoid process is the sword tip.

201
Q

jugular notch or suprasternal notch

A

v at bottom of throat; within superior margin of the manubrium in the midline, which can be easily felt at the anterior base of the neck

202
Q

sternal angle

A

point at which the manubrium joins the body of the sternum can be felt as a prominence on the anterior thorax

203
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

consists of the bones of the upper limbs, the lower limbs, and the girdles.

204
Q

pectoral girdle or shoulder girdle

A

consists of two pairs of bones that attach the upper limb to the body: Each pair is composed of a scapula or shoulder blade and a clavicle or collarbone

205
Q

scapular spine

A

extends from the acromion process across the posterior surface of the scapula and divides that surface into a small supraspinous fossa superior to the spine and a larger infraspinous fossa inferior to the spine.

206
Q

subscapular fossa

A

deep, anterior surface of the scapula

207
Q

coracoid process

A

provides attachments for some shoulder and arm muscles.

208
Q

glenoid cavity

A

located in the superior lateral portion of the bone, articulates with the head of the humerus.

209
Q

humerus

A

The arm, the part of the upper limb from the shoulder to the elbow, contains only one bone, the humerus

210
Q

humeral head

A

articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

211
Q

anatomical neck

A

immediately distal to the head, is almost nonexistent; thus,
a surgical neck has been designated.

212
Q

surgical neck

A

common fracture site that often requires surgical repair.

213
Q

greater tubercle and the lesser tubercle

A

greater tubercle is on the lateral surface, and the lesser tubercle is on the anterior surface of the proximal end of the humerus, where both are sites of muscle attachment.

214
Q

intertubercular groove or bicipital groove

A

groove between the two tubercles contains one tendon of the biceps brachii muscle

215
Q

deltoid tuberosity

A

located on the lateral surface of the humerus a little more than a third of the way along its length and is the attachment site for the deltoid muscle.

216
Q

capitulum

A

lateral portion of the articular surface is very rounded, articulates with the radius

217
Q

trochlea

A

medial portion somewhat resembles a spool or pulley, articulates with the ulna

218
Q

medial and lateral epicondyles

A

Proximal to the capitulum and the trochlea; points of attachment for the muscles of the forearm.

219
Q

ulna

A

on the medial side of the forearm, the side with the little finger.

220
Q

radius

A

on the lateral, or thumb, side of the forearm

221
Q

trochlear notch

A

proximal end of the ulna has a C-shaped articular surface, that fits over the trochlea of the humerus.

222
Q

olecranon process

A

larger, posterior process

223
Q

coronoid process

A

smaller, anterior process

224
Q

ulna head

A

distal end of the ulna has a small head, which articulates with both the radius and the wrist bones

225
Q

ulna styloid process

A

to which ligaments of the wrist are attached

226
Q

radial notch

A

lateral surfaces of the head constitute a smooth cylinder, where the radius rotates against the radial notch of the ulna

227
Q

radial tuberosity

A

the point at which a major anterior arm muscle, the biceps brachii, attaches.

228
Q

styloid process

A

to which wrist ligaments are attached is located on the

lateral side of the distal radius.

229
Q

carpal bones

A

The wrist is a relatively short region between the forearm and the hand; it is composed of 8 carpal bones

230
Q

carpal tunnel

A

A ligament stretches across the wrist from the tubercle of the trapezium to the hook of the hamate to form a tunnel on the anterior surface of the wrist

231
Q

sesamoid bones

A

One or two sesamoid bones often form near the junction between the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal bone of the thumb.

232
Q

pelvic girdle

A

The right and left coxal bones join each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly to form a ring of bone called the pelvic girdle.

233
Q

pelvis

A

includes the pelvic girdle and the coccyx

234
Q

obturator foramen

A

Each coxal bone consists of a large, concave bony plate superiorly, a slightly narrower region in the center, and an expanded bony ring inferiorly, which surrounds a large obturator foramen.

235
Q

acetabulum

A

A fossa called the acetabulum is located on the lateral surface of each coxal bone and is the point where the lower limb articulates with the girdle.

236
Q

Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones:

A

ilium, ischium, and pubis

237
Q

iliac crest

A

superior portion of the ilium

238
Q

greater sciatic notch

A

on the posterior side of the ilium, just inferior to the posterior inferior iliac spine.

239
Q

sacroiliac joint

A

auricular surface of the ilium joins the sacrum to form the sacroiliac joint

240
Q

iliac fossa

A

medial side of the ilium consists of this large depression

241
Q

ischial tuberosity

A

where posterior thigh muscles attach and on which a person sits

242
Q

pubic crest

A

where abdominal muscles attach

243
Q

pubic tubercle

A

where the inguinal ligament attaches

244
Q

symphysis pubis or pubic symphysis

A

Just inferior to the pubic crest is the point of junction between the two coxal bones

245
Q

The pelvis is subdivided into a true pelvis and a false pelvis:

A

The opening to the true pelvis is the pelvic inlet and inferior opening of the true pelvis is the pelvic outlet. The false pelvis is formed by muscle overlying bone of the true pelvis.

246
Q

femur

A

single bone in the thigh

247
Q

The proximal shaft exhibits two projections:

A

greater trochanter lateral to the neck and a smaller, lesser trochanter inferior and posterior to the neck.

248
Q

distal end of the femur has medial

and lateral condyles

A

smooth, rounded surfaces that articulate with the tibia.

249
Q

medial and lateral epicondyles

A

Located proximally to the condyles; important sites of ligament attachment.

250
Q

adductor tubercle

A

to which muscles attach, is located just proximal to the medial epicondyle.

251
Q

lower leg consists of two bones

A

tibia, or shinbone, and fibula

252
Q

tibial tuberosity

A

which is the attachment point for the quadriceps femoris muscle group, can easily be seen and felt just inferior to the patella

253
Q

anterior crest

A

forms the shin.

254
Q

medial and lateral condyles

A

proximal end of the tibia; which articulate with the condyles of the femur.

255
Q

intercondylar eminence

A

Located between the condyles; a ridge between the two articular surfaces of the proximal tibia.

256
Q

medial malleolus

A

distal end of the tibia is enlarged to form the medial malleolus, which helps form the medial side of the ankle joint.

257
Q

lateral malleolus

A

distal end of the fibula is also slightly enlarged as the lateral malleolus to create the lateral wall of the ankle joint.

258
Q

foot

A

has seven tarsal bones; talus (ankle bone), calcaneus (heel bone) largest and strongest in foot; navicular; No Thanks Cow

259
Q

three medial, wedge-shaped bones in foot:

A

medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform, collectively called the cuneiforms

260
Q

cuboid

A

cube-shaped, is the most lateral of the distal row.

261
Q

three major foot arches:

A

medial longitudinal arch, the lateral longitudiual arch, and the transverse arch

262
Q

eversion

A

turning the plantar surface of the foot (the sole) outward so that it faces laterally

263
Q

inversion

A

Turning the plantar surface of the foot inward so that it faces medially