Chapter 48 Liver, Bilary Tract, and Pancreas Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What position should the patient be in to manage increased intracranial pressure?

A

Head elevated at 30 degrees

This position helps reduce intracranial pressure.

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2
Q

What should be avoided to prevent increased intracranial pressure?

A

Excessive patient stimulation and straining maneuvers

Straining or Valsalva-like movements can increase ICP.

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3
Q

What is crucial to monitor regularly in patients with increased intracranial pressure?

A

Baseline level of consciousness and orientation

Changes should be reported to the healthcare provider.

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4
Q

Why should sedatives be avoided in patients with increased intracranial pressure?

A

They may confuse effects with worsening encephalopathy

Sedatives can affect mental status.

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5
Q

What is the recommended use of benzodiazepines in patients with liver issues?

A

Use only minimal doses due to delayed metabolism

The failing liver affects drug metabolism.

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6
Q

What is essential to monitor for renal function in patients with increased intracranial pressure?

A

Intake and output

This helps assess kidney function.

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7
Q

What types of cancer are most common in the liver?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

These are primary types of liver cancer.

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8
Q

How many cases of liver cancer were reported in the United States in 2018?

A

About 42,220 cases

This includes approximately 30,200 deaths.

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of death in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Liver cancer

Cirrhosis is often caused by HCV.

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10
Q

What percentage of patients with cirrhosis develop liver cancer each year?

A

About 2%

This statistic highlights the risk associated with cirrhosis.

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11
Q

What are the common clinical manifestations of late-stage liver cancer?

A

Fever/chills, jaundice, anorexia, weight loss, palpable mass, RUQ pain

These symptoms may indicate advanced disease.

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12
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for liver cancer?

A

Ultrasound, CT, MRI

MRI advancements allow accurate diagnosis without biopsy.

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13
Q

What is a potential risk associated with liver biopsy?

A

Bleeding and tumor cell seeding along the needle tract

Biopsy carries inherent risks.

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14
Q

What is the significance of serum a-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in liver cancer?

A

High rate of detection of early-stage HCC when combined with ultrasound

AFP is a tumor marker for liver cancer.

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15
Q

What is the primary focus of liver cancer prevention?

A

Identifying and treating chronic HBV and HCV infections

Addressing chronic alcohol use also lowers risk.

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16
Q

What factors influence the treatment plan for liver cancer?

A

Stage of cancer, number, size, location of tumors, blood vessel involvement, patient age, overall health, extent of liver disease

These factors determine treatment options.

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17
Q

What offers the best chance for a cure in liver cancer patients?

A

Liver resection (partial hepatectomy)

Only 15% have enough healthy liver tissue for this option.

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18
Q

What non-surgical therapies are available for liver cancer?

A

Percutaneous ablation, chemoembolization, radioembolization, systemic therapies

These treatments may be used when surgery is not an option.

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19
Q

In ablation therapy, what can be injected into the tumor?

A

Ethanol, acetic acid

Various substances are used to destroy the tumor.

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

What are the common procedures for liver cancer treatment?

A

Percutaneous, laparoscopic, or open incision procedures

These procedures are limited by the number, size, and location of liver tumors.

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22
Q

What is the usual treatment option for patients with multinodular HCC or intermediate-stage liver cancer?

A

Embolization of tumors, specifically TACE or TARE

TACE stands for transarterial chemoembolization, and TARE stands for transarterial radioembolization.

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23
Q

What does TACE do?

A

Shuts off blood supply to tumors and exposes tumor cells to chemotherapy drugs

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24
Q

What does TARE do?

A

Destroys tumors by slowly releasing radioactive material directly to the tumor site

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25
Q

What are systemic therapy options for liver cancer?

A

Chemotherapy and immune-based therapies, such as monoclonal antibodies, tyrosine kinase inhibitors, and immune checkpoint inhibitors

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26
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with liver cancer?

A

Poor, but improving with early screening and surveillance programs

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27
Q

What are potential complications of untreated liver cancer?

A

Death within 6 to 12 months, often from hepatic encephalopathy or massive GI bleeding

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28
Q

What is the leading reason for liver transplantation?

A

Liver disease related to errors of metabolism, specifically NAFLD

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29
Q

What is the process for evaluating liver transplant candidates?

A

Rigorous transplant evaluation including physical assessment, laboratory tests, and psychological testing

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30
Q

What are some contraindications for liver transplantation?

A

Severe extra-hepatic disease, advanced HCC, ongoing drug or alcohol use

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31
Q

What types of livers can be used for liver transplantation?

A

Deceased (cadaver) and live donor livers

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32
Q

What are the risks associated with live liver donation?

A

Biliary problems, hepatic artery thrombosis, wound infection, postoperative ileus, pneumothorax

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33
Q

What is a split liver transplant?

A

When a liver is divided into 2 parts and implanted into 2 recipients

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34
Q

What are common postoperative complications of liver transplantation?

A

Bleeding, infection, and rejection

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35
Q

What is the standard immunosuppressive therapy after liver transplantation?

A

Combination of corticosteroids, a calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine or tacrolimus), and an antiproliferative agent (e.g., azathioprine)

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36
Q

Which immunosuppressive agent is superior in liver transplants?

A

Tacrolimus

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37
Q

What percentage of patients live more than 5 years after liver transplant?

A

About 80%

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38
Q

What factors influence long-term survival after liver transplantation?

A

Cause of liver failure, such as localized HCC, chronic HBV or HCV, biliary disease

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39
Q

What treatment reduces reinfection rates in liver transplant patients with HBV?

A

IV HBIG and a nucleoside or nucleotide analog

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40
Q

What is the role of DAAs in HCV-positive liver transplantation?

A

They can cure HCV infection and provide the opportunity to use HCV-positive liver grafts

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41
Q

What is critical nursing care after liver transplantation?

A

Monitoring electrolyte levels, neurologic status, urine output, and signs of bleeding, infection, and rejection

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42
Q

What are common respiratory problems after liver transplantation?

A

Pneumonia, atelectasis, and pleural effusions

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43
Q

What is a key sign of infection in post-liver transplant patients?

A

Fever may be the only sign of infection

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the pancreas characterized by spillage of pancreatic enzymes into surrounding tissue, causing autodigestion and severe pain.

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46
Q

What are the common etiologic factors for acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Alcoholism
  • Biliary tract disease
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Drugs
  • Postoperative GI surgery
  • Unknown
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47
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States?

A

Gallbladder disease (gallstones)

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48
Q

What is the second most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Chronic alcohol use

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49
Q

What are some less common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Drug reactions
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Hypertriglyceridemia (serum levels over 1000 mg/dL)
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50
Q

What is the primary pathogenic mechanism in acute pancreatitis?

A

Autodigestion of the pancreas due to injury or activation of pancreatic enzymes within the pancreas

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51
Q

What can cause obstruction of pancreatic ducts leading to pancreatitis?

A

Blockage created by gallstones

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52
Q

What are the two types of pathophysiologic involvement in acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Mild pancreatitis (edematous or interstitial pancreatitis)
  • Severe pancreatitis (necrotizing pancreatitis)
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53
Q

What risk factors are associated with severe pancreatitis?

A
  • Permanent decreases in pancreatic endocrine and exocrine function
  • High risk for pancreatic necrosis, organ failure, and septic complications
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54
Q

What is the overall fatality rate associated with severe pancreatitis?

A

9%

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55
Q

What is the main clinical manifestation of acute pancreatitis?

A

Abdominal pain

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56
Q

Where is the abdominal pain typically located in acute pancreatitis?

A

Usually in the left upper quadrant

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57
Q

True or False: The liver’s size and metabolic breakdown of drugs increase with age.

A

False

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58
Q

What happens to the liver’s capacity to respond to injury as people age?

A

It decreases

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59
Q

What is the significance of drug-induced liver injury (DILI) in older adults?

A

Older adults are particularly vulnerable due to multiple medications and decreased liver function.

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60
Q

What chronic conditions can contribute to liver disease in older adults?

A
  • Chronic alcohol use
  • Obesity
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61
Q

What can variceal bleeding in older adults with liver disease cause?

A

Significant morbidity and mortality requiring immediate medical intervention

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62
Q

What condition may be misdiagnosed as dementia in older adults with liver disease?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

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63
Q

Fill in the blank: Transplanted livers take longer to _______ in the older adult.

A

[regenerate]

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64
Q

Why might older adults not be good candidates for liver transplants?

A

Increased risks for complications due to comorbid conditions

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65
Q

What effect does chronic alcohol use have on pancreatic enzyme production?

A

It is thought to increase the production of digestive enzymes in the pancreas.

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66
Q
A
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67
Q

What is a common symptom of pancreatitis that often radiates to the back?

A

Severe, deep, piercing abdominal pain

The pain often has a sudden onset and worsens with eating

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68
Q

What are some accompanying symptoms of pancreatitis?

A
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Low-grade fever
  • Leukocytosis
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Jaundice

Abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding is also common

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69
Q

What signs may indicate severe pancreatitis related to intravascular damage?

A
  • Cyanosis
  • Greenish to yellow-brown discoloration of the abdominal wall
  • Grey Turner spots (bluish flank discoloration)
  • Cullen sign (bluish periumbilical discoloration)

These signs result from seepage of bloodstained exudate from the pancreas

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70
Q

What can cause shock in patients with pancreatitis?

A
  • Bleeding into the pancreas
  • Toxemia from activated pancreatic enzymes
  • Hypovolemia due to fluid shift into the retroperitoneal space

Massive fluid shifts can lead to shock

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71
Q

What is a pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

An accumulation of fluid, pancreatic enzymes, tissue debris, and inflammatory exudates surrounded by a wall next to the pancreas

Manifestations include abdominal pain, palpable epigastric mass, nausea, vomiting, and anorexia

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72
Q

What diagnostic imaging tests are used to detect a pancreatic pseudocyst?

A
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)

Cysts usually resolve spontaneously but can perforate, causing complications

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73
Q

What is a pancreatic abscess?

A

An infection resulting from extensive necrosis in the pancreas

It can rupture or perforate into adjacent organs and requires prompt surgical drainage

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74
Q

What systemic complications can arise from acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Cardiovascular complications
  • Pulmonary complications (pleural effusion, atelectasis, pneumonia, ARDS)

Pulmonary complications arise from enzyme-induced inflammation of the diaphragm

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75
Q

What laboratory tests are primarily used for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Serum amylase
  • Serum lipase

Serum amylase is usually high early and remains elevated for 24 to 72 hours

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76
Q

What other serum findings are associated with acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Increased liver enzymes
  • Increased triglycerides
  • Increased glucose
  • Increased bilirubin
  • Decreased calcium

These findings support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis

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77
Q

What imaging test is considered the best for pancreatitis and its complications?

A

CT scan

It is effective in identifying pseudocysts and abscesses

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78
Q

What are the goals of interprofessional care for acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Pain relief
  • Prevent or alleviate shock
  • Reduce pancreatic secretions
  • Correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • Prevent or treat infection
  • Remove the precipitating cause

These goals guide the management of acute pancreatitis

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79
Q

Fill in the blank: Tetany in severe pancreatitis can be caused by _______.

A

[hypocalcemia]

It is related to the combining of calcium and fatty acids during fat necrosis

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80
Q

True or False: Patients with severe acute pancreatitis are at risk for abdominal compartment syndrome.

A

True

This condition can arise from intraabdominal hypertension and edema

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81
Q
A
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82
Q

What is the mechanism of action of antacids?

A

Neutralize gastric hydrochloric (HCI) acid secretion.

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83
Q

What diagnostic assessments are used for acute pancreatitis?

A
  • History and physical assessment
  • Serum amylase and lipase
  • Blood glucose
  • Serum calcium
  • Serum triglycerides
  • Flat plate of the abdomen
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)
  • MRCP
  • ERCP
  • Contrast-enhanced CT of pancreas
  • Chest x-ray
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84
Q

What role do antispasmodics play in the treatment of acute pancreatitis?

A

They affect vagal stimulation, motility, and pancreatic outflow.

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85
Q

What is the purpose of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide in pancreatitis treatment?

A

They influence pancreatic secretion.

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86
Q

What is the role of morphine in managing acute pancreatitis?

A

Pain relief.

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87
Q

What do PPIs like omeprazole do in the context of pancreatitis?

A

Suppress HCl acid secretion.

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88
Q

What is the management protocol for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A
  • NPO with NG tube to suction
  • Albumin if shock is present
  • IV calcium gluconate (10%) if tetany is present
  • Lactated Ringer’s solution
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89
Q

What is the purpose of administering insulin in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Treat diabetes or hyperglycemia, if needed.

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90
Q

What are pancreatic enzyme products used for in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Replacement therapy for pancreatic enzymes.

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91
Q

What is the focus of conservative therapy for pancreatitis?

A

Supportive care including aggressive hydration, pain management, and minimizing pancreatic stimulation.

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92
Q

True or False: Antibiotics are always necessary in the treatment of acute pancreatitis.

A

False.

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93
Q

What is the significance of monitoring serum glucose levels in patients with severe pancreatitis?

A

To check for hyperglycemia.

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94
Q

What surgical therapy may be performed if acute pancreatitis is related to gallstones?

A

Urgent ERCP plus endoscopic sphincterotomy.

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95
Q

What is the purpose of laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the context of pancreatitis?

A

Reduce the potential for recurrence of pancreatitis.

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96
Q

What is essential to do when treating acute necrotizing pancreatitis?

A

Prevent and treat infections.

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97
Q

What is the initial dietary recommendation for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

NPO to reduce pancreatic secretion.

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98
Q

Fill in the blank: The inflamed and necrotic pancreatic tissue is a good medium for _______.

A

bacterial growth.

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99
Q

What should be monitored if a patient receives IV lipids during pancreatitis treatment?

A

Blood triglyceride levels.

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100
Q

What is the recommended approach to feeding as pancreatitis resolves?

A

Start with small, frequent feedings.

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101
Q
A
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102
Q

What type of diet is recommended for patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

High in carbohydrate content

This type of diet is less stimulating to the exocrine part of the pancreas.

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103
Q

What symptoms may indicate an intolerance to oral foods in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

Pain, increasing abdominal girth, increased serum amylase and lipase levels

These symptoms help in assessing the patient’s tolerance to food.

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104
Q

What may be given to patients with acute pancreatitis to supplement their diet?

A

Fat-soluble vitamins

These vitamins may be necessary due to malabsorption issues.

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105
Q

What important health information should be assessed in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

Health history, medications, surgery or other treatments

Key areas include biliary tract disease, alcohol use, and previous surgeries.

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106
Q

List some clinical problems associated with acute pancreatitis.

A
  • Pain
  • Fluid imbalance
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Nutritionally compromised

These problems require careful monitoring and management.

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107
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Pain relief
  • Normal fluid and electrolyte balance
  • Minimal to no complications
  • No recurrent attacks

These goals guide the nursing care and interventions.

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108
Q

What should be monitored during the acute care phase of pancreatitis?

A

Vital signs, fluid and electrolyte balance, response to IV fluids

Important indicators include hypotension, fever, and tachypnea.

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109
Q

What are some signs of respiratory distress in patients with severe acute pancreatitis?

A

Tachypnea, basilar crackles, decreased oxygen saturation

Regular monitoring of lung sounds and oxygen levels is crucial.

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110
Q

What are the symptoms of hypocalcemia to observe for in patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

Tetany, jerking, irritability, muscular twitching, numbness or tingling

Early signs include numbness around the lips and fingers.

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111
Q

What signs can indicate hypocalcemia in a patient?

A

Positive Chostek sign or Trousseau sign

These signs help in diagnosing hypocalcemia.

112
Q

Fill in the blank: The patient with acute pancreatitis may need _______ to treat symptomatic hypocalcemia.

A

Calcium gluconate

This treatment is essential for managing low calcium levels.

114
Q

What is a major focus of care in patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

Pain relief

Pain and restlessness can increase metabolic rate and contribute to hemodynamic instability.

115
Q

Which medications may be used for pain relief in acute pancreatitis?

A

Opioids

Assess and document the duration of pain relief.

116
Q

What position may help decrease pain in patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

Side-lying position with head elevated 45 degrees

This position decreases tension on the abdomen.

117
Q

What care should be provided for patients on NPO status or with an NG tube?

A

Frequent oral and nasal care

This helps relieve dryness and prevent parotitis.

118
Q

What signs should be observed in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

Fever and other signs of infection

Respiratory tract infections are common.

119
Q

What measures can help prevent respiratory tract infections in patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

Turning, coughing, deep breathing, and assuming a semi-Fowlers position

These measures encourage better respiratory function.

120
Q

What should be assessed to determine damage to the ß cells of the pancreas?

A

Blood glucose level

This assessment is crucial in acute pancreatitis.

121
Q

What special care may be needed for patients who had surgery for acute pancreatitis?

A

Wound care for anastomotic leak or fistula

Use skin barriers and pouching to protect the skin.

122
Q

What follow-up care may be needed after acute pancreatitis?

A

Home care follow-up and physical therapy

Important due to loss of physical and muscle strength.

123
Q

What should patients with a history of acute pancreatitis avoid to prevent future attacks?

A

Alcohol and smoking

Counseling about abstinence is important.

124
Q

What dietary changes should be taught to patients recovering from acute pancreatitis?

A

Fat restriction and increased carbohydrates

Fats stimulate cholecystokinin secretion, affecting the pancreas.

125
Q

What are the expected outcomes for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

Adequate pain control, fluid balance, knowledge of treatment plan, help for alcohol use

These outcomes ensure recovery and management.

126
Q

What characterizes chronic pancreatitis?

A

Continuous, prolonged inflammatory and fibrosing process

The pancreas is progressively destroyed and replaced by fibrotic tissue.

127
Q

What is the most common cause of nonobstructive chronic pancreatitis?

A

Chronic alcohol use

This leads to inflammation and sclerosis in the pancreas.

128
Q

What can cause obstructive pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the sphincter of Oddi from gallstones

Cancer of the ampulla of Vater, duodenum, or pancreas can also cause this type.

129
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Abdominal pain, malabsorption, weight loss, diabetes, steatorrhea

Pain may be described as heavy, gnawing, or cramp-like.

130
Q

What complications can arise from chronic pancreatitis?

A

Pseudocyst formation, bile duct obstruction, pancreatic ascites, pancreatic cancer

These complications can significantly affect health.

131
Q

What is a challenge in diagnosing chronic pancreatitis?

A

Confirming the diagnosis can be hard due to overlapping symptoms

Diagnosis relies on signs, symptoms, laboratory studies, and imaging.

133
Q

What levels may be increased in pancreatic conditions?

A

Amylase and lipase levels, serum bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase levels

Depending on the degree of pancreatic fibrosis, amylase and lipase levels may be slightly increased or not at all.

134
Q

What imaging studies can visualize changes in the pancreas?

A

CT, MRI, MRCP, and abdominal ultrasound

These imaging studies can show calcifications, ductal dilation, pseudocysts, and pancreas enlargement.

135
Q

What is the purpose of a secretin stimulation test?

A

To assess the degree of pancreatic dysfunction.

136
Q

What are the main focuses of care for chronic pancreatitis during an acute attack?

A

Identical therapy to that for acute pancreatitis.

137
Q

What is a recommended diet for managing pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Small, bland, frequent meals that are low in fat.

138
Q

What types of pancreatic enzyme products are used for enzyme replacement?

A

Pancrelipase, which contains amylase, lipase, and trypsin.

139
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins that may require bile salts for absorption?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, and K.

140
Q

What is the primary risk factor associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking.

141
Q

What is the median age at diagnosis for pancreatic cancer?

A

Around 68 years of age.

142
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of pancreatic cancer?

A

Abdominal pain, anorexia, rapid weight loss, nausea, and jaundice.

143
Q

What imaging techniques are often used for diagnosing pancreatic cancer?

A

Abdominal ultrasound, EUS, spiral CT scan, ERCP, MRI, and MRCP.

144
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for pancreatic cancer?

145
Q

True or False: Most pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas.

146
Q

What is a choledochojejunostomy?

A

A surgical procedure that diverts bile around the ampulla of Vater.

147
Q

Fill in the blank: The pain associated with pancreatic cancer often radiates to the _______.

148
Q

What may indicate the effectiveness of pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy?

A

Monitoring stools for steatorrhea.

149
Q

What types of medications may be used to control gastric acidity in pancreatic conditions?

A

Antacids, H2-receptor blockers, and PPIs.

150
Q

What are common pain management options for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Analgesics such as morphine and fentanyl patch.

151
Q

What is the consequence of smoking on chronic pancreatitis?

A

It can accelerate the progression of the disease.

152
Q

What is an endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) used for?

A

Imaging the pancreas and allowing for fine-needle aspiration for biopsy.

153
Q

What are pancreatic drainage procedures designed to relieve?

A

Ductal obstruction.

155
Q

What is the most common disorder of the biliary system?

A

Cholelithiasis (stones in the gallbladder)

Cholelithiasis may lead to complications such as cholecystitis.

156
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder wall, usually associated with gallstones

Cholecystitis can be acute or chronic.

157
Q

What percentage of American adults have cholecystitis caused by gallstones?

A

Up to 10%

Many individuals with gallstones may be asymptomatic.

158
Q

What is cholecystectomy?

A

Removal of the gallbladder

It is one of the most common surgeries performed in the United States.

159
Q

Which demographic is more likely to develop gallstones?

A

Women, especially multiparous women and women over 40 years of age

Factors such as estrogen replacement therapy and oral contraceptives increase risk.

160
Q

What lifestyle factors increase the risk of gallbladder disease?

A
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Familial tendency
  • Obesity

Obesity leads to increased secretion of cholesterol in bile.

161
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with pancreatic cancer?

A

Poor

Prognosis often requires the patient and caregiver to cope effectively.

162
Q

What is the most commonly used tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

Cancer-associated antigen 19-9 (CA 19-9)

CA 19-9 can also be elevated in other conditions such as gallbladder cancer and pancreatitis.

163
Q

What percentage of patients have resectable tumors at the time of pancreatic cancer diagnosis?

A

15% to 20%

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy can increase the number of surgical candidates.

164
Q

What is the Whipple procedure?

A

A surgical procedure involving resection of the proximal pancreas, duodenum, distal common bile duct, and distal stomach

It is performed for pancreatic head tumors.

165
Q

What are the potential outcomes of a total pancreatectomy?

A

Causes diabetes and requires lifelong insulin therapy and pancreatic enzyme supplements

It is a last resort if the tumor cannot be surgically removed.

166
Q

True or False: Radiation therapy alone has a significant effect on survival for pancreatic cancer.

A

False

Radiation may help with pain relief but not survival.

167
Q

Fill in the blank: The symptoms of pancreatic cancer include _______.

A

anorexia, nausea, vomiting

Symptomatic and supportive care is crucial for patient management.

168
Q

What measures are included in nursing management for pancreatic cancer patients?

A
  • Symptomatic care
  • Pain relief
  • Nutritional support
  • Psychologic support

Frequent and supplemental feedings may be necessary.

169
Q

What is the role of chemotherapy in pancreatic cancer?

A

Limited and can have significant side effects

Common agents include fluorouracil and gemcitabine, among others.

171
Q

What is the incidence of cholelithiasis in men compared to women?

A

Lower in men

Women are at increased risk due to factors such as pregnancy and estrogen replacement therapy.

172
Q

What conditions increase the risk of cholelithiasis in women?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Estrogen replacement therapy
  • Obesity

Obesity particularly increases the risk for women.

173
Q

What are the main components of gallstones?

A
  • Cholesterol
  • Bile salts
  • Calcium
  • Bilirubin
  • Protein

Mixed cholesterol stones are the most common type of gallstones.

174
Q

What leads to the formation of gallstones?

A

Changes in the balance of cholesterol, bile salts, and calcium in solution

This can result in precipitation of these substances.

175
Q

What is lithogenic bile?

A

Bile that is supersaturated with cholesterol

This can contribute to the formation of gallstones.

176
Q

What can cause bile stasis?

A
  • Immobility
  • Pregnancy
  • Inflammatory lesions
  • Obstructive lesions

These factors decrease bile flow and can lead to gallstone formation.

177
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder, often associated with obstruction caused by gallstones

Acalculous cholecystitis occurs without obstruction.

178
Q

What are the common causes of acalculous cholecystitis?

A
  • Prolonged immobility
  • Fasting
  • Prolonged PN
  • Diabetes

Bile stasis is thought to be the main cause.

179
Q

What are the symptoms of cholecystitis?

A
  • Indigestion
  • Acute pain
  • RUQ tenderness
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Jaundice

Symptoms can vary from mild to severe.

180
Q

What is biliary colic?

A

Severe pain caused by gallstones moving through the ducts

The pain is rarely colicky and is often steady.

181
Q

What happens if the common bile duct is obstructed?

A

No bilirubin reaches the small intestine, leading to dark amber to brown urine

This occurs because bilirubin is excreted by the kidneys.

182
Q

What are some complications of gallstones and cholecystitis?

A
  • Gangrenous cholecystitis
  • Subphrenic abscess
  • Pancreatitis
  • Cholangitis

These complications can arise from untreated gallstones.

183
Q

What physical findings are associated with acute cholecystitis?

A
  • RUQ or epigastrium tenderness
  • Abdominal rigidity
  • Leukocytosis
  • Fever

These findings are indicative of inflammation.

184
Q

Fill in the blank: The main cause of acalculous cholecystitis is _______.

A

bile stasis

185
Q

True or False: The pain from gallstones is typically colicky.

A

False

The pain is more often steady than colicky.

186
Q

What can cause the gallbladder to become distended?

A
  • Bile
  • Pus

This occurs during an acute attack of cholecystitis.

187
Q

What is the role of cholecystokinin in gallbladder function?

A

It induces gallbladder contraction

Absence of oral feeding can decrease or halt this contraction.

189
Q

What are the manifestations of obstructed bile flow?

A
  • Bleeding tendencies
  • Clay-colored stools
  • Dark amber to brown urine, which foams when shaken
  • Fever and chills
  • Intolerance for fatty foods
  • Jaundice
  • Pruritus
  • Steatorrhea
  • Urobilinogen absent in urine

These manifestations indicate various complications related to bile obstruction.

190
Q

What causes bleeding tendencies in obstructed bile flow?

A

Lack of or impaired Vitamin K absorption, resulting in decreased prothrombin production.

Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting.

191
Q

What causes clay-colored stools?

A

No bilirubin reaching the small intestine to be converted to urobilinogen.

Bilirubin is responsible for the brown color of normal stools.

192
Q

What does dark amber to brown urine indicate in obstructed bile flow?

A

Water-soluble (conjugated) bilirubin elimination in urine.

This occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream.

193
Q

What is a common complication of choledocholithiasis?

A

Symptoms of obstruction due to stones in the common bile duct.

Choledocholithiasis can lead to significant digestive issues.

194
Q

What diagnostic study is often used to diagnose gallstones?

A

Ultrasound.

It is particularly useful for patients with jaundice.

195
Q

What does ERCP allow for in the diagnosis of biliary conditions?

A

Visualization of the gallbladder, cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and common bile duct.

It is used to identify possible infecting organisms by culturing bile.

196
Q

What is percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography?

A

Insertion of a needle directly into the gallbladder duct followed by injection of contrast materials.

It is usually done after ultrasound shows a bile duct blockage.

197
Q

What laboratory tests may indicate an obstructive process?

A
  • Increased WBC count
  • Increased serum enzymes (alkaline phosphatase, ALT, AST)
  • Increased direct and indirect bilirubin levels
  • Increased urinary bilirubin levels

These tests help confirm the diagnosis of obstruction.

198
Q

What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic gallstones?

A

Cholecystectomy.

This surgical procedure is commonly performed laparoscopically.

199
Q

What are bile acids used for in gallstone treatment?

A

To dissolve stones, such as ursodiol and chenodiol.

However, gallstones may recur after treatment.

200
Q

What is the role of ERCP with endoscopic sphincterotomy?

A

To remove stones from the biliary system.

This procedure allows for dilation and placement of stents.

201
Q

What is extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy (ESWL)?

A

A treatment that uses high-energy shock waves to disintegrate gallstones.

It usually takes 1 to 2 hours for the stones to disintegrate.

202
Q

What does treatment for acute cholecystitis focus on?

A
  • Pain control
  • Control of infection with antibiotics
  • Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

Supportive care is crucial during an acute episode.

203
Q

What is a cholecystostomy used for?

A

To drain purulent material from the obstructed gallbladder.

This procedure helps relieve symptoms and prevent complications.

204
Q

What percentage of cholecystectomies are performed laparoscopically?

A

About 90%.

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is minimally invasive and has quicker recovery times.

206
Q

What is the diagnostic assessment for cholelithiasis and acute cholecystitis?

A

• History and physical assessment
• Ultrasound
• ERCP
• Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
• Liver function tests
• WBC count
• Serum bilirubin

207
Q

What conservative therapy is recommended for patients with cholelithiasis?

A

• IN fluid
• NPO with NG tube, later progressing to low-fat diet
• Antiemetics
• Analgesics
• Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)
• Anticholinergics (antispasmodics)
• Antibiotics (for secondary infection)
• Transhepatic biliary catheter
• ERCP with sphincterotomy (papillotomy)
• Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy

208
Q

What are the two types of surgical therapy for gallbladder removal?

A

• Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
• Incisional (open) cholecystectomy

209
Q

What is the main complication associated with laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

Injury to the common bile duct

210
Q

What are the contraindications for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

• Peritonitis
• Cholangitis
• Gangrene or perforation of the gallbladder
• Portal hypertension
• Serious bleeding disorders

211
Q

Describe the procedure of laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

A

The HCP makes a small cut below the umbilicus, inserts a needle, inflates the abdomen with CO2, and uses a laparoscope with a camera and grasping forceps to remove the gallbladder.

212
Q

What is the purpose of a T tube in gallbladder surgery?

A

Keeps the duct patent until edema subsides and allows excess bile to drain

213
Q

What is the function of a transhepatic biliary catheter?

A

Decompress obstructed extrahepatic bile ducts to allow bile flow when endoscopic drainage fails.

214
Q

What are the common drugs used in the treatment of gallbladder disease?

A

• Analgesics
• Anticholinergics (antispasmodics)
• Fat-soluble vitamins
• Bile salts

215
Q

Fill in the blank: After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient should have _______ for the rest of the day.

216
Q

What dietary recommendations can help reduce gallbladder problems?

A

• Smaller, more frequent meals with some fat
• Low in saturated fats
• High in fiber and calcium
• Avoid rapid weight loss

217
Q

What should patients do to manage fluid loss from a transhepatic biliary catheter?

A

Replace lost fluids with electrolyte-rich drinks.

218
Q

What signs should be observed for in patients with a transhepatic biliary catheter?

A

• Bile leakage at the insertion site
• Sudden abdominal pain
• Nausea
• Fever
• Chills

219
Q

True or False: Patients can usually resume normal activities and return to work within 1 week after laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

220
Q

What is the role of bile salts in gallbladder disease treatment?

A

Help with digestion and vitamin absorption.

222
Q

What are important health history factors for cholecystitis or cholelithiasis?

A

Obesity, multiparity, infection, cancer, extensive fasting, pregnancy

These factors can increase the risk of developing gallbladder diseases.

223
Q

Which medications are associated with cholecystitis or cholelithiasis?

A

Estrogen or oral contraceptives

Hormonal medications can influence gallbladder function.

224
Q

What are some functional health patterns related to gallbladder disease?

A
  • Positive family history
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Indigestion
  • Fat intolerance
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Dyspepsia
  • Chills

These patterns can indicate the presence and severity of gallbladder issues.

225
Q

What are common elimination symptoms in patients with gallbladder disease?

A
  • Clay-colored stools
  • Steatorrhea
  • Flatulence
  • Dark urine

These symptoms are indicative of bile flow issues.

226
Q

What are the cognitive-perceptual symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Moderate to severe RUQ pain that may radiate to the back or scapula, itching

Pain and itching are common complaints in gallbladder disease.

227
Q

What objective cardiovascular symptom might indicate gallbladder disease?

A

Tachycardia

Elevated heart rate can be a response to pain or infection.

228
Q

What GI symptoms might be observed in a patient with gallbladder disease?

A

Palpable gallbladder, abdominal guarding, distention

These signs indicate physical changes in the abdomen due to gallbladder issues.

229
Q

What general symptoms may be present in cases of gallbladder disease?

A

Fever, restlessness

These symptoms often accompany infections or inflammatory processes.

230
Q

What respiratory symptoms may indicate complications in gallbladder disease?

A

Tachypnea, splinting during respirations

These signs can indicate discomfort or pain affecting breathing.

231
Q

What skin symptoms are associated with gallbladder disease?

A

Jaundice, icteric sclera, diaphoresis

Yellowing of the skin and eyes indicates bile duct obstruction.

232
Q

What are possible diagnostic findings in gallbladder disease?

A
  • Elevated serum liver enzymes
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Bilirubin
  • Absence of urobilinogen in urine
  • Elevated urinary bilirubin
  • Leukocytosis
  • Abnormal gallbladder ultrasound

These findings help confirm the diagnosis of gallbladder issues.

233
Q

What dietary modifications may be needed after an incisional cholecystectomy?

A

Progress from liquids to a regular diet based on fat tolerance

A low-fat diet may be necessary initially or for overweight patients.

234
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with gallbladder disease?

A
  • Relief of pain and discomfort
  • No complications
  • No recurrent attacks of cholecystitis or gallstones

These goals guide nursing management and patient care.

235
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving conservative therapy for gallbladder disease?

A
  • Pain management
  • Nausea and vomiting relief
  • Fluid and electrolyte balance
  • Nutrition
  • Complications

Ongoing assessment is crucial to prevent further issues.

236
Q

True or False: Patients with chronic cholecystitis often present with acute symptoms.

A

False

Chronic cases may not show symptoms until complications arise.

237
Q

What nursing interventions are appropriate for managing nausea and vomiting in gallbladder disease?

A
  • NG tube and gastric decompression
  • Anti-emetics for less severe cases
  • Frequent mouth rinses
  • Oral hygiene

These measures help maintain patient comfort and prevent further complications.

238
Q

What signs may indicate obstruction of the ducts by stones?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Clay-colored stools
  • Dark, foamy urine
  • Steatorrhea

These manifestations signal the need for immediate medical evaluation.

239
Q

What complications should be assessed for after ERCP with papillotomy?

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Perforation
  • Infection
  • Bleeding

Monitoring vital signs and symptoms is crucial in the postoperative phase.

241
Q

What are important health history factors for cholecystitis or cholelithiasis?

A

Obesity, multiparity, infection, cancer, extensive fasting, pregnancy

These factors can increase the risk of developing gallbladder diseases.

242
Q

Which medications are associated with cholecystitis or cholelithiasis?

A

Estrogen or oral contraceptives

Hormonal medications can influence gallbladder function.

243
Q

What are some functional health patterns related to gallbladder disease?

A
  • Positive family history
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Indigestion
  • Fat intolerance
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Dyspepsia
  • Chills

These patterns can indicate the presence and severity of gallbladder issues.

244
Q

What are common elimination symptoms in patients with gallbladder disease?

A
  • Clay-colored stools
  • Steatorrhea
  • Flatulence
  • Dark urine

These symptoms are indicative of bile flow issues.

245
Q

What are the cognitive-perceptual symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Moderate to severe RUQ pain that may radiate to the back or scapula, itching

Pain and itching are common complaints in gallbladder disease.

246
Q

What objective cardiovascular symptom might indicate gallbladder disease?

A

Tachycardia

Elevated heart rate can be a response to pain or infection.

247
Q

What GI symptoms might be observed in a patient with gallbladder disease?

A

Palpable gallbladder, abdominal guarding, distention

These signs indicate physical changes in the abdomen due to gallbladder issues.

248
Q

What general symptoms may be present in cases of gallbladder disease?

A

Fever, restlessness

These symptoms often accompany infections or inflammatory processes.

249
Q

What respiratory symptoms may indicate complications in gallbladder disease?

A

Tachypnea, splinting during respirations

These signs can indicate discomfort or pain affecting breathing.

250
Q

What skin symptoms are associated with gallbladder disease?

A

Jaundice, icteric sclera, diaphoresis

Yellowing of the skin and eyes indicates bile duct obstruction.

251
Q

What are possible diagnostic findings in gallbladder disease?

A
  • Elevated serum liver enzymes
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Bilirubin
  • Absence of urobilinogen in urine
  • Elevated urinary bilirubin
  • Leukocytosis
  • Abnormal gallbladder ultrasound

These findings help confirm the diagnosis of gallbladder issues.

252
Q

What dietary modifications may be needed after an incisional cholecystectomy?

A

Progress from liquids to a regular diet based on fat tolerance

A low-fat diet may be necessary initially or for overweight patients.

253
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with gallbladder disease?

A
  • Relief of pain and discomfort
  • No complications
  • No recurrent attacks of cholecystitis or gallstones

These goals guide nursing management and patient care.

254
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving conservative therapy for gallbladder disease?

A
  • Pain management
  • Nausea and vomiting relief
  • Fluid and electrolyte balance
  • Nutrition
  • Complications

Ongoing assessment is crucial to prevent further issues.

255
Q

True or False: Patients with chronic cholecystitis often present with acute symptoms.

A

False

Chronic cases may not show symptoms until complications arise.

256
Q

What nursing interventions are appropriate for managing nausea and vomiting in gallbladder disease?

A
  • NG tube and gastric decompression
  • Anti-emetics for less severe cases
  • Frequent mouth rinses
  • Oral hygiene

These measures help maintain patient comfort and prevent further complications.

257
Q

What signs may indicate obstruction of the ducts by stones?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Clay-colored stools
  • Dark, foamy urine
  • Steatorrhea

These manifestations signal the need for immediate medical evaluation.

258
Q

What complications should be assessed for after ERCP with papillotomy?

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Perforation
  • Infection
  • Bleeding

Monitoring vital signs and symptoms is crucial in the postoperative phase.

260
Q

What should the patient do the day after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy regarding bandages?

A

Remove the bandages on the puncture sites

The patient can shower after removing the bandages.

261
Q

What is a common referred pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

Referred pain to the shoulder

This is due to CO2 used to inflate the abdominal cavity.

262
Q

What symptoms should prompt a patient to notify their healthcare provider after surgery?

A
  • Redness, swelling, bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision
  • Severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, chills
263
Q

When can a patient typically return to work after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

Within 1 week of surgery.

264
Q

What dietary change may patients need to make after laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

Many tolerate a low-fat diet better for several weeks after surgery.

265
Q

What is the incidence rate of gallbladder cancer in women in the United States?

A

1.4 per 100,000.

266
Q

What is the most common type of gallbladder cancer?

A

Adenocarcinomas.

267
Q

What are early symptoms of gallbladder cancer similar to?

A

Chronic cholecystitis and gallstones.

268
Q

What is a common treatment option for gallbladder cancer when surgery is not feasible?

A

Endoscopic stenting of the biliary tract.

269
Q

What factors influence the successful surgical outcomes for gallbladder cancer?

A
  • Depth of cancer invasion
  • Extent of liver involvement
  • Venous or lymphatic invasion
  • Lymph node metastasis
270
Q

What should patients avoid doing for 4 to 6 weeks after an incisional cholecystectomy?

A

Heavy lifting.

271
Q

What type of diet is usually recommended for patients with gallbladder cancer?

A

Low in fat.

272
Q

What is the prognosis for gallbladder cancer?

A

Overall, gallbladder cancer has a poor prognosis.

273
Q

True or False: Most patients with gallbladder cancer are symptomatic at diagnosis.

274
Q

What should nursing management for gallbladder cancer focus on?

A

Palliative care with special attention to nutrition, hydration, skin care, and pain relief.

275
Q

What imaging techniques are used for the diagnosis and staging of gallbladder cancer?

A
  • EUS
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • CT
  • MRI
  • MRCP
276
Q

Fill in the blank: Patients may need to take _______ supplements if they have gallbladder cancer.

A

fat-soluble vitamin

277
Q

What should patients with gallbladder cancer be taught regarding health care follow-up?

A

The importance of continued health care follow-up.