Chapter 44 Nutrition Problems Flashcards

1
Q

What is nutrition the sum of?

A

Processes by which one takes in and uses nutrients

Nutrition encompasses ingestion, absorption, digestion, and metabolism of nutrients.

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2
Q

What are the three categories of nutrition status?

A

Undernutrition, normal nutrition, overnutrition

These categories reflect the continuum of nutritional health.

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3
Q

What can cause nutrition problems?

A

Any change in nutrient intake or use

Nutrition problems can arise from various factors affecting food consumption and utilization.

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4
Q

Are nutrition problems limited to specific demographics?

A

No, they occur in all ages, cultures, ethnic groups, and socioeconomic classes

Nutrition issues are universal and not confined to any particular group.

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5
Q

What influences our attitudes towards food?

A

Cultural or religious practices, financial status, community resources

These factors shape individual dietary habits and choices.

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6
Q

What is the importance of nutrition?

A

Energy, growth, maintaining and repairing body tissues

Proper nutrition is fundamental for overall health and bodily functions.

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7
Q

What results from optimal nutrition in the absence of disease?

A

Eating a balanced diet

A balanced diet includes appropriate proportions of macronutrients and micronutrients.

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8
Q

List the major components of the basic food groups.

A
  • Macronutrients (carbohydrates, fats, proteins)
  • Micronutrients (vitamins, minerals, electrolytes)
  • Water

These components are essential for maintaining health.

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9
Q

What factors influence a person’s daily caloric requirements?

A
  • Body type
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Medications
  • Physical activity
  • Presence of disease

Each of these factors can alter energy needs.

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10
Q

What equation calculates daily adult energy requirements?

A

Mifflin-St. Jeor equation

This equation is based on resting metabolic rate.

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11
Q

How can one estimate daily caloric needs simply?

A

Kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg)

A common recommendation is 20 to 25 cal/kg body weight.

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12
Q

Fill in the blank: Optimal nutrition and daily physical activity are essential for _______.

A

[health]

Both nutrition and physical activity play critical roles in overall well-being.

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13
Q

What is the calorie intake recommended for weight loss?

A

Around 20 to 25 cal/kg.

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14
Q

What is the calorie intake recommended for weight maintenance?

A

25 to 30 cal/kg.

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15
Q

What calorie intake may those with injury or illness need?

A

At least 30 to 35 cal/kg.

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16
Q

What is the main source of energy for the body?

A

Carbohydrates.

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17
Q

How many calories do carbohydrates yield per gram?

A

4 cal/g.

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18
Q

What are the two classifications of carbohydrates?

A

Simple and complex.

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19
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

Single sugar units such as glucose and fructose.

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20
Q

What are disaccharides?

A

Two sugar units such as sucrose, maltose, and lactose.

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21
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A

Complex carbohydrates such as starches.

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22
Q

What percentage of total calories should come from carbohydrates according to DRI?

A

45% to 65%.

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23
Q

How much fiber should a person consume per 1000 calories?

A

Around 14 g.

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24
Q

What is the recommended daily fiber intake for a 2000-calorie diet?

A

28 to 30 g.

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25
Q

What is the calorie yield of one gram of fat?

A

9 calories.

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26
Q

What percentage of total calories should fats comprise?

A

20% to 35%.

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27
Q

What are the two types of fats?

A

Potentially harmful fats and healthier fats.

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28
Q

What type of fat may be especially beneficial to heart health?

A

Omega-3 fatty acids.

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29
Q

What is the recommended daily limit of saturated fat in a 2000-calorie diet?

A

Less than 10% of calories, about 20 g.

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30
Q

What are proteins essential for?

A

Tissue growth, repair, maintenance, regulatory functions, and energy production.

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31
Q

What percentage of daily caloric needs should come from protein?

A

10% to 35%.

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32
Q

What is the recommended daily protein intake for an average person?

A

0.8 to 1 g/kg of body weight.

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33
Q

How many calories does one gram of protein yield?

A

4 calories.

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34
Q

What are the basic units of protein structure?

A

Amino acids.

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35
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

9 essential amino acids.

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36
Q

What are complete proteins?

A

Proteins that contain all essential amino acids.

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37
Q

What are vitamins needed for?

A

Normal metabolism.

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38
Q

What are the two categories of vitamins?

A

Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins.

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39
Q

Which vitamins are fat-soluble?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, and K.

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40
Q

What are mineral salts needed for?

A

Building and repairing tissues, regulating body fluids, and assisting in various functions.

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41
Q

What are major minerals?

A

Minerals needed in amounts greater than 100 mg/day.

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42
Q

What are trace elements?

A

Minerals present in minute amounts.

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43
Q

What can happen if fat-soluble vitamins are consumed in excess?

A

Toxicity.

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44
Q

What is the range of trace minerals to major minerals in a well-balanced diet?

A

From a few micrograms of trace minerals to 1 g or more of major minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, and sodium.

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45
Q

What is a common characteristic among all vegetarians?

A

The exclusion of red meat from the diet.

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46
Q

What are the two main types of vegetarians?

A
  • Vegans (pure or total vegetarians who eat only plants)
  • Lacto-ovo-vegetarians (eat plants, dairy products, and eggs)
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47
Q

What is a potential risk for vegetarians without a well-planned diet?

A

Vitamin or protein deficiencies.

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48
Q

How can the nutritional value of plant proteins be increased?

A

By combining different vegetable protein foods, such as cornmeal and kidney beans.

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49
Q

What is an excellent protein source for vegetarians that should be calcium fortified?

A

Milk made from soybeans or almonds.

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50
Q

What is the main deficiency for strict vegans?

A

A lack of cobalamin (vitamin B12).

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51
Q

What can develop in vegans not using cobalamin supplements?

A

Megaloblastic anemia and neurologic signs of cobalamin deficiency.

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52
Q

What other deficiencies may vegans and lacto-ovo-vegetarians face?

A
  • Calcium
  • Zinc
  • Vitamins A and D
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53
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

A deficit, excess, or imbalance in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients.

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54
Q

What are the two terms often used interchangeably with malnutrition?

A
  • Undernutrition
  • Overnutrition
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55
Q

What does overnutrition refer to?

A

The ingestion of more food than is required for body needs, as in obesity.

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56
Q

What occurs during undernutrition?

A

Nutrition reserves are depleted and nutrient and energy intake are not sufficient to meet daily needs or added metabolic stress.

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57
Q

What is the prevalence range of malnutrition in hospital settings?

A

30% to 50%.

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58
Q

What is the prevalence of malnutrition among community-dwelling older adults?

A

About 6%.

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59
Q

What is the prevalence of malnutrition in rehabilitation settings for older adults?

A

Up to 50%.

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60
Q

What cultural factors can influence a person’s diet?

A

Beliefs and behaviors related to food, including religion.

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61
Q

What should be assessed in a patient’s diet history?

A

The extent to which they adhere to diet practices.

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62
Q

True or False: Acculturation can affect diet practices.

A

True.

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63
Q

What is an example of dietary adjustment for a Jewish patient?

A

Ensuring that an enteral feeding formula is Kosher.

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64
Q

What adjustment may be needed for a Muslim patient during Ramadan?

A

Meal plans should be adjusted to accommodate fasting during daylight hours.

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65
Q

Fill in the blank: Malnutrition affects _______ and functional status.

A

body composition

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66
Q

What is starvation-related malnutrition?

A

Occurs when nutrition needs are not met with chronic starvation without inflammation

Example: anorexia nervosa

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67
Q

What characterizes chronic disease-related malnutrition?

A

Diet intake does not meet tissue needs due to sustained mild to moderate inflammation

Examples: organ failure, cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, obesity

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68
Q

What is acute disease-related or injury-related malnutrition?

A

Related to acute disease or injury states with marked inflammatory response

Example: major infection, burns, trauma, surgery

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69
Q

List four contributing factors to malnutrition.

A
  • Socio-economic factors
  • Physical illnesses
  • Incomplete diets
  • Drug-nutrient interactions
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70
Q

What is food insecurity?

A

Inadequate access to food, affecting the quality and nutritional value of available food

Often leads to choosing less expensive, energy-dense foods

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71
Q

What are safety net programs?

A

Programs that help people obtain food, including food assistance and housing subsidies

Examples: Meals on Wheels, food pantries

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72
Q

What does the ‘heat or eat’ phenomenon refer to?

A

Struggle of individuals with limited economic resources to pay for bills or food

Older adults on fixed incomes face this dilemma

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73
Q

How can prolonged illness contribute to malnutrition?

A

It can lead to undernutrition, which worsens pathologic conditions

Examples: major surgery, sepsis, draining wounds

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74
Q

What are some conditions that increase the risk for malnutrition?

A
  • Chronic alcohol use
  • Decreased mobility
  • Dementia
  • Depression
  • Drugs with antinutrient properties
  • Excess dieting
  • Need for increased nutrients due to hypermetabolism
  • No oral intake for extended periods
  • Nutrient losses from malabsorption
  • Swallowing problems
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75
Q

Fill in the blank: Malnutrition is a common consequence of _______.

A

[illness, surgery, injury, or hospitalization]

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76
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin A (retinol) for men?

A

900 mcg/retinol equivalents

This refers to the dietary reference intake for adult men.

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77
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin A (retinol) for women?

A

700 mcg/retinol equivalents

This refers to the dietary reference intake for adult women.

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78
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for adults aged 19-70?

A

600 IU

IU stands for International Units, a measure of vitamin potency.

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79
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for adults over 70?

A

800 IU

This increase accounts for changes in metabolism with age.

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80
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin E for adults?

A

15 mg

Vitamin E is important for immune function and skin health.

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81
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin K for men?

A

120 mcg

Vitamin K is essential for blood coagulation.

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82
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin K for women?

A

90 mcg

This amount supports bone health and blood clotting.

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83
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency.

A
  • Dry, scaly skin
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Night blindness
  • Anorexia
  • Eye irritation
  • Keratinization of respiratory and GI mucosa
  • Bladder stones
  • Anemia
  • Retarded growth

These symptoms highlight the importance of Vitamin A in immune function and vision.

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84
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin D deficiency.

A
  • Muscular weakness
  • Excessive sweating
  • Diarrhea and other GI problems
  • Bone pain
  • Active or healed rickets
  • Osteomalacia

Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health.

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85
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin E deficiency.

A
  • Neurologic deficits
  • Blood coagulation problems

Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant and supports neurological function.

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86
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B1 (thiamine) for men?

A

1.2 mg

Thiamine is important for energy metabolism.

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87
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B1 (thiamine) for women?

A

1.1 mg

This vitamin is vital for nerve function and carbohydrate metabolism.

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88
Q

What are the manifestations of Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency?

A
  • Seizures
  • Dermatitis
  • Anemia
  • Neuropathy with motor weakness
  • Anorexia

Vitamin B6 is involved in amino acid metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis.

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89
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) for adults?

A

2.4 mcg

Vitamin B12 is essential for red blood cell formation and neurological function.

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90
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin B12 deficiency.

A
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • Anorexia
  • Glossitis
  • Sore mouth and tongue
  • Pallor
  • Neurologic problems (e.g., depression, dizziness)
  • Weight loss
  • Nausea
  • Constipation

These symptoms can indicate severe deficiencies affecting blood and nerve health.

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91
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Folate (folic acid) for men?

A

90 mg

Folate is critical for DNA synthesis and cell division.

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92
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Folate (folic acid) for women?

A

75 mg

Folate is especially important for women of childbearing age to prevent neural tube defects.

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93
Q

What are the manifestations of Folate deficiency?

A
  • Impaired cell division and protein synthesis
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • Anorexia
  • Fatigue
  • Sore tongue
  • Diarrhea
  • Forgetfulness

These symptoms underscore the role of folate in cellular processes.

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94
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin A (retinol) for men?

A

900 mcg/retinol equivalents

This refers to the dietary reference intake for adult men.

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95
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin A (retinol) for women?

A

700 mcg/retinol equivalents

This refers to the dietary reference intake for adult women.

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96
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for adults aged 19-70?

A

600 IU

IU stands for International Units, a measure of vitamin potency.

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97
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for adults over 70?

A

800 IU

This increase accounts for changes in metabolism with age.

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98
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin E for adults?

A

15 mg

Vitamin E is important for immune function and skin health.

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99
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin K for men?

A

120 mcg

Vitamin K is essential for blood coagulation.

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100
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin K for women?

A

90 mcg

This amount supports bone health and blood clotting.

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101
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency.

A
  • Dry, scaly skin
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Night blindness
  • Anorexia
  • Eye irritation
  • Keratinization of respiratory and GI mucosa
  • Bladder stones
  • Anemia
  • Retarded growth

These symptoms highlight the importance of Vitamin A in immune function and vision.

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102
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin D deficiency.

A
  • Muscular weakness
  • Excessive sweating
  • Diarrhea and other GI problems
  • Bone pain
  • Active or healed rickets
  • Osteomalacia

Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health.

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103
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin E deficiency.

A
  • Neurologic deficits
  • Blood coagulation problems

Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant and supports neurological function.

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104
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B1 (thiamine) for men?

A

1.2 mg

Thiamine is important for energy metabolism.

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105
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B1 (thiamine) for women?

A

1.1 mg

This vitamin is vital for nerve function and carbohydrate metabolism.

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106
Q

What are the manifestations of Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency?

A
  • Seizures
  • Dermatitis
  • Anemia
  • Neuropathy with motor weakness
  • Anorexia

Vitamin B6 is involved in amino acid metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis.

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107
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) for adults?

A

2.4 mcg

Vitamin B12 is essential for red blood cell formation and neurological function.

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108
Q

List the manifestations of Vitamin B12 deficiency.

A
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • Anorexia
  • Glossitis
  • Sore mouth and tongue
  • Pallor
  • Neurologic problems (e.g., depression, dizziness)
  • Weight loss
  • Nausea
  • Constipation

These symptoms can indicate severe deficiencies affecting blood and nerve health.

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109
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Folate (folic acid) for men?

A

90 mg

Folate is critical for DNA synthesis and cell division.

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110
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of Folate (folic acid) for women?

A

75 mg

Folate is especially important for women of childbearing age to prevent neural tube defects.

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111
Q

What are the manifestations of Folate deficiency?

A
  • Impaired cell division and protein synthesis
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • Anorexia
  • Fatigue
  • Sore tongue
  • Diarrhea
  • Forgetfulness

These symptoms underscore the role of folate in cellular processes.

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112
Q

What is the conversion factor of retinol equivalent to international units of vitamin A activity?

A

1 retinol equivalent = 10 international units of vitamin A activity

This conversion is essential for understanding vitamin A dosages.

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113
Q

What symptoms may accompany gastrointestinal disease?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal distention
  • Abdominal cramping

These symptoms can interfere with normal food intake and metabolism.

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114
Q

What is malabsorption syndrome?

A

Impaired absorption of nutrients from the GI tract

This condition can result from decreases in digestive enzymes or bowel processes.

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115
Q

How do antibiotics affect biotin production?

A

Antibiotics can change the normal flora of the intestines, decreasing the body’s ability to make biotin

Biotin is a B-complex vitamin dependent on gut flora for its production.

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116
Q

What effect does fever have on basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A

Each degree of temperature increase raises BMR by about 7%

Increased BMR leads to nitrogen loss and protein depletion if caloric intake does not increase.

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117
Q

What risk do patients undergoing diagnostic studies face regarding nutrition?

A

Patients can become malnourished due to diet restrictions imposed by multiple diagnostic studies

This occurs even if patients are nutritionally fit upon entering the hospital.

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118
Q

In which populations are vitamin deficiencies likely to occur?

A
  • Persons with alcohol and drug use patterns
  • Chronically ill individuals
  • Those who follow poor dietary practices
  • Individuals who have had GI tract surgery

Surgery, like ileum resection, can increase the risk of deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins.

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119
Q

What are the manifestations of vitamin imbalances?

A

Manifestations can range from skin problems to neurologic signs

The severity and type of symptoms depend on which vitamins are imbalanced.

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120
Q

What defines a drug-nutrient interaction?

A

A drug affects the use of nutrients in the body

These interactions can lead to adverse effects like altered drug effectiveness and impaired nutrition.

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121
Q

How can grapefruit juice affect drug absorption?

A

Grapefruit juice can increase the absorption of some drugs, enhancing their effect

This interaction is important to monitor in clinical settings.

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122
Q

What is the pathophysiology of starvation?

A

Physiologic changes occur in the body during starvation

Understanding these changes can help in managing patients who are malnourished.

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123
Q

What does the body primarily use to meet metabolic needs during early malnutrition?

A

Carbohydrates (glycogen)

Carbohydrate stores are minimal and can be depleted within 18 hours.

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124
Q

What process does the body initiate once carbohydrate stores are depleted?

A

Gluconeogenesis

The liver converts skeletal protein to glucose for energy.

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125
Q

Which amino acids are the first used in gluconeogenesis?

A
  • Alanine
  • Glutamine
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126
Q

What happens to nitrogen balance when amino acids are used as energy sources?

A

Negative nitrogen balance occurs

Nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake.

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127
Q

Within how many days does the body start using fat to supply energy during starvation?

A

5 to 9 days

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128
Q

What percentage of calories can fat provide in prolonged starvation?

A

Up to 97%

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129
Q

What happens to body proteins once fat stores are depleted?

A

Visceral and body proteins are used as energy

This includes proteins in internal organs and plasma.

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130
Q

What effect does surgery, physical trauma, or infection have on a malnourished patient?

A

Increased metabolic energy expenditure

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131
Q

What occurs as protein depletion continues in a malnourished patient?

A

Liver function becomes impaired and protein synthesis decreases.

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132
Q

What is the major function of plasma proteins, primarily albumin?

A

To maintain the osmotic pressure of blood.

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133
Q

What happens to body fluids when plasma oncotic pressure decreases?

A

Body fluids shift from the vascular space into the interstitial compartment.

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134
Q

What observable sign can result from fluid leaking into the interstitial space?

A

Edema

Edema in the face and legs can mask underlying muscle wasting.

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135
Q

What happens to sodium and potassium concentrations during malnutrition?

A
  • Sodium concentration increases in the cell
  • Potassium shifts to the extracellular space
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136
Q

What percentage of calories does the sodium-potassium exchange pump use?

A

20% to 50%

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137
Q

What organ loses the most mass during protein deprivation?

A

Liver

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138
Q

What happens to the liver due to decreased synthesis of lipoproteins?

A

Fat gradually infiltrates the liver.

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139
Q

What is a significant outcome if a malnourished person does not receive protein and necessary nutrients?

A

Death will rapidly ensue.

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140
Q

How does inflammation affect nutrient metabolism?

A

It increases protein and skeletal muscle breakdown and increases BMR.

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141
Q

What are proinflammatory cytokines related to inflammation?

A
  • Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
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142
Q

What are anti-inflammatory cytokines related to inflammation?

A
  • IL-10
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143
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of malnutrition?

A
  • Dry and scaly skin
  • Brittle nails
  • Rashes
  • Hair loss
  • Crusting and ulceration in the mouth
  • Decreased muscle mass and weakness
  • Mental changes
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144
Q

What factors affect the speed at which malnutrition develops?

A
  • Quantity and quality of protein intake
  • Caloric value
  • Illness
  • Person’s age
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145
Q

What is the best way to determine malnutrition?

A

Assessment of nutrient intake, functional status, and body composition.

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146
Q

What laboratory tests can reflect changes in malnutrition?

A
  • Serum electrolyte levels
  • RBC count
  • Hemoglobin level
  • Total lymphocyte count
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147
Q

What happens to the total lymphocyte count with malnutrition?

A

It decreases.

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148
Q

What are important health history factors related to malnutrition?

A
  • Severe burns
  • Major trauma
  • Hemorrhage
  • Draining wounds
  • Bone fractures with prolonged immobility
  • Chronic renal or liver disease
  • Cancer
  • Malabsorption syndromes
  • Gastrointestinal obstruction
  • Infectious diseases
  • Acute trauma
  • Sepsis
  • Chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)

These factors can significantly impact nutritional status and contribute to malnutrition.

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149
Q

Which medications are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Chemotherapy
  • Diet pills
  • Diet supplements
  • Herbs

Certain medications can affect appetite, nutrient absorption, and metabolism.

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150
Q

What surgical or treatment history factors are relevant for malnutrition assessment?

A
  • Recent surgery
  • Radiation

Surgical interventions can influence nutritional needs and absorption.

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151
Q

What are subjective data indicators of malnutrition in health perception?

A
  • Alcohol or drug use
  • Malaise

These factors can affect overall health management and nutritional status.

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152
Q

List indicators of nutritional-metabolic changes in malnutrition assessment.

A
  • Increase or decrease in weight
  • Weight problems
  • Increase or decrease in appetite
  • Typical diet intake
  • Food preferences and aversions
  • Food allergies or intolerance
  • Ill-fitting or absent dentures
  • Dry mouth
  • Problems chewing or swallowing
  • Bloating or gas
  • Sensitivity to cold
  • Delayed wound healing

These indicators help assess the nutritional needs and challenges faced by the individual.

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153
Q

What elimination patterns may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhea
  • Nocturia
  • Decreased urine output

Changes in elimination patterns can reflect underlying nutritional issues.

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154
Q

What activity-exercise changes can suggest malnutrition?

A
  • Increase or decrease in activity
  • Weakness
  • Fatigue
  • Decreased endurance

These changes may indicate a lack of energy or nutrients necessary for physical performance.

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155
Q

What cognitive-perceptual symptoms are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Pain in mouth
  • Paresthesias
  • Loss of position sense
  • Loss of vibratory sense

Neurological symptoms can arise from nutritional deficiencies.

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156
Q

What role-relationship factors may affect nutritional status?

A
  • Change in family (e.g., loss of a spouse)
  • Financial resources
  • Food availability

Social factors can greatly influence access to and the ability to maintain a nutritious diet.

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157
Q

What sexual-reproductive issues may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Amenorrhea
  • Impotence
  • Decreased libido

These issues can stem from hormonal imbalances related to nutritional deficiencies.

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158
Q

What are general objective data signs of malnutrition?

A
  • Listless
  • Cachectic
  • Underweight for height

Physical appearance can provide immediate insight into nutritional status.

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159
Q

What cardiovascular signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Low heart rate
  • Low blood pressure
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Peripheral edema

Cardiovascular health can be compromised due to malnutrition.

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160
Q

What eye symptoms are indicative of malnutrition?

A
  • Pale or red conjunctivae
  • Gray keratinized epithelium on conjunctiva (Bitot spots)
  • Dryness and dull appearance of conjunctivae and cornea
  • Soft cornea
  • Blood vessel growth in cornea
  • Redness and fissuring of eyelid corners

These signs can reflect vitamin deficiencies, particularly vitamin A.

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161
Q

What gastrointestinal signs may suggest malnutrition?

A
  • Swollen, smooth, raw, beefy red tongue (glossitis)
  • Hypertrophic or atrophic papillae
  • Dental cavities
  • Absent or loose teeth
  • Discolored tooth enamel
  • Spongy, pale, receded gums
  • Ulcerations, white patches, or plaques
  • Distended abdomen
  • Ascites
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Decreased bowel sounds
  • Steatorrhea

These symptoms can indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients.

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162
Q

What musculoskeletal signs are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Decreased muscle mass
  • Poor tone
  • Wasted appearance
  • Bowlegs
  • Knock-knees
  • Beaded ribs
  • Chest deformity
  • Prominent bony structures

Musculoskeletal changes can reflect inadequate protein and caloric intake.

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163
Q

What neurologic signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Decreased or loss of reflexes
  • Tremor
  • Irritability
  • Confusion
  • Syncope
  • Peripheral neuropathy

Neurological issues can arise from deficiencies in B vitamins and other nutrients.

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164
Q

What respiratory signs may be present in malnutrition?

A
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Decreased vital capacity
  • Crackles
  • Weak cough
  • Slight cyanosis

Respiratory function can be affected by malnutrition, leading to increased risk of respiratory illnesses.

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165
Q

What skin signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Dry, brittle, sparse hair
  • Color changes in hair
  • Alopecia
  • Dry, scaly lips
  • Fever blisters
  • Angular crusts and lesions at corners of mouth (cheilosis)
  • Brittle, ridged nails
  • Decreased tone and elasticity of skin
  • Cool, rough, dry, scaly skin
  • Brown-gray pigment changes
  • Reddened, scaly dermatitis
  • Scrotal dermatitis

Skin changes can reflect deficiencies in essential fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals.

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166
Q

What are possible diagnostic findings in malnutrition?

A
  • Low hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • Altered serum electrolyte levels (especially hyperkalemia)
  • Increased BUN and creatinine
  • Low serum albumin
  • Low transferrin
  • Low prealbumin
  • Increased C-reactive protein
  • Low lymphocytes
  • Increased liver enzymes
  • Low serum vitamin levels

These laboratory findings can help confirm the diagnosis of malnutrition and guide treatment.

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167
Q

What are important health history factors related to malnutrition?

A
  • Severe burns
  • Major trauma
  • Hemorrhage
  • Draining wounds
  • Bone fractures with prolonged immobility
  • Chronic renal or liver disease
  • Cancer
  • Malabsorption syndromes
  • Gastrointestinal obstruction
  • Infectious diseases
  • Acute trauma
  • Sepsis
  • Chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)

These factors can significantly impact nutritional status and contribute to malnutrition.

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1
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2
3
4
5
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168
Q

Which medications are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Chemotherapy
  • Diet pills
  • Diet supplements
  • Herbs

Certain medications can affect appetite, nutrient absorption, and metabolism.

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1
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2
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169
Q

What surgical or treatment history factors are relevant for malnutrition assessment?

A
  • Recent surgery
  • Radiation

Surgical interventions can influence nutritional needs and absorption.

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2
3
4
5
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170
Q

What are subjective data indicators of malnutrition in health perception?

A
  • Alcohol or drug use
  • Malaise

These factors can affect overall health management and nutritional status.

How well did you know this?
1
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2
3
4
5
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171
Q

List indicators of nutritional-metabolic changes in malnutrition assessment.

A
  • Increase or decrease in weight
  • Weight problems
  • Increase or decrease in appetite
  • Typical diet intake
  • Food preferences and aversions
  • Food allergies or intolerance
  • Ill-fitting or absent dentures
  • Dry mouth
  • Problems chewing or swallowing
  • Bloating or gas
  • Sensitivity to cold
  • Delayed wound healing

These indicators help assess the nutritional needs and challenges faced by the individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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172
Q

What elimination patterns may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhea
  • Nocturia
  • Decreased urine output

Changes in elimination patterns can reflect underlying nutritional issues.

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1
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3
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173
Q

What activity-exercise changes can suggest malnutrition?

A
  • Increase or decrease in activity
  • Weakness
  • Fatigue
  • Decreased endurance

These changes may indicate a lack of energy or nutrients necessary for physical performance.

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3
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174
Q

What cognitive-perceptual symptoms are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Pain in mouth
  • Paresthesias
  • Loss of position sense
  • Loss of vibratory sense

Neurological symptoms can arise from nutritional deficiencies.

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1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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175
Q

What role-relationship factors may affect nutritional status?

A
  • Change in family (e.g., loss of a spouse)
  • Financial resources
  • Food availability

Social factors can greatly influence access to and the ability to maintain a nutritious diet.

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1
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2
3
4
5
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176
Q

What sexual-reproductive issues may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Amenorrhea
  • Impotence
  • Decreased libido

These issues can stem from hormonal imbalances related to nutritional deficiencies.

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1
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2
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177
Q

What are general objective data signs of malnutrition?

A
  • Listless
  • Cachectic
  • Underweight for height

Physical appearance can provide immediate insight into nutritional status.

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1
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2
3
4
5
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178
Q

What cardiovascular signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Low heart rate
  • Low blood pressure
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Peripheral edema

Cardiovascular health can be compromised due to malnutrition.

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179
Q

What eye symptoms are indicative of malnutrition?

A
  • Pale or red conjunctivae
  • Gray keratinized epithelium on conjunctiva (Bitot spots)
  • Dryness and dull appearance of conjunctivae and cornea
  • Soft cornea
  • Blood vessel growth in cornea
  • Redness and fissuring of eyelid corners

These signs can reflect vitamin deficiencies, particularly vitamin A.

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1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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180
Q

What gastrointestinal signs may suggest malnutrition?

A
  • Swollen, smooth, raw, beefy red tongue (glossitis)
  • Hypertrophic or atrophic papillae
  • Dental cavities
  • Absent or loose teeth
  • Discolored tooth enamel
  • Spongy, pale, receded gums
  • Ulcerations, white patches, or plaques
  • Distended abdomen
  • Ascites
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Decreased bowel sounds
  • Steatorrhea

These symptoms can indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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181
Q

What musculoskeletal signs are associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Decreased muscle mass
  • Poor tone
  • Wasted appearance
  • Bowlegs
  • Knock-knees
  • Beaded ribs
  • Chest deformity
  • Prominent bony structures

Musculoskeletal changes can reflect inadequate protein and caloric intake.

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1
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2
3
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5
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182
Q

What neurologic signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Decreased or loss of reflexes
  • Tremor
  • Irritability
  • Confusion
  • Syncope
  • Peripheral neuropathy

Neurological issues can arise from deficiencies in B vitamins and other nutrients.

183
Q

What respiratory signs may be present in malnutrition?

A
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Decreased vital capacity
  • Crackles
  • Weak cough
  • Slight cyanosis

Respiratory function can be affected by malnutrition, leading to increased risk of respiratory illnesses.

184
Q

What skin signs may indicate malnutrition?

A
  • Dry, brittle, sparse hair
  • Color changes in hair
  • Alopecia
  • Dry, scaly lips
  • Fever blisters
  • Angular crusts and lesions at corners of mouth (cheilosis)
  • Brittle, ridged nails
  • Decreased tone and elasticity of skin
  • Cool, rough, dry, scaly skin
  • Brown-gray pigment changes
  • Reddened, scaly dermatitis
  • Scrotal dermatitis

Skin changes can reflect deficiencies in essential fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals.

185
Q

What are possible diagnostic findings in malnutrition?

A
  • Low hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • Altered serum electrolyte levels (especially hyperkalemia)
  • Increased BUN and creatinine
  • Low serum albumin
  • Low transferrin
  • Low prealbumin
  • Increased C-reactive protein
  • Low lymphocytes
  • Increased liver enzymes
  • Low serum vitamin levels

These laboratory findings can help confirm the diagnosis of malnutrition and guide treatment.

186
Q

What happens to liver enzyme levels in cases of malnutrition?

A

Liver enzyme levels may increase.

Elevated liver enzymes can indicate liver dysfunction or damage associated with malnutrition.

187
Q

How are serum levels of fat-soluble vitamins affected in malnutrition?

A

Serum levels of fat-soluble vitamins usually decrease.

Low serum levels of fat-soluble vitamins correlate with the presence of steatorrhea (fatty stools).

188
Q

What are albumin and prealbumin classified as during an inflammatory response?

A

Negative acute phase proteins.

Their levels decrease during inflammation, indicating potential malnutrition.

189
Q

What do low levels of albumin and prealbumin indicate?

A

The presence of inflammation and potential malnutrition.

They are useful in identifying patients at risk for poor outcomes.

190
Q

What is the nurse’s responsibility regarding nutrition in care settings?

A

Nutrition screening across care settings.

This helps identify those who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition.

191
Q

What does the Joint Commission require for all patients upon admission?

A

Nutrition screening within 24 hours.

A detailed nutrition assessment is required if a patient is identified as at risk.

192
Q

What is the purpose of using valid and reliable tools in nutrition screening?

A

To accurately identify those at risk for malnutrition.

Standard approaches ensure consistency in screening.

193
Q

What common admission assessment data is reviewed in hospital-specific screening tools?

A

History of weight loss, intake before admission, use of nutrition support, chewing or swallowing issues, and skin breakdown.

These factors help determine a patient’s nutritional risk.

194
Q

What is the Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool used for?

A

It assesses nutrition status in adults in acute care.

This tool helps identify malnutrition risk in hospitalized patients.

195
Q

Which tool is used to assess nutrition status in older adults?

A

MNA (Mini Nutritional Assessment).

This tool is specifically designed for geriatric populations.

196
Q

What form is used in long-term care to obtain nutrition information?

A

Minimum Data Set (MDS) form.

This form collects comprehensive data on residents’ nutritional status.

197
Q

Which assessment tool is used in home care settings?

A

Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS).

OASIS collects information on diet, oral intake, dental health, swallowing problems, and meal assistance needs.

198
Q

What should be done if screening identifies a person at risk for malnutrition?

A

Perform a full nutrition assessment.

This assessment includes medical, nutrition, and medication histories, physical assessment, and anthropometric measurements.

199
Q

What is the purpose of a nutrition assessment?

A

Provides the basis for nutrition intervention.

200
Q

What should be obtained to assess a patient’s diet habits?

A

A complete diet history from the patient or caregiver.

201
Q

Why is it important to assess foods eaten over the past week?

A

Reveals a great deal about the patient’s diet habits and knowledge of good nutrition.

202
Q

How can a patient’s nutrition state impact medical care?

A

It may be a contributing factor to the problem and have an impact on management and recovery.

203
Q

What anthropometric measurements should be obtained?

A

Height, weight, and girth measurements.

204
Q

How is body mass index (BMI) calculated?

A

By measuring weight for height.

205
Q

What are critical measurements for assessing nutrition status?

A

Waist circumference and hip-to-waist ratio.

206
Q

What is a critical indicator for further assessment in older adults regarding weight?

A

A loss of more than 5% of usual body weight over 6 months.

207
Q

What should be determined if involuntary weight loss exceeds 10% of the usual weight?

A

The reason for the weight loss.

208
Q

What is the significance of unintentional weight loss in obese individuals?

A

Malnutrition can be present despite excess body weight.

209
Q

What is the BMI range for underweight?

A

Less than 18.5 kg/m².

210
Q

What is the BMI range for normal weight?

A

Between 18.5 and 24.9 kg/m².

211
Q

What is the BMI range for overweight?

A

Between 25 and 29.9 kg/m².

212
Q

What BMI value is considered obese?

A

A BMI of 30 kg/m² or greater.

213
Q

What should be noted when assessing a patient’s weight history?

A

Weight loss and whether it was intentional.

214
Q

What is an alternative to standing height measurements for bedridden patients?

A

Using a Luft ruler.

215
Q

What is the arm demi-span measurement?

A

Distance from the suprasternal notch to the web between the middle and ring fingers.

216
Q

What BMI value is considered obese?

A

A BMI of 30 or greater

BMIs outside the normal weight range are associated with increased mortality.

217
Q

What indicators are used to assess subcutaneous fat stores?

A

Skintold thickness at various sites

The most reflective sites include those over the biceps, triceps, below the scapula, above the iliac crest, and over the upper thigh.

218
Q

Which measurements can indicate protein stores?

A

Midarm muscle circumference

Both skinfold thickness and midarm circumference may decrease in malnutrition.

219
Q

What is the focus of functional assessment in nutrition?

A

Performance of activities of daily living (ADLs)

Tools used include the Katz Index and Lawton Scale.

220
Q

How can physical functional status be assessed?

A

By measuring muscle strength

Handgrip strength can be measured with a hand dynamometer.

221
Q

What are common clinical problems associated with malnutrition?

A
  • Nutritionally compromised
  • Body weight problem
  • Risk for impaired tissue integrity
  • Inadequate community resources
222
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with malnutrition?

A
  • Achieve an appropriate weight
  • Consume a specified number of calories per day on an individualized diet
  • Have no adverse consequences related to malnutrition or nutrition therapies
223
Q

What is the purpose of MyPlate?

A

A visual guide for sensible meal planning

It helps Americans eat healthfully and make good food choices.

224
Q

What are the five food groups represented in MyPlate?

A
  • Grains
  • Protein
  • Fruits
  • Vegetables
  • Dairy
225
Q

What resources are available for determining nutrition information?

A

Electronic and print sources

Many food products have Nutrition Facts labels.

226
Q

What should a patient do to track their nutrition and physical activity?

A

Use interactive web-based programs and mobile device applications

Some applications include built-in barcode scanners to scan foods quickly.

227
Q

What is crucial for patients with malnutrition undergoing surgery?

A

Increased protein and calorie intake preoperatively

This is essential to promote healing after surgery.

228
Q

What should be discussed with patients regarding their nutrition?

A

The importance of good nutrition

Discuss daily weights, intake, and output.

229
Q

What does ongoing recording of body weight gain or loss indicate?

A

Shifts in fluid balance

Rapid gains and losses usually reflect changes in fluid rather than actual body mass.

230
Q

What additional information is needed alongside body weight to assess a patient’s nutrition state?

A

Accurate recording of food and fluid intake

231
Q

What type of foods should be selected for patients who can eat by mouth?

A

High-calorie and high-protein foods

Unless medically contraindicated.

232
Q

How can patient food intake be enhanced?

A

Offering foods preferred by the patient

233
Q

What should caregivers do to improve eating conditions for the patient?

A

Bring the patient’s favorite foods from home

234
Q

What is essential for creating a conducive environment for eating?

A

A quiet environment

235
Q

What hygiene practices should be offered to patients before meals?

A

Oral hygiene and hand hygiene

236
Q

What should be done to ensure the patient is comfortable during meals?

A

Help the patient to a comfortable position and adjust the bedside table height

237
Q

What items should be kept out of sight to maintain a pleasant mealtime environment?

A

Urinals, bedpans, and emesis basins

238
Q

What should be done to protect mealtime from interruptions?

A

Perform nonurgent care before or after mealtime

239
Q

What do undernourished patients typically need in addition to regular meals?

A

Between-meal supplements

240
Q

What can these between-meal supplements consist of?

A

Items prepared in the dietary department or commercially prepared products

241
Q

What is the purpose of eating between-meal supplements?

A

To provide extra calories, proteins, fluids, and nutrients

242
Q

What should be considered if a patient cannot consume enough nutrition through a high-calorie, high-protein diet?

A

Adding oral liquid supplements

243
Q

Fill in the blank: Oral liquid supplements are widely used as an adjunct to meals and fluid intake in patients whose intake is _______.

244
Q

What are some examples of products that provide advanced nutrition and calories?

A

Milkshakes, puddings, Carnation Instant Breakfast, Ensure, Boost

These products are often used in long-term care to increase caloric intake.

245
Q

What is the role of appetite stimulants in nutrition therapy?

A

To improve intake in patients who may have low appetite

Examples include megestrol acetate and dronabinol (Marinol).

246
Q

What is enteral nutrition (EN)?

A

A method of delivering nutrition directly into the gastrointestinal tract

Used for patients unable to take in sufficient calories orally.

247
Q

What should be considered if enteral nutrition (EN) is not possible?

A

Starting parenteral nutrition (PN)

PN is an alternative for patients who cannot receive EN.

248
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

The body’s response to the switch from starvation to a fed state during nutrition therapy

It occurs in patients who are severely malnourished.

249
Q

What are some conditions that predispose patients to refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Chronic alcohol use
  • Cancer
  • Trauma
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Major surgery

These conditions increase the risk of complications during nutritional replenishment.

250
Q

What is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypophosphatemia

This condition indicates low phosphate levels in the blood.

251
Q

What are some manifestations of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Fluid retention
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypomagnesemia

These symptoms can lead to serious complications.

252
Q

What are some serious outcomes of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Respiratory arrest

These outcomes can be life-threatening.

253
Q

When starting feeding in at-risk patients, what should the initial rates be?

A

No more than 50% of their usual energy requirements

Gradual increases are recommended to prevent complications.

254
Q

What is essential for patients discharged on a therapeutic diet?

A

Proper discharge preparation for both the patient and caregiver

This includes education on managing their nutritional needs.

255
Q

What should patients and caregivers be taught about undernourishment?

A

Causes of the undernourished state and ways to avoid the problem in the future

Understanding this helps in maintaining proper nutrition.

256
Q

How long may it take to fully restore a normal nutrition state after undernourishment?

A

Many months

Adhering to a diet for a few weeks is often insufficient.

257
Q

What factors should be assessed when determining a patient’s ability to follow diet instructions?

A
  • Past eating habits
  • Religious and ethnic preferences
  • Age
  • Income
  • Resources
  • State of health

These factors influence dietary adherence.

258
Q

What community resources can help provide meals?

A
  • Meals on Wheels
  • Senior congregate feeding sites
  • Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)

These resources help support food access for those in need.

259
Q

What does SNAP allow low-income households to do?

A

Buy more food of a greater variety

This program helps improve food security.

260
Q

What is one method for analyzing and reinforcing healthful eating patterns?

A

Keeping a diet diary for 3 days at a time

This helps in tracking and improving dietary habits.

261
Q

What are the expected outcomes for a malnourished patient?

A
  • Achieve and maintain optimal body weight
  • Consume a well-balanced diet
  • Have no adverse outcomes related to malnutrition
  • Maintain optimal physical functioning

These outcomes indicate successful nutritional rehabilitation.

262
Q

How does nutrition affect older adults?

A

It affects quality of life, functional status, and health

Older adults are particularly vulnerable to malnutrition.

263
Q

What are some complications faced by older hospitalized adults with malnutrition?

A
  • Poor wound healing
  • Pressure injuries
  • Infections
  • Decreased muscle strength
  • Postoperative complications
  • Increased mortality

These complications highlight the importance of addressing malnutrition.

264
Q

What factors may contribute to poor nutrition in older adults?

A
  • Little or no appetite
  • Problems with eating or swallowing
  • Inadequate servings of nutrients
  • Fewer than 2 meals per day

These factors can lead to malnutrition.

265
Q

What role does social isolation play in nutrition among older adults?

A

It may decrease their desire to cook and contribute to decreased appetite

Living alone can exacerbate nutritional issues.

266
Q

What chronic illnesses associated with aging can affect nutrition status?

A
  • Depression
  • Dysphagia (from a stroke)

These conditions can significantly impact dietary intake.

267
Q

What is a common oral health issue in older adults that affects nutrition?

A

Gum disease and missing teeth

Poor oral health can hinder the ability to eat properly.

268
Q

What can impair the ability to chew and swallow in older adults?

A

Teeth issues or dry mouth

Medications can cause dry mouth, change the taste of food, or decrease appetite.

269
Q

What is the daily vitamin D requirement for older adults?

A

Higher than younger adults

Refer to Table 44.6 for specific values.

270
Q

What should initial care strategies focus on for older adults?

A

Improving oral intake and providing a pleasant meal environment

Special strategies may include adaptive devices and proper positioning.

271
Q

What physiologic changes occur with aging?

A

Decrease in lean body mass and redistribution of fat

This can decrease caloric requirements.

272
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Loss of lean body mass with aging

It affects muscle strength and function.

273
Q

How does bed rest affect older adults compared to younger adults?

A

Older adults lose more lean body mass

Prolonged inactivity exacerbates this loss.

274
Q

What changes can affect appetite in older adults?

A

Changes in smell and taste

These changes can result from medications, nutrient deficiencies, or taste-bud atrophy.

275
Q

Who are nutritionally at-risk older adults vulnerable to?

A

Malnutrition when discharged from the hospital

They may struggle to shop for or prepare foods during recovery.

276
Q

What should be consulted to ensure access to food upon discharge?

A

Social worker and dietitian

This is crucial for older adults recovering at home.

277
Q

Fill in the blank: Older adults may need to increase their _______ to prevent loss of muscle mass.

A

Caloric intake

278
Q

True or False: Older adults with dementia face unique challenges regarding eating and feeding.

279
Q

What are some nutrition support therapies for older adults unable to consent?

A

Enteral Nutrition (EN) and Parenteral Nutrition (PN)

Review advance directives regarding artificial nutrition and hydration.

280
Q

What is the purpose of community nutrition programs?

A

To improve meal intake and make mealtime a pleasant, social event.

281
Q

What is specialized nutrition support?

A

Nutrition support needed when patients cannot maintain or achieve adequate nutrition status.

282
Q

Who are key members of a nutrition support team?

A
  • Nutrition support nurse
  • Healthcare provider (HCP)
  • Dietitian
  • Pharmacist
283
Q

What is enteral nutrition (EN)?

A

Nutrition delivered through a tube, catheter, or stoma directly into the GI tract.

284
Q

When is enteral nutrition used?

A

For patients with a functioning GI tract who cannot take oral nourishment safely or adequately.

285
Q

List some indications for enteral nutrition.

A
  • Anorexia
  • Orofacial fractures
  • Head and neck cancer
  • Neurologic or psychiatric conditions
  • Extensive burns
  • Critical illness requiring mechanical ventilation
  • Chemotherapy or radiation therapy
286
Q

What are contraindications for enteral nutrition?

A
  • GI obstruction
  • Prolonged ileus
  • Severe diarrhea or vomiting
  • Enterocutaneous fistula
287
Q

How does enteral nutrition compare to parenteral nutrition (PN)?

A

EN is easier to administer, safer, more physiologically efficient, and less expensive than PN.

288
Q

What factors vary among enteral nutrition formulas?

A
  • Concentration
  • Flavor
  • Osmolality
  • Amounts of protein, sodium, and fat
289
Q

What is the osmolality of an enteral nutrition formula determined by?

A

The number and size of particles in the formula.

290
Q

Fill in the blank: A formula with high sodium content is contraindicated in patients with _______.

A

[cardiovascular problems, such as heart failure]

291
Q

What are common delivery options for enteral nutrition?

A
  • Continuous infusion
  • Intermittent (bolus) feedings by infusion pump
  • Bolus feedings by gravity
  • Bolus feedings by syringe
292
Q

What factors influence the type of enteral nutrition access?

A
  • Anticipated length of time EN is needed
  • Risk for aspiration
  • Patient’s clinical status
  • Adequacy of digestion and absorption
  • Patient’s anatomy
293
Q

What are the types of tubes used for short-term enteral feeding?

A
  • Orogastric
  • Nasogastric (NG)
  • Nasoduodenal
  • Nasojejunal
294
Q

What is the purpose of transpyloric tubes?

A

To feed the patient below the pyloric sphincter.

295
Q

What materials are commonly used for feeding tubes?

A
  • Polyurethane
  • Silicone
296
Q

What is a complication that can arise from using a stylet for tube placement?

A

Perforation.

297
Q

What are some disadvantages of smaller feeding tubes?

A
  • They clog easily
  • Harder to check residual volume (RV)
  • Prone to occlusion if oral drugs are not properly prepared
  • Can become knotted or kinked
298
Q

What types of tubes can be used for extended feeding?

A
  • Gastrostomy
  • Jejunostomy
299
Q

Fill in the blank: A gastrostomy tube can be placed _______.

A

[surgically, radiologically]

300
Q

What is a gastrostomy tube?

A

A tube inserted through the esophagus into the stomach for feeding

It is placed via percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) or surgical methods.

301
Q

What is the purpose of a retention disk and bumper?

A

To secure the gastrostomy tube in place

They help prevent dislodgement of the tube.

302
Q

What is required for PEG tube placement?

A

An intact, unobstructed GI tract and a wide esophageal lumen

These conditions ensure the endoscope can pass through safely.

303
Q

What are the benefits of PEG and radiologically placed gastrostomy tubes compared to surgical placement?

A

They have fewer risks

These methods are less invasive.

304
Q

What sedation is required for the procedure of placing a gastrostomy tube?

A

IV sedation and local anesthesia

IV antibiotics are also given before the procedure.

305
Q

When can feedings start after placing a surgically placed gastrostomy or jejunostomy tube?

A

Within 24 hours

Feedings can start without waiting for flatus or bowel movement.

306
Q

How soon can most PEG tube feedings start after insertion?

A

Within 4 hours

Agency policies may vary regarding this timeline.

307
Q

What are critical safety concerns in enteral nutrition (EN)?

A

Aspiration and dislodged tubes

These issues can lead to complications.

308
Q

What should be done to confirm the position of newly inserted nasal or orogastric tubes?

A

Obtain x-ray confirmation

This ensures proper placement before starting feedings or medications.

309
Q

What method should not be used to determine tube placement?

A

Auscultation method

It is not reliable for confirming tube position.

310
Q

What can capnography help determine?

A

Tube placement in the respiratory tract

It monitors breath-to-breath CO2 levels.

311
Q

What is the recommended head elevation to decrease aspiration risk during feedings?

A

30 to 45 degrees

Reverse Trendelenburg position can be used if backrest elevation is not tolerated.

312
Q

What should be assessed to determine if a small bowel tube has dislocated?

A

Aspirate color and pH

These assessments help confirm tube placement.

313
Q

What does an increase in VR indicate?

A

Potential displacement of a small intestine tube into the stomach

Monitoring VR volume is important for assessing tube position.

314
Q

What should be checked before feeding and medication administration in enteral nutrition?

A

Tube placement

This ensures that the tube is in the correct position to prevent complications such as aspiration.

315
Q

What should be assessed before feeding a patient receiving enteral nutrition?

A

Bowel sounds

Assessing bowel sounds helps determine the gastrointestinal readiness for feeding.

316
Q

What is a necessary action to take for NG or gastrostomy tubes as needed?

A

Flush the tube

Flushing helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogging.

317
Q

What should be evaluated in patients receiving enteral feedings?

A

Nutrition status

Regular evaluation ensures that the patient’s nutritional needs are being met.

318
Q

True or False: Medications should be added directly to enteral feeding formula.

A

False

Adding medications directly can alter the absorption and effectiveness of both the medication and the formula.

319
Q

What type of medications should be used for enteral nutrition?

A

Liquid medications designated safe for enteral use

These medications are specifically formulated to be compatible with enteral feeding.

320
Q

What is the recommended position for the patient during enteral feeding to decrease aspiration risk?

A

30- to 45-degree angle

Keeping the head elevated helps prevent aspiration pneumonia.

321
Q

What should be done if using tablets for enteral feeding?

A

Use immediate-release forms and crush to a fine powder

This ensures that the medication can be effectively absorbed.

322
Q

What complications should be regularly assessed in patients receiving enteral feedings?

A
  • Aspiration
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal distention
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Fecal impaction

Regular assessment helps prevent and manage potential complications.

323
Q

What actions can a Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurse (LPN/VN) perform for stable patients?

A
  • Insert NG tube
  • Flush NG and gastrostomy tubes
  • Give bolus or continuous enteral feeding
  • Remove NG tube
  • Give medications through NG or gastrostomy tube
  • Provide skin care around tubes

These tasks are within the scope of practice for LPN/VN when caring for stable patients.

324
Q

What responsibilities does Assistive Personnel (AP) have regarding patients with enteral nutrition?

A
  • Provide oral care
  • Weigh patient
  • Keep head of bed elevated
  • Report symptoms indicating problems
  • Alert RN or LPN about infusion pump alarms
  • Empty drainage devices and measure output

Assistive personnel play a supportive role in maintaining patient safety and comfort.

325
Q

What should be done in collaboration with a dietitian for patients receiving enteral nutrition?

A
  • Evaluate nutrition status
  • Select appropriate EN formula
  • Monitor and manage complications
  • Teach about home EN

Collaboration with a dietitian ensures that nutritional needs are met and complications are managed effectively.

326
Q

What is a pharmacist’s role in enteral nutrition?

A

Evaluate each medication being given enterally

Pharmacists ensure that medications are safe and effective for enteral administration.

327
Q

Fill in the blank: Medications must be given _______ if required.

A

Separately

Some medications may interact adversely with enteral formulas and require separate administration.

328
Q

What is a common cause of constipation in patients?

A

Decreased fluid intake

Other causes include inactivity and formula composition.

329
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake for managing constipation?

A

30 mL/kg body weight

This should be done if not contraindicated.

330
Q

What dietary change can help alleviate constipation?

A

Change formula to one with more fiber content

Laxatives may also be administered as needed.

331
Q

List two management strategies for dehydration.

A
  • Decrease rate or change formula
  • Increase intake and check amount and number of feedings

Administer supplemental tube, oral, or IV fluids if appropriate.

332
Q

What should be checked if a patient is dehydrated?

A

Drugs that the patient is receiving, especially antibiotics

This is to avoid complications from medication interactions.

333
Q

What is a management strategy for hyperosmotic diuresis?

A

Check blood glucose levels often

Also, change formula to one with less glucose.

334
Q

What are common causes of diarrhea in patients?

A
  • Contaminated formula
  • Feeding too fast
  • Infection
  • Medications
  • Tube moving distally

Each of these factors can contribute to gastrointestinal issues.

335
Q

How long can ready-to-feed formulas be left standing?

A

8 hours

This is the guideline for cans of ready-to-feed formulas.

336
Q

What is the recommended action if a formula is left standing for longer than the manufacturer’s guidelines?

A

Discard outdated formula

This is critical to avoid contamination.

337
Q

What management strategy can be used if vomiting is due to delayed gastric emptying?

A

Consult with HCP about a prokinetic drug

This may help improve gastric motility.

338
Q

True or False: The tube position should be checked before each bolus feeding.

A

True

It should also be checked every 4 hours if continuous feedings are used.

339
Q

What should be done if a tube is improperly placed?

A

Replace tube in proper position

Ensure to check placement before each feeding.

340
Q

Fill in the blank: To prevent bacterial contamination, formula and equipment should be ______.

A

avoided from contamination

This includes proper storage and handling.

341
Q

What is critical when lowering the head of the bed for a procedure?

A

Quickly returning the patient to at least 30 degrees

This is essential to ensure patient safety and comfort during feeding procedures.

342
Q

What should be followed regarding feeding while the patient is supine?

A

Agency policy

Each facility may have specific guidelines on this matter.

343
Q

How long should the head be elevated after bolus feedings?

A

30 to 60 minutes

This helps reduce the risk of aspiration.

344
Q

What is the debate surrounding checking RV when giving feedings into the stomach?

A

Increased RV increases the risk for aspiration vs. other research not supporting the practice

The practice may vary based on institutional protocols and current research.

345
Q

What does common protocol call for when checking RV in non-critically ill patients?

A

Every 6 to 8 hours and before each bolus feeding

This aims to minimize the risk of aspiration and ensure patient safety.

346
Q

What are some measures to decrease aspiration risk during enteral feeding?

A

Measures include:
* Giving feedings continuously
* Minimizing the use of sedation
* Performing frequent oral suctioning if needed
* Using promotility drugs like erythromycin or metoclopramide

347
Q

Why is skin care around gastrostomy and jejunostomy tube sites important?

A

Digestive juices irritate the skin, so skin care is essential to prevent irritation and injury.

348
Q

How should the skin around a feeding tube be initially cared for?

A

Rinse with sterile water, dry it, and apply a dressing until healed.

349
Q

What is the recommended flushing protocol for feeding tubes in adults?

A

Flush with 30 mL of warm tap water every 4 hours during continuous feedings or before and after each bolus feeding.

350
Q

What should be used to flush feeding tubes in immunocompromised and critically ill patients?

A

Use sterile water.

351
Q

What is an enteral feeding misconnection?

A

An inadvertent connection between an enteral feeding system and a nonenteral system, leading to severe patient injury or death.

352
Q

What are some complications of enteral nutrition in older patients?

A

Complications include:
* Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
* Dehydration from diarrhea
* Increased risk of hyperglycemia
* Increased risk for aspiration

353
Q

What changes in older adults increase their risk for complications during enteral nutrition?

A

Physiologic changes such as decreased thirst perception and impaired cognitive function.

354
Q

What is parenteral nutrition (PN)?

A

The administration of nutrients directly into the bloodstream when the GI tract cannot be used.

355
Q

How is parenteral nutrition customized?

A

It is reformulated to meet the changing needs of each patient.

356
Q

What are some components commonly found in commercially prepared PN base solutions?

A

Components include:
* Dextrose
* Protein in the form of amino acids
* IV fat emulsion in total nutrient admixture

357
Q

What standard electrolytes are available in some premixed PN solutions?

A

Electrolytes include:
* Sodium
* Potassium
* Chloride
* Calcium
* Magnesium
* Phosphate

358
Q

What additional elements may be added to parenteral nutrition to meet patient needs?

A

Vitamins and trace elements such as:
* Zinc
* Copper
* Chromium
* Selenium
* Manganese

359
Q

What should visitors, LPN/VNs, and AP do if an enteral feeding line becomes disconnected?

A

Notify the nurse and do not reconnect any line

This is crucial to prevent misconnections that could lead to patient harm.

360
Q

Why should IV or feeding devices not be changed or adapted?

A

It may compromise the safety features that are part of the design

Maintaining the integrity of the devices is essential for patient safety.

361
Q

Can an IV pump or IV tubing be used to deliver enteral feeding?

A

No

Using IV equipment for enteral feeding can lead to serious complications.

362
Q

What should be done when making a reconnection or connecting a new device?

A

Trace lines back to their origins and ensure connections are secure

This helps to avoid misconnections and ensures proper delivery of nutrition.

363
Q

What is important to do when a patient arrives on a new unit or during shift handoff?

A

Recheck connections and trace all tubes

This step is vital for ensuring the safety of the patient’s enteral feeding.

364
Q

How should tubes and catheters with different purposes be routed?

A

In unique and standardized directions

For example, route IV lines toward the patient’s head and enteral lines toward the feet.

365
Q

What is a recommended practice for labeling feeding tubes and connectors?

A

Label or color-code them

This aids in quick identification and reduces the risk of misconnection.

366
Q

What should be done when there are multiple access points and/or several bags hanging?

A

Place proximal and distal labels on all tubings

This helps to clarify the purpose of each line and reduces confusion.

367
Q

What should be checked after making any connection?

A

The patient’s vital signs

Monitoring vital signs can help identify any immediate complications.

368
Q

What is important to confirm about a solution’s label?

A

Identify and confirm the label to avoid confusion between solutions

A 3-in-1 PN solution can resemble an enteral nutrition formulation.

369
Q

What type of labeling should be used for bags intended for enteral use?

A

Large, bold statements such as ‘WARNING! For Enteral Use Only—NOT for IV Use’

This helps to prevent serious errors in administration.

370
Q

Under what conditions should connections be made?

A

Under proper lighting conditions

Adequate lighting is crucial for accurately making connections and ensuring safety.

371
Q

What are the main sources of calories in parenteral nutrition (PN)?

A

Carbohydrates in the form of dextrose and fat in the form of fat emulsion

Dextrose provides 3.4 calories per gram, while oral carbohydrates provide 4 calories.

372
Q

What is the recommended energy intake for a nonobese patient receiving PN?

A

20 to 30 cal/kg/day

373
Q

What is the protein-sparing effect of dextrose?

A

It allows the use of amino acids for wound healing instead of for energy.

374
Q

What are the available concentrations of fat-emulsion solutions?

A

10%, 20%, and 30%

375
Q

How many calories do fat emulsions provide per mL for 10% and 20% solutions?

A
  • 10% solution: 1 cal/mL
  • 20% solution: 2 cal/mL
376
Q

What is the maximum recommended fat emulsion intake for stable patients?

A

1 g/kg/day

377
Q

What is the initial infusion rate for IV fat emulsions?

A

0.5 mL/kg/hr

378
Q

What distinguishes central PN from peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A

Central PN is hypertonic and indicated for long-term support; PPN is less hypertonic and used for short-term needs.

379
Q

What is the osmolality of central PN solutions?

A

At least 1600 mOsm/L

380
Q

What are the indications for using peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A
  • Short-term nutrition support
  • Low protein and caloric requirements
  • High risk for central catheter
  • Supplement inadequate oral intake
381
Q

What are the risks associated with peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A
  • Phlebitis
  • Fluid overload
382
Q

What is the protein intake range for patients receiving PN?

A

0.8 to 1.5 g/kg/day

383
Q

In which patient populations might protein requirements exceed 150 g/day?

A
  • Septic patients
  • Critically ill patients
  • Burn patients
  • Multiple trauma patients
384
Q

What are the average daily electrolyte requirements for adult patients without renal or liver impairment?

A
  • Sodium: 1 to 2 mEq/kg
  • Potassium: 1 to 2 mEq/kg
  • Magnesium: 8 to 20 mEq
  • Calcium: 10 to 15 mEq
  • Phosphate: 20 to 40 mmol
385
Q

What trace elements are added to PN according to patient needs?

A
  • Zinc
  • Copper
  • Manganese
  • Selenium
  • Chromium
386
Q

What is the importance of multivitamin preparation in PN?

A

It generally meets the vitamin requirements.

387
Q

What factors must be considered for home nutrition support?

A
  • Patient’s nutritional needs
  • Caregiver education
  • Cost and reimbursement criteria
  • Quality of life impact
388
Q

What are eating disorders characterized by?

A

Psychiatric conditions associated with physiological alterations and risk for death.

389
Q

What are the 3 most common types of eating disorders?

A

Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder

Binge-eating disorder is less severe than bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

390
Q

What is a key characteristic of binge-eating disorder?

A

Individuals do not have a distorted body image and are often overweight or obese

Unlike anorexia and bulimia, binge-eating disorder does not involve significant weight loss or purging behaviors.

391
Q

List some risk factors for eating disorders.

A
  • Biologic issues
  • Psychologic issues
  • Sociocultural issues

Common psychologic issues include anxiety and perfectionism, while sociocultural issues may involve bullying or a limited social network.

392
Q

True or False: Eating disorders can occur in health-conscious individuals.

A

True

For example, men with bigorexia may develop eating disorders due to an extreme concern with becoming more muscular.

393
Q

What is bigorexia?

A

An extreme concern with becoming more muscular

Individuals with bigorexia may use steroids, supplements, and protein shakes to increase muscle mass.

394
Q

What is the female athlete triad?

A

A syndrome that includes eating disorders, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis

The triad occurs in females participating in sports that emphasize leanness and low body weight.

395
Q

What health issues may arise from eating disorders?

A
  • Fluid and electrolyte problems
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Nutrition problems
  • Endocrine problems
  • Metabolic problems

Menstrual problems may also occur in women of childbearing age.

396
Q

Fill in the blank: Binge-eating disorder is _______ than bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

A

less severe

This indicates a difference in the severity and health risks associated with binge-eating disorder compared to the other two disorders.

397
Q

What may individuals with bigorexia use to increase muscle mass?

A
  • Steroids
  • Other drugs
  • Supplements
  • Protein shakes

These substances are often used in an attempt to achieve a more muscular physique.

398
Q

Who is responsible for preparing PN solutions?

A

A pharmacist or trained technician

Must use strict aseptic techniques under a laminar flow hood.

399
Q

What should not be added to PN solutions after preparation?

A

Nothing

This is to maintain sterility and safety.

400
Q

What is the purpose of limiting the number of people involved in PN preparation?

A

To reduce risk for infection.

401
Q

How often are PN solutions ordered?

A

Daily

This is to adjust to the patient’s current needs.

402
Q

What information is included on a PN solution label?

A

Nutrient content, all additives, time mixed, and expiration date and time.

403
Q

How should PN solutions be stored before use?

A

Refrigerated until 30 min before use.

404
Q

What is the maximum time a PN solution can be at room temperature?

405
Q

What type of filter should be used with parenteral solutions not containing fat emulsion?

A

0.22-micron filter.

406
Q

What type of filter should be used with solutions containing fat emulsion?

A

1.2-micron filter.

407
Q

How often should filters and IV tubing be changed?

A

With each new PN container or every 24 hours.

408
Q

What should be done if a multilumen catheter is present?

A

Use a dedicated line for PN.

409
Q

Is it permissible to draw blood from a line dedicated for PN?

A

No, unless absolutely necessary.

410
Q

What should be used to control the infusion rate of PN?

A

An infusion pump.

411
Q

What should you do periodically during PN infusion?

A

Check the volume infused.

412
Q

What should be verified before starting PN?

A

The label and ingredients in the solution.

413
Q

Who should verify infusion pump settings before beginning PN?

A

A second RN.

414
Q

What should be checked for the quality of the PN solution?

A

Leaks, color changes, particulate matter, clarity, and fat emulsions separating.

415
Q

What should be done if a PN bag is not empty at the end of 24 hours?

A

Discontinue the PN solution and replace it with a new solution.

416
Q

What is the preferred delivery method for fat emulsions infused separately from PN?

A

Continuous low volume delivered over 12 hours.

417
Q

How often should glucose levels be checked for patients on PN?

A

Every 4-6 hours.

418
Q

What is the target glucose range to maintain during PN?

A

140-180 mg/dL.

419
Q

What can be given to prevent hypoglycemia if a PN formula bag empties?

A

10% or 20% dextrose solution or 5% dextrose solution.

420
Q

What are local manifestations of catheter-related infections?

A

Redness, tenderness, and exudate at the catheter insertion site.

421
Q

What are systemic manifestations of catheter-related infections?

A

Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and malaise.

422
Q

Who is at high risk for catheter-related infections?

A

Immunosuppressed patients.

423
Q

What should be done if an infection is suspected during a dressing change?

A

Send a culture specimen and notify the HCP.

424
Q

What should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of PN?

A

Initial vital signs, weight, intake and output, blood levels of glucose, electrolytes, and urea nitrogen.

425
Q

How often should CBC and hepatic enzyme studies be obtained until stable?

A

A minimum of 3 times per week.

426
Q

What is a general rule for transitioning to oral nutrition?

A

60% of caloric needs should be met orally or through EN.

427
Q

What should be the starting point for transitioning to oral nutrition?

A

Clear liquids.

428
Q

What is anorexia nervosa characterized by?

A

Restricting energy intake, difficulty maintaining appropriate weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and distorted body image

Anorexia nervosa is often associated with significant psychological distress.

429
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by anorexia nervosa?

A

Ages 13 to 19

Up to 90% of those affected are female.

430
Q

What are common behaviors exhibited by individuals with anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Restricting calorie intake
  • Compulsive exercise
  • Purging via vomiting or laxatives
  • Binge eating
  • Unwillingness to maintain a healthy weight
  • Detailed food rituals
  • Avoiding social situations

These behaviors often lead to significant health issues.

431
Q

What are common assessment findings in patients with anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Signs of malnutrition
  • Significant weight loss or low BMI (under 17)
  • Hypothermia
  • Muscle weakness

Diagnostic studies may reveal additional complications.

432
Q

What are potential diagnostic study findings for anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Osteopenia or osteoporosis
  • Iron-deficiency anemia
  • High blood urea nitrogen level
  • Abnormal renal function
  • Decreased potassium levels

These findings can indicate severe physiological stress.

433
Q

What complications may arise from decreased potassium intake in anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Renal failure

These complications highlight the importance of monitoring electrolyte levels.

434
Q

What is the recommended approach to treatment for anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Nutrition support
  • Psychiatric care
  • Family-based therapy
  • Behavior- and emotion-focused therapy

Building rapport with the patient is essential due to anxiety around treatment.

435
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

A rare but serious complication of refeeding programs

It can occur when nutritional replenishment is initiated too rapidly.

436
Q

What characterizes bulimia nervosa?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors

These behaviors may include vomiting, laxative misuse, or overexercise.

437
Q

What physical signs may indicate bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Macerated knuckles
  • Swollen salivary glands
  • Broken blood vessels in the eyes
  • Dental problems

These signs are often a result of frequent vomiting.

438
Q

What abnormal laboratory values may be associated with bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Hypokalemia
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Increased serum amylase

These values can indicate the physiological consequences of the disorder.

439
Q

What types of therapy are recommended for treating bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Psychologic counseling (cognitive behavioral therapy)
  • Family therapy
  • Nutrition counseling

A combination of these therapies is essential for effective treatment.

440
Q

Which antidepressant is FDA-approved for the treatment of bulimia nervosa?

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

It is the only FDA-approved medication specifically for this condition.

441
Q

What is a potential catheter-related problem associated with PN?

A

Air embolus

An air embolus occurs when air bubbles enter the bloodstream, potentially causing serious complications.

442
Q

Name a complication of PN related to infection.

A

Catheter-related sepsis

This refers to a bloodstream infection that occurs due to contamination of the catheter used for PN.

443
Q

What complication can occur if a catheter is not properly secured?

A

Dislodgment

Dislodgment refers to the catheter moving from its intended position, which can lead to complications.

444
Q

Identify a complication of PN that involves bleeding.

A

Hemorrhage

Hemorrhage can occur at the catheter insertion site or elsewhere in the body.

445
Q

What issue can prevent the flow of nutrients in PN?

A

Occlusion

Occlusion occurs when the catheter is blocked, hindering nutrient delivery.

446
Q

What is a common inflammatory complication associated with catheter use?

A

Phlebitis

Phlebitis is the inflammation of the vein where the catheter is placed.

447
Q

What are potential complications of PN related to the lungs?

A

Pneumothorax, hemothorax, and hydrothorax

These conditions refer to air, blood, or fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity, respectively.

448
Q

What vascular complication can arise from PN?

A

Thrombosis of vein

Thrombosis involves the formation of a blood clot in the vein, which can impede blood flow.

449
Q

What metabolic problem can arise from PN affecting the kidneys?

A

Altered renal function

This refers to changes in how well the kidneys are functioning, which can be affected by nutrient imbalances.

450
Q

What deficiency can result from inadequate nutrition in PN?

A

Essential fatty acid deficiency

This deficiency can lead to various health issues, including skin problems and immune dysfunction.

451
Q

What metabolic complication involves abnormal blood sugar levels?

A

Hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia refers to high blood sugar, while hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar, both of which can occur with PN.

452
Q

What condition characterized by high lipid levels can occur with PN?

A

Hyperlipidemia

Hyperlipidemia is an elevation of lipids in the bloodstream, which can result from excessive lipid administration.

453
Q

What liver-related complication can develop from PN?

A

Liver dysfunction

Liver dysfunction can occur due to the metabolic effects of PN and the composition of the nutrients provided.

454
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ syndrome can occur after the reintroduction of feeding.

A

Refeeding

Refeeding syndrome is a dangerous condition that can occur when feeding is restarted after a period of malnutrition.