Chapter 47 Lower Gastrointestinal Problems Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is celiac disease?

A

An autoimmune disease that causes damage to the small intestinal mucosa triggered by ingesting gluten.

Celiac disease is also known as celiac sprue and gluten-sensitive enteropathy.

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2
Q

What proteins trigger celiac disease?

A

Gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

Gluten is the main dietary trigger for celiac disease.

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3
Q

At what age can celiac disease occur?

A

Celiac disease can occur at any age.

Symptoms often begin in childhood.

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4
Q

What is the prevalence of celiac disease worldwide?

A

Affects about 1 in 100 people worldwide.

This statistic indicates the global impact of the disease.

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5
Q

What is the risk for first-degree relatives of someone with celiac disease?

A

10% chance of developing the disorder.

Genetic predisposition plays a significant role in the development of celiac disease.

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6
Q

What other autoimmune diseases are associated with celiac disease?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Type 1 diabetes

Celiac disease is often associated with other autoimmune conditions.

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7
Q

What are the three factors necessary for developing celiac disease?

A
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Gluten ingestion
  • Immune-mediated response

These factors are essential for the onset of celiac disease.

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8
Q

What percentage of people with celiac disease have the HLA-DQ2 allele?

A

About 95%.

The remaining 5% have HLA-DQ8.

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9
Q

What happens to gluten in genetically susceptible persons?

A

Prolamin peptides bind to HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8, activating an inflammatory response.

This response leads to tissue damage in the small intestine.

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10
Q

Where is damage most severe in celiac disease?

A

In the duodenum.

The duodenum has more exposure to gluten compared to other parts of the intestine.

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11
Q

What is the primary cause of tissue destruction in celiac disease?

A

Chronic inflammation.

This inflammation results from the immune response to gluten ingestion.

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12
Q

True or False: Celiac disease is the same as tropical sprue.

A

False.

Tropical sprue is a chronic disorder occurring primarily in tropical areas, distinct from celiac disease.

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: The inflammation in celiac disease lasts as long as _______ continues.

A

gluten ingestion

Continuous gluten ingestion perpetuates the inflammatory response.

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

What is one cause of malabsorption related to bacterial issues?

A

Bacterial Proliferation

Includes conditions such as parasitic infection and tropical sprue.

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16
Q

Name a biochemical deficiency that can lead to malabsorption.

A

Lactase deficiency

This is a common cause of lactose intolerance.

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17
Q

List three conditions that fall under biochemical or enzyme deficiencies causing malabsorption.

A
  • Biliary tract obstruction
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Cystic fibrosis
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18
Q

Which syndrome is associated with pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Characterized by gastrin-secreting tumors leading to increased gastric acid.

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19
Q

What are two conditions that can disturb lymphatic and vascular circulation, leading to malabsorption?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Lymphoma
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20
Q

Which disease is associated with small intestinal mucosal disruption?

A

Celiac disease

An autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten.

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21
Q

What surgical procedure can result in surface area loss leading to malabsorption?

A

Billroth II gastrectomy

This procedure involves the resection of part of the stomach.

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22
Q

Fill in the blank: Chronic pancreatitis is a cause of malabsorption due to _______.

A

Biochemical or enzyme deficiencies

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23
Q

True or False: Crohn’s disease is a cause of malabsorption.

A

True

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24
Q

What is SBS an acronym for in the context of malabsorption?

A

Short Bowel Syndrome

A condition resulting from surgical removal of a significant portion of the intestine.

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25
Q

Name a condition that can lead to malabsorption due to surface area loss.

A

Distal ileal resection, disease, or bypass

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

What are the cardiovascular manifestations of malabsorption?

A

Hypotension, Peripheral edema, Tachycardia, Dehydration

These manifestations result from protein malabsorption and hypovolemia.

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28
Q

What gastrointestinal symptoms are associated with malabsorption?

A

Diarrhea, Flatulence, Glossitis, Cheilosis, Stomatitis, Steatorrhea, Weight loss

Symptoms arise from impaired absorption of water, sodium, fatty acids, bile salts, carbohydrates, and bacterial fermentation of unabsorbed carbohydrates.

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29
Q

What hematologic conditions can result from malabsorption?

A

Anemia, Hemorrhagic tendency

Caused by impaired absorption of iron, cobalamin, folic acid, and deficiencies of vitamin C and K.

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30
Q

What musculoskeletal symptoms are indicative of malabsorption?

A

Bone pain, Muscle wasting, Tetany, Weakness, Muscle cramps

These symptoms can be linked to calcium and vitamin deficiencies.

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31
Q

Which neurological symptoms may occur due to malabsorption?

A

Altered mental status, Night blindness, Paresthesias, Peripheral neuropathy

These can be associated with deficiencies such as vitamin A and cobalamin.

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32
Q

What skin manifestations are associated with malabsorption?

A

Brittle nails, Bruising, Dermatitis, Hair thinning and loss

These symptoms may be linked to protein malabsorption and vitamin deficiencies.

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33
Q

What are the potential consequences of impaired calcium absorption?

A

Osteoporosis, Osteomalacia

Resulting from hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and inadequate vitamin D.

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34
Q

Fill in the blank: Protein malabsorption can lead to _______.

A

[key learning term]

This can cause various systemic issues including edema and weakness.

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35
Q

True or False: Anemia can be a manifestation of malabsorption.

A

True

Anemia is often due to deficiencies in iron, cobalamin, and folic acid.

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36
Q

What vitamin deficiencies are commonly associated with malabsorption?

A

Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Vitamin K, Thiamine, Folate, Riboflavin, Cobalamin, Niacin, Zinc

These deficiencies can lead to multiple systemic manifestations.

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37
Q

What causes steatorrhea in malabsorption?

A

Malabsorption of fat

This leads to the presence of undigested fat in the stool.

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38
Q
A
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39
Q

What are classic manifestations of celiac disease?

A

Foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal pain, flatulence, abdominal distention

Some individuals may not exhibit obvious GI symptoms.

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40
Q

List atypical signs and symptoms of celiac disease.

A
  • Joint pain
  • Liver problems
  • Fatigue
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Reproductive problems

These symptoms can occur without typical gastrointestinal manifestations.

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41
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

An intensely pruritic, vesicular skin lesion that occurs as a rash on various body parts

Common locations include the buttocks, scalp, face, elbows, and knees.

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42
Q

What nutritional deficiencies may occur in celiac disease?

A
  • Protein
  • Fat
  • Carbohydrate absorption

This can lead to weight loss, muscle wasting, and signs of malnutrition.

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43
Q

What can abnormal serum folate, iron, and cobalamin levels lead to?

A

Anemia

These deficiencies are common in patients with celiac disease.

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44
Q

What dietary restrictions may patients with celiac disease need to follow?

A

Refrain from lactose-containing products until the disease is under control

Lactose intolerance is common in celiac patients.

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45
Q

What are the potential consequences of inadequate calcium intake and vitamin D absorption in celiac disease?

A

Decreased bone density and osteoporosis

These conditions can complicate the health of individuals with celiac disease.

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46
Q

Who should be screened for celiac disease?

A
  • Close relatives of affected individuals
  • Young patients with decreased bone density
  • Patients with anemia of unknown cause
  • Individuals with certain autoimmune diseases

Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications.

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47
Q

How is celiac disease diagnosed?

A

History, physical assessment, and serology testing

The tissue transglutaminase IgA antibody test is the best serologic test.

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48
Q

What is the gold standard for confirming celiac disease diagnosis?

A

Histologic evidence from biopsies showing flattened mucosa and loss of villi

Genotyping for HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8 antigens may also be performed.

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49
Q

What is the only effective treatment for celiac disease?

A

A strict gluten-free diet

Most patients need to adhere to this diet for life.

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50
Q

What type of monitoring is required for patients with celiac disease?

A
  • Periodic nutrition evaluations
  • Laboratory monitoring for anemia and malnutrition
  • Bone density screening every 2 to 3 years

Patients often require daily vitamin and mineral supplements.

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51
Q

What role does a dietitian play in managing celiac disease?

A

Teach patients how to eat a nutritionally adequate diet considering food preferences, cultural traditions, and food availability

Dietitians can also help patients read medication and food labels.

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52
Q

What challenges do patients face when maintaining a gluten-free diet?

A

Difficulty when traveling or dining out, feeling embarrassed discussing gluten-free options

Mobile apps can help find gluten-free menu options at restaurants.

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53
Q

What is lactase deficiency?

A

A condition in which the lactase enzyme is deficient or absent

Lactase is necessary to break down lactose into glucose and galactose.

54
Q

What are common causes of primary lactase insufficiency?

A
  • Genetic factors
  • Certain ethnic or racial groups (especially those with Asian or African ancestry)

Low lactase levels often develop in childhood.

55
Q

What symptoms can result from lactose malabsorption?

A
  • Bloating
  • Flatulence
  • Cramping abdominal pain
  • Diarrhea

Symptoms typically occur within 30 minutes to several hours after lactose ingestion.

56
Q

How is lactose intolerance diagnosed?

A
  • Lactose tolerance tests
  • Hydrogen breath tests
  • Genetic testing

These tests help determine the presence of lactase deficiency.

57
Q

What is the primary goal of treatment for lactose intolerance?

A

To improve patient symptoms and prevent malnutrition

Limiting lactose intake usually leads to symptom improvement.

58
Q

What alternatives are available for patients with lactose intolerance?

A

Lactose-free milk products

Lactase tablets can also be used to aid digestion.

60
Q

What condition is characterized by insufficient surface area in the small intestine for nutrient absorption?

A

Short bowel syndrome (SBS)

SBS leads to an inability to meet energy, fluid, electrolyte, and nutrition needs.

61
Q

What are common causes of short bowel syndrome?

A
  • Diseases that damage the intestinal mucosa
  • Surgical removal of too much small intestine
  • Congenital defects

Examples include Crohn’s disease and cancer.

62
Q

What percentage of the small intestine loss is likely to develop short bowel syndrome?

A

50% to 75%

The extent of SBS is influenced by the length and area of the remaining small intestine.

63
Q

What clinical manifestations result from short bowel syndrome?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Weight loss
  • Diarrhea
  • Malnutrition
  • Vitamin deficiencies
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Abdominal pain
  • Flatulence
  • Steatorrhea

Patients may also develop lactase deficiency and bacterial overgrowth.

64
Q

What medications are approved by the FDA for the treatment of short bowel syndrome?

A
  • Somatropin
  • Glutamine
  • Teduglutide (Gattex)

These medications enhance intestinal adaptation and absorption.

65
Q

True or False: Patients with intact terminal ileum, ileocecal valve, and colon rarely have problems with short bowel syndrome.

A

True

The presence of these structures aids in nutrient absorption.

66
Q

What should be included in the diet for patients with short bowel syndrome?

A
  • High in protein
  • High in complex carbohydrates
  • Low in fat
  • Low in simple sugars
  • Soluble fiber (if colon is present)

A dietitian should be consulted for tailored nutrition support.

67
Q

What are hemorrhoids?

A

Abnormally dilated hemorrhoidal veins

Hemorrhoids can be classified as internal or external based on their location.

68
Q

What is the main treatment goal for patients with short bowel syndrome?

A

To maintain normal nutrition, achieve a good quality of life, and be free from complications

This often involves a combination of PN, EN, medications, and diet.

69
Q

Fill in the blank: Patients with short bowel syndrome may require _______ or _______ at night for severe malabsorption.

A

[PN] or [EN]

PN stands for parenteral nutrition, and EN stands for enteral nutrition.

70
Q

What is the role of bile acids in relation to diarrhea in short bowel syndrome?

A

Stimulate intestinal fluid secretion and reduce colonic fluid absorption

Cholestyramine can help reduce diarrhea caused by unabsorbed bile acids.

72
Q

What are hemorrhoids?

A

Hemorrhoids are swollen veins in the rectal area that can cause pain, bleeding, and discomfort.

73
Q

What causes hemorrhoids?

A

Hemorrhoids develop due to increased anal pressure and weakening of connective tissue supporting the hemorrhoidal veins.

74
Q

List factors that increase the risk for hemorrhoids.

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Constipation
  • Straining to defecate
  • Diarrhea
  • Heavy lifting
  • Prolonged standing and sitting
  • Obesity
  • Ascites
75
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of internal hemorrhoids?

A

Painless, bright red bleeding with stools, on toilet paper, or dripping into the toilet water.

76
Q

What happens if internal hemorrhoids become constricted?

A

The patient will report pain.

77
Q

What symptoms indicate prolapsed internal hemorrhoids?

A

Pressure with defecation and a protruding mass.

78
Q

How do external hemorrhoids differ from internal hemorrhoids?

A

External hemorrhoids are reddish-blue, seldom bleed, may cause itching and burning, and usually do not cause pain unless thrombosed.

79
Q

What is a thrombosed hemorrhoid?

A

A thrombosed hemorrhoid is a hemorrhoid that has developed a blood clot, causing pain and inflammation.

80
Q

How are external hemorrhoids diagnosed?

A

External hemorrhoids can be diagnosed with visual inspection and digital rectal examination (DRE).

81
Q

What diagnostic methods are used for internal hemorrhoids?

A

DRE, anoscopy, and sigmoidoscopy.

82
Q

What is the first-line therapy for hemorrhoids?

A

Normalizing stool consistency by treating constipation or diarrhea.

83
Q

What dietary measures can help prevent constipation?

A

A high-fiber diet and increased fluid intake.

84
Q

What non-pharmacological measures can help with hemorrhoid discomfort?

A

Warm sitz baths (15 to 20 minutes, 2 or 3 times each day).

85
Q

What types of medications can be used to relieve hemorrhoid symptoms?

A
  • OTC ointments
  • Creams
  • Suppositories
  • NSAIDs for pain
86
Q

What is rubber band ligation?

A

A nonsurgical treatment where a rubber band is placed around a hemorrhoid to constrict circulation, causing necrosis and sloughing off.

87
Q

When is a hemorrhoidectomy indicated?

A

When there is marked prolapse, excessive pain or bleeding, or large or multiple thrombosed hemorrhoids.

88
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary intention healing after hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Primary intention involves suturing the tissue, while secondary intention leaves the area open for healing.

89
Q

What is the focus of nursing care after a hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Pain control and promoting wound healing.

91
Q

What is the primary concern of patients regarding bowel movements after a minor procedure?

A

Severe pain and discomfort

92
Q

What type of analgesia is commonly used for patients post-procedure?

A

Multimodal analgesia

93
Q

Which medications are often included in multimodal analgesia?

A
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • Topical lidocaine
  • 2% diltiazem
  • Glyceryl trinitrate
94
Q

What should be administered before the first bowel movement to reduce discomfort?

A

Pain medication

95
Q

What is the purpose of stool softeners like docusate?

A

To help form a soft, bulky stool that is easier to pass

96
Q

What intervention is done if a patient does not have a bowel movement within 2 or 3 days?

A

An oil-retention enema

97
Q

What is the purpose of a warm sitz bath for patients?

A

To provide comfort and keep the anal area clean

98
Q

What is an anal fissure?

A

A linear skin tear in the anal mucosa

99
Q

What are common causes of anal fissures?

A
  • Trauma from hard stools
  • Anal intercourse
  • Foreign body insertion
  • Childbirth
  • Local infections (e.g., syphilis, gonorrhea)
100
Q

How is an anal fissure classified based on its duration?

A
  • Acute: less than 6 weeks
  • Chronic: longer than 6 weeks
101
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of an anal fissure?

A

Severe anal pain

102
Q

What can cause anal fissures to bleed?

A

Trauma from bowel movements

103
Q

What is the recommended conservative treatment for anal fissures?

A
  • Fiber supplements
  • Increased fluid intake
  • Sitz baths
  • Topical analgesics
104
Q

What surgical procedure is recommended if conservative treatment for anal fissures fails?

A

Lateral internal sphincterotomy

105
Q

What is an anorectal abscess?

A

A collection of perianal pus

106
Q

What typically causes an anorectal abscess?

A

Obstruction of the anal glands leading to infection

107
Q

What are common organisms that cause anorectal abscesses?

A
  • E. coli
  • Staphylococci
  • Streptococci
108
Q

What are the symptoms of an anorectal abscess?

A
  • Local severe pain
  • Swelling
  • Foul-smelling drainage
  • Tenderness
  • Fever
109
Q

What is the primary treatment for an anorectal abscess?

A

Surgical drainage

110
Q

What is an anal fistula?

A

An abnormal tunnel from the anus or rectum to the surface of the skin

111
Q

What are common causes of anal fistulas?

A
  • Anorectal abscess
  • Infections
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Cancer
  • Trauma
  • Radiation
112
Q

What may occur if feces enter an anal fistula?

113
Q

What is the typical surgical treatment for an anal fistula?

A

Fistulotomy

114
Q

What is the nursing care required after surgical treatment for an anal fistula?

A

Care is the same as after a hemorrhoidectomy

116
Q

What is the incidence of anal cancer in the United States?

A

Around 8700 people are diagnosed each year

Anal cancer is uncommon in the general population but its incidence is increasing

117
Q

What virus is associated with about 90% of anal cancer cases?

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

HPV is a significant risk factor for anal cancer

118
Q

What are common risk factors for anal cancer?

A
  • Smokers
  • HIV-positive homosexual men
  • Immunocompromised individuals
  • Women with cervical, vaginal, or vulvar cancer

These groups are at higher risk for developing anal cancer

119
Q

What is the most common presenting sign of anal cancer?

A

Rectal bleeding

Other symptoms may include rectal pain, itching, and pressure

120
Q

What screening methods are recommended for high-risk individuals for anal cancer?

A
  • Digital rectal exam (DRE)
  • Anal Pap tests

Screening is crucial for early detection in high-risk populations

121
Q

What does an anal Pap test involve?

A

Swabbing the anal lining to examine cells for changes

This test helps identify dysplasia or neoplasia

122
Q

What imaging technique allows visualization of the anal mucosa?

A

High-resolution anoscopy

A biopsy can also be obtained during this procedure

123
Q

What is the primary treatment for anal cancer?

A

Combination of low-dose radiation and chemotherapy

Treatment depends on the size and depth of the lesions

124
Q

What chemotherapy agents are commonly used for anal cancer?

A
  • Mitomycin
  • Cisplatin
  • FU

These agents are used in various combinations

125
Q

What is a pilonidal sinus?

A

A small tract under the skin between the buttocks in the sacrococcygeal area

It is thought to be of congenital origin

126
Q

What is the etymology of the term ‘pilonidal’?

A

‘A nest of hair’

The condition often involves hair penetration into the skin

127
Q

What occurs if the skin around a pilonidal sinus becomes infected?

A

It forms a pilonidal cyst or abscess

Symptoms arise only when there is an infection

128
Q

What is the treatment for a pilonidal abscess?

A

Incision and drainage

The wound may be closed or left open to heal by secondary intention

129
Q

What nursing care is recommended for a pilonidal abscess?

A
  • Warm, moist heat applications
  • Sitz baths
  • Educating the patient on dressing care

Comfort measures are important for patient care

130
Q

True or False: Pilonidal sinuses always present symptoms.

A

False

Symptoms occur only if there is an infection

131
Q

Fill in the blank: A pilonidal sinus is thought to be of _______ origin.

A

[congenital]

This suggests it may be a condition present from birth