Chapter 47 Lower Gastrointestinal Problems Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some common gastrointestinal (GI) problems?

A

Diarrhea, constipation, fecal incontinence, inflammatory bowel problems, infectious bowel problems, bowel trauma, bowel obstructions, colorectal cancer (CRC), abdominal and bowel surgery, malabsorption problems

This list covers a wide variety of GI issues that patients may experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the conceptual problems patients often face related to GI issues?

A

Impaired elimination and nutrition

These issues can significantly affect a patient’s overall health and well-being.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What symptoms are commonly associated with gastrointestinal problems?

A

Inflammation, pain, altered fluid and electrolyte balance

These symptoms can complicate the treatment and management of GI conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common goals in managing gastrointestinal problems?

A

Promoting optimal bowel habits and nutrition

These goals are essential for improving patient outcomes and quality of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fill in the blank: Patients often have problems with impaired _______ and nutrition.

A

elimination

Impaired elimination can lead to various complications in GI health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is diarrhea?

A

The passage of at least 3 loose or liquid stools per day.

Diarrhea can be classified as acute, persistent, or chronic based on duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the duration of acute diarrhea?

A

14 days or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the duration of persistent diarrhea?

A

Longer than 14 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is chronic diarrhea?

A

Diarrhea lasting 30 days or longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is health care-associated diarrhea?

A

Acute diarrhea in a hospitalized patient that starts after 3 days of hospitalization and was not present on admission.

It is fairly common, developing in up to one-third of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary cause of acute diarrhea?

A

Ingesting infectious organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes most cases of infectious diarrhea in the United States?

A

Viruses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the manifestations of Campylobacter jejuni infection?

A

Diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, sometimes nausea, vomiting. Lasts about 7 days.

Commonly associated with undercooked poultry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of food is Clostridioides difficile associated with?

A

Undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk.

Most frequent in summer months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the symptoms of Clostridium perfringens infection?

A

Diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting.

Occurs 6-24 hours after eating contaminated food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can prolonged use of antibiotics lead to in relation to Clostridium perfringens?

A

Increased susceptibility to infection due to exposure to feces-contaminated surfaces.

Spores on hands and surfaces are hard to kill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the manifestations of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli infection?

A

Severe abdominal cramping, bloody diarrhea, vomiting, low-grade fever. Can progress to life-threatening renal failure.

Lasts 5-7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the symptoms of Norovirus infection?

A

Fever, vomiting, profuse watery diarrhea. Lasts 3-8 days.

Most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is Salmonella transmitted?

A

Transmitted via fecal-oral route or in food or water contaminated with infected feces.

Reservoir includes poultry, reptiles, and other animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the symptoms of Giardia lamblia infection?

A

Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting. Lasts about 2 weeks.

May be fatal in those who are immunocompromised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: Shigella can cause diarrhea that lasts 4-7 days.

A

True

Symptoms may include diarrhea (sometimes bloody), fever, stomach cramps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the transmission method for Cryptosporidium?

A

Transmitted in stool of infected human or animal.

Highly contagious and can contaminate recreational water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fill in the blank: Enterotoxigenic E. coli can lead to _______.

A

[diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting]

Symptoms may last 3-4 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a common symptom of Rotavirus infection?

A

Watery diarrhea.

Lasts about 1-3 days and may cause dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the symptoms associated with Staphylococcus infection?

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea. Rapid onset, lasts 1-2 days.

Usually mild but can be severe in some cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a key characteristic of the outer shell of Cryptosporidium?

A

Allows it to live for long periods outside of the body and makes it resistant to chlorine.

Common cause of waterborne disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of water is Norovirus commonly found in?

A

Fresh lakes and rivers, swimming pools, water parks, and hot tubs.

Highly contagious and transmitted mainly by fecal-oral route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What high-risk groups are particularly susceptible to Cryptosporidium in the United States?

A

Travelers, recent immigrants, and men who have sex with men.

Most common in tropical areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a common cause of bloody diarrhea in the United States?

A

Bacterial infection with Escherichia coli O157:H7

It is transmitted by undercooked beef or chicken contaminated with the bacteria or in fruits and vegetables exposed to contaminated manure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the most common GI parasite that causes diarrhea in the United States?

A

Giardia lamblia

This parasite is prevalent and often associated with contaminated water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do some infectious organisms attack the intestines?

A

They change the secretion and/or absorption of enterocytes or cause inflammation

Examples include Rotavirus A, Norovirus, and G. lamblia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is secretory diarrhea?

A

A result of bacterial or viral infections that causes oversecretion of water, sodium, and chloride into the bowel

It occurs when ingested pathogens survive in the GI tract long enough to absorb into the enterocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What factors influence a person’s susceptibility to gastrointestinal pathogens?

A

Age, gastric acidity, intestinal microflora, and immune status

Older adults are particularly at risk for life-threatening diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What effect do proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have on pathogen survival?

A

They increase the chance that pathogens will survive

This is because stomach acid kills ingested pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the role of normal flora in the human colon?

A

They aid in fermentation and provide a microbial barrier against pathogens

Antibiotics can kill normal flora, increasing susceptibility to infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is C. difficile infection (CDI) associated with?

A

Most serious hospital-associated diarrhea and common cause of hospital-acquired GI illness

Patients receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics are particularly susceptible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can cause diarrhea besides infection?

A

Drugs and food intolerances

For example, large amounts of undigested substances can lead to osmotic diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of infections attacking the upper GI tract?

A

Large-volume, watery stools, cramping, and periumbilical pain

Patients often experience a low-grade or no fever, nausea, and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What diagnostic studies are typically performed for diarrhea?

A

Stool cultures, blood cultures, and measuring stool electrolytes, pH, and osmolality

These tests help determine the cause and severity of diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the primary concern in treating acute infectious diarrhea?

A

Preventing transmission, replacing fluid and electrolytes, and protecting the skin

Most patients tolerate oral fluids for mild diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the role of antidiarrheal drugs?

A

They have limited short-term use to coat and protect mucous membranes, absorb irritating substances, and decrease intestinal secretions

They are not a primary treatment for infectious diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are antidiarrheal drugs not recommended for?

A

Major infectious diarrheas

They potentially prolong exposure to the organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a major concern with fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT)?

A

Potential for transmitting infectious agents in the donor stool

Careful screening and intimate physical contact with the recipient can minimize this risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In what condition are antidiarrheal drugs used cautiously?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

They can cause toxic megacolon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When are antibiotics used in treating acute diarrhea?

A

For certain infections or when the infected person is severely ill or immunosuppressed

They rarely have a role otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What two antibiotics are recommended for empiric therapy in adults with acute diarrhea?

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Azithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI)?

A

A hazardous health care-associated infection (HAI)

Risk is highest in patients on antimicrobial, chemotherapy, gastric acid-suppressing, or immunosuppressive drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How long can C. difficile spores survive on objects?

A

Up to 70 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What may be used to prevent CDI or as an adjunct therapy?

A

Lactobacillus probiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the treatment for CDI?

A
  • Oral vancomycin (125 mg 4 times a day)
  • Fidaxomicin (200 mg twice daily) for 10 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What should be done with non-essential antibiotics and antidiarrheal drugs during CDI treatment?

A

They should be stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a treatment option for patients who cannot be treated with vancomycin or fidaxomicin?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are signs of severe, complicated CDI?

A
  • Shock
  • Hypotension
  • Ileus
  • Megacolon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the risk of recurrent CDI?

A

Occurs in about 20% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) used for?

A

Recurrent CDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the process of preparing donor stool for FMT?

A

Pureed into a liquid slurry consistency using saline, water, or pasteurized cow’s milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What clinical problems can arise from acute infectious diarrhea?

A
  • Impaired bowel elimination
  • Fluid imbalance
  • Electrolyte imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the mechanism of action for bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)?

A

Decreases secretions and has weak antibacterial activity.

Used to prevent travelers’ diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the nursing considerations for bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)?

A

May cause tinnitus and confusion. Do not use with GI bleeding.

Caution patient to avoid alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the mechanism of action for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)?

A

Decreases peristalsis and intestinal motility.

Opioid and anticholinergic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the nursing considerations for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)?

A

Blurred vision, dry mouth, drowsiness may occur. Take as directed. Overdose may be life-threatening.

Caution patient to avoid alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the mechanism of action for loperamide (Imodium, Pepto Diarrhea Control)?

A

Inhibits peristalsis, delays transit, increases absorption of fluid from stools.

Taken after each stool; up to 6 doses per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the nursing considerations for loperamide (Imodium, Pepto Diarrhea Control)?

A

May cause drowsiness. Use caution with hazardous activities.

Take as directed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the mechanism of action for octreotide acetate (Sandostatin)?

A

Suppresses serotonin secretion, stimulates fluid absorption from GI tract, decreases intestinal motility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the nursing considerations for octreotide acetate (Sandostatin)?

A

Given subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or intravenously. May cause gall bladder or liver problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the mechanism of action for paregoric (camphorated tincture of opium)?

A

Decreases peristalsis and intestinal motility.

Opioid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are general nursing considerations for antidiarrheal drugs?

A

Caution patient to avoid alcohol. May cause drowsiness. Use caution with hazardous activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with diarrhea?

A
  1. Resumption of normal bowel patterns
  2. Normal fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
  3. Normal nutrition status
  4. No perianal/perineal skin breakdown

These goals aim to restore the patient’s health and prevent complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the initial assumption regarding the cause of acute diarrhea?

A

All cases are considered infectious until the cause is known

This approach emphasizes the need for infection control measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is essential for infection control in patients with diarrhea?

A

Strict infection control precautions

This includes hand hygiene and isolation measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What hand hygiene practice is crucial in limiting the spread of C. difficile?

A

Meticulous hand washing with soap and water

Alcohol-based hand cleaners are ineffective against C. difficile spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What should be done immediately for patients with CDI?

A

Put them in isolation

This helps prevent the spread of infection to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What personal protective equipment should visitors and providers wear for patients with CDI?

A

Gloves and gowns

This is to protect against contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What should infected patients be provided with for their use?

A

Disposable stethoscopes and thermometers

This prevents cross-contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How should surfaces and equipment be disinfected in the room of a CDI patient?

A

Using a 10% bleach solution or a disinfectant labeled as C. difficile sporicidal

This ensures effective elimination of spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is fecal incontinence?

A

The involuntary loss of stool

It occurs when the structures that maintain continence are damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is required for voluntary defecation to occur?

A

An intact neuromuscular system

This system enables control over bowel movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

True or False: Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective against C. difficile spores.

A

False

Only soap and water are effective for this purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with diarrhea?

A
  1. Resumption of normal bowel patterns
  2. Normal fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
  3. Normal nutrition status
  4. No perianal/perineal skin breakdown

These goals aim to restore the patient’s health and prevent complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the initial assumption regarding the cause of acute diarrhea?

A

All cases are considered infectious until the cause is known

This approach emphasizes the need for infection control measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is essential for infection control in patients with diarrhea?

A

Strict infection control precautions

This includes hand hygiene and isolation measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What hand hygiene practice is crucial in limiting the spread of C. difficile?

A

Meticulous hand washing with soap and water

Alcohol-based hand cleaners are ineffective against C. difficile spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What should be done immediately for patients with CDI?

A

Put them in isolation

This helps prevent the spread of infection to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What personal protective equipment should visitors and providers wear for patients with CDI?

A

Gloves and gowns

This is to protect against contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What should infected patients be provided with for their use?

A

Disposable stethoscopes and thermometers

This prevents cross-contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How should surfaces and equipment be disinfected in the room of a CDI patient?

A

Using a 10% bleach solution or a disinfectant labeled as C. difficile sporicidal

This ensures effective elimination of spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is fecal incontinence?

A

The involuntary loss of stool

It occurs when the structures that maintain continence are damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is required for voluntary defecation to occur?

A

An intact neuromuscular system

This system enables control over bowel movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

True or False: Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective against C. difficile spores.

A

False

Only soap and water are effective for this purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What subjective health information is important to consider for diarrhea assessment?

A

Recent travel, hospitalization, infections, stress, diverticulitis or malabsorption, metabolic disorders, IBD, IBS

IBD: Inflammatory Bowel Disease, IBS: Irritable Bowel Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which medications are associated with diarrhea?

A

Laxatives or enemas, magnesium-containing antacids, sorbitol-containing suspensions or elixirs, antibiotics, methyldopa, digitalis, colchicine, OTC antidiarrheal drugs

OTC: Over-The-Counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What functional health patterns might be observed in a patient with diarrhea?

A
  • Chronic laxative use
  • Malaise
  • Ingestion of fatty and spicy foods
  • Food intolerances
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Thirst
  • Increased stool frequency, volume, and looseness
  • Change in color and character of stools
  • Steatorrhea
  • Abdominal bloating
  • Decreased urine output
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Abdominal pain
  • Cramping
  • Tenesmus

Steatorrhea: Fatty stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What objective data might indicate diarrhea?

A
  • Lethargy
  • Sunken eyeballs
  • Fever
  • Malnutrition
  • Frequent soft to liquid stools
  • Altered stool color
  • Abdominal distention
  • Hyperactive bowel sounds
  • Pus, blood, mucus, or fat in stools
  • Fecal impaction
  • Pallor
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • Poor skin turgor
  • Perianal irritation
  • Decreased output
  • Concentrated urine

Fecal impaction: A condition where stool becomes hard and lodged in the intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What possible diagnostic findings are associated with diarrhea?

A
  • Abnormal serum electrolyte levels
  • Anemia
  • T WBC
  • Eosinophilia
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Positive stool cultures
  • Ova, parasites, leukocytes, blood, or fat in stool
  • Abnormal sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy findings
  • Abnormal lower GI series

T WBC: Total White Blood Cell count, GI: Gastrointestinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the first nursing management action for a patient with diarrhea?

A

Ensure the patient maintains an adequate fluid intake

This includes encouraging oral fluids containing glucose and electrolytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What types of fluids should be encouraged for patients with diarrhea?

A

Oral fluids containing glucose and electrolytes

IV fluids and electrolytes may also be administered as ordered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What medications may be administered to a patient with diarrhea?

A

Antidiarrheal and antibiotic drugs

These should be given as ordered by a healthcare provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What precautions should be implemented for patients with diarrhea?

A

Proper isolation and infection control precautions

This is essential to prevent the spread of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What should be maintained to monitor a patient’s condition with diarrhea?

A

Accurate intake and output records, recording weight daily

This helps in assessing the patient’s hydration status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What should be done to assist a patient with perianal care?

A

Assist the patient with keeping the perianal area clean

Applying a moisturizing skin barrier cream may also be needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What can be used to reduce perianal irritation and pain?

A

Dibucaine, witch hazel, or sitz baths

These options help soothe the affected area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What measures can be implemented to make toileting easier for patients?

A

Call light in reach, easy-to-manage clothing, assistive devices available, and provide privacy

Using a deodorizer can also help maintain comfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What dietary recommendation should be made to a patient with diarrhea?

A

Increase high fiber foods, such as whole-grain breads and cereals, and fresh fruits and vegetables

This is unless contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What should patients be taught to avoid to help manage diarrhea?

A

Foods and fluids known to worsen diarrhea

This education is critical for symptom management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the first nursing management action for a patient with diarrhea?

A

Ensure the patient maintains an adequate fluid intake

This includes encouraging oral fluids containing glucose and electrolytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What types of fluids should be encouraged for patients with diarrhea?

A

Oral fluids containing glucose and electrolytes

IV fluids and electrolytes may also be administered as ordered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What medications may be administered to a patient with diarrhea?

A

Antidiarrheal and antibiotic drugs

These should be given as ordered by a healthcare provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What precautions should be implemented for patients with diarrhea?

A

Proper isolation and infection control precautions

This is essential to prevent the spread of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What should be maintained to monitor a patient’s condition with diarrhea?

A

Accurate intake and output records, recording weight daily

This helps in assessing the patient’s hydration status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What should be done to assist a patient with perianal care?

A

Assist the patient with keeping the perianal area clean

Applying a moisturizing skin barrier cream may also be needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What can be used to reduce perianal irritation and pain?

A

Dibucaine, witch hazel, or sitz baths

These options help soothe the affected area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What measures can be implemented to make toileting easier for patients?

A

Call light in reach, easy-to-manage clothing, assistive devices available, and provide privacy

Using a deodorizer can also help maintain comfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What dietary recommendation should be made to a patient with diarrhea?

A

Increase high fiber foods, such as whole-grain breads and cereals, and fresh fruits and vegetables

This is unless contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What should patients be taught to avoid to help manage diarrhea?

A

Foods and fluids known to worsen diarrhea

This education is critical for symptom management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the two main functions that can result in fecal incontinence when impaired?

A

Motor function and sensory function

Motor function involves the contraction of sphincters and rectal floor muscles, while sensory function relates to the ability to perceive stool presence and the urge to defecate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the most common cause of sphincter injury in women?

A

Obstetric trauma

Obstetric trauma can occur during childbirth and may lead to damage to the anal sphincters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which factors contribute to fecal incontinence in older adults?

A

Aging, menopause, mobility problems, chronic constipation

Mobility problems can prevent timely access to toilets, and chronic constipation may lead to fecal impaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is fecal impaction?

A

A collection of hardened feces in the rectum or sigmoid colon that cannot be expelled

It often leads to incontinence when liquid stool seeps around the hardened feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What diagnostic method can reveal reduced anal canal muscle tone?

A

Rectal examination

A rectal examination can also detect internal prolapse, rectocele, hemorrhoids, masses, and fecal impaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What dietary changes are recommended to manage fecal incontinence?

A

High-fiber diet and increased intake of caffeine-free fluids

Fiber supplements or bulk-forming laxatives can help increase stool bulk and firm consistency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Which medications are useful in slowing gastrointestinal transit for fecal incontinence?

A

Antidiarrheal drugs, such as loperamide

These medications can help manage the symptoms of fecal incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the role of physical therapy in managing fecal incontinence?

A

Improves awareness of rectal sensation and strengthens external sphincter contraction

Biofeedback training is a component of physical therapy that requires intact sensory and motor nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the purpose of mild electrical stimulation in fecal incontinence treatment?

A

Targets communication problems between the brain and pelvic floor muscles

This treatment can improve quality of life and sphincter control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is dextranomer/hyaluronic acid gel (Solesta) used for?

A

To treat fecal incontinence by injecting into the anal canal

It builds up tissue in the anal area, narrowing the canal and improving muscle closure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

When is surgery indicated for fecal incontinence?

A

When conservative treatments fail, in cases of full-thickness prolapse, or for anal sphincter repair

A colostomy may be necessary in some cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are common triggers for diarrhea that should be reduced in the diet?

A
  • Caffeine
  • Artificial sweeteners
  • Dairy products
  • High gas-producing vegetables
  • Vegetables containing insoluble fiber

Examples of high gas-producing vegetables include broccoli, cabbage, and cauliflower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What should be assessed in patients with fecal incontinence?

A

Bowel patterns, current habits, stool consistency, volume, frequency, and symptoms

Assessment should also include any pain during defecation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is a common cause of anal sphincter weakness related to childbirth?

A

Childbirth injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Name a surgical procedure that can lead to anal sphincter weakness.

A

Anorectal surgery for hemorrhoids, fistula, fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

List two conditions that can cause inflammation leading to fecal incontinence.

A
  • IBD
  • Radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What type of problems can affect toileting ability in functional fecal incontinence?

A

Physical or mobility problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Name a neurological disease associated with fecal incontinence.

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is one congenital abnormality that can lead to fecal incontinence?

A

Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Fill in the blank: Chronic _______ can contribute to fecal incontinence.

A

constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

True or False: Stroke can be a cause of fecal incontinence.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What condition involves the denervation of pelvic muscles due to chronic straining?

A

Denervation of pelvic muscles from chronic straining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

List two common causes of fecal incontinence related to neurologic disease.

A
  • Brain tumor
  • Diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What pelvic floor dysfunction can lead to fecal incontinence?

A

Rectal prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Name a condition that can cause fecal impaction.

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What injury can lead to anal sphincter weakness apart from surgery?

A

Perineal trauma or pelvic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is a common complication of aging that affects fecal incontinence?

A

Frail older person who cannot get to the bathroom in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Fill in the blank: Internal sphincter _______ can cause fecal incontinence.

A

thinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Name a condition that can lead to fecal incontinence due to nerve damage.

A

Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What type of injury can lead to anal sphincter weakness from a medical procedure?

A

Anorectal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is a common cause of anal sphincter weakness related to childbirth?

A

Childbirth injury

Childbirth can lead to trauma affecting the anal sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Name a physical condition that can lead to functional incontinence.

A

Physical or mobility problems

Examples include a frail older person who cannot get to the bathroom in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are two inflammatory diseases that can cause fecal incontinence?

A
  • IBD
  • Radiation

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and radiation exposure can lead to gastrointestinal issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Which neurologic disease is characterized by brain lesions affecting bowel control?

A

Brain tumor

Brain tumors can disrupt normal neural pathways responsible for bowel control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What congenital abnormalities are associated with fecal incontinence?

A
  • Spina bifida
  • Myelomeningocele

These conditions can affect the spinal cord and surrounding structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What condition involves the weakening of the internal anal sphincter?

A

Internal sphincter thinning

This can occur due to various factors including aging and trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

List two causes of fecal incontinence related to pelvic floor dysfunction.

A
  • Fistula
  • Rectal prolapse

Both conditions can disrupt normal bowel function and control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

True or False: Chronic constipation can lead to fecal incontinence.

A

True

Chronic constipation can cause fecal impaction, leading to incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Fill in the blank: Neuropathy is a common cause of _______ incontinence.

A

fecal

Neuropathy can affect the nerves that control bowel function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Name a complication of fecal impaction.

A

Diarrhea

Fecal impaction can lead to overflow diarrhea, causing incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is a potential outcome of perineal trauma or pelvic fracture?

A

Anal sphincter weakness

Such injuries can compromise the integrity of the anal sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is a common cause of fecal incontinence in older adults?

A

Dementia

Cognitive decline can impair the ability to recognize the need to use the bathroom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

List three neurologic diseases that can result in fecal incontinence.

A
  • Diabetes
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Stroke

These conditions can disrupt normal bowel function through various mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What type of surgery may lead to anal sphincter weakness?

A

Anorectal surgery for hemorrhoids, fistula, fissures

Surgical interventions in this area can compromise sphincter function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Fill in the blank: Chronic straining can lead to denervation of _______ muscles.

A

pelvic

Chronic straining may result in muscle damage affecting bowel control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the Bristol Stool Scale used for?

A

To assess stool consistency

It provides a standardized way to describe the form of stool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What sensation might indicate issues with bowel evacuation?

A

Feeling of incomplete evacuation (tenesmus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is fecal incontinence associated with?

A

Incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD)

IAD results from chemical irritants in feces causing skin damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are common symptoms of IAD?

A
  • Redness
  • Skin loss
  • Rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Where is IAD typically located?

A
  • Perianal area
  • Perineal area
  • Buttocks
  • Upper thighs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is a recommended first step in bowel training?

A

Know the patient’s usual bowel pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the best time to schedule elimination for bowel training?

A

Within 30 minutes after breakfast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What medications can be administered to stimulate bowel evacuation?

A
  • Bisacodyl
  • Glycerin suppository
  • Small phosphate enema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is digital stimulation used for?

A

To stimulate the anorectal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is a stool management system?

A

A system that funnels liquid stool from the rectum into a containment system

Examples include Flexi-Seal, DigniCare, Actiflo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What should be avoided when managing fecal incontinence?

A

Using a rectal tube or urinary catheter as a stool catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is essential for maintaining perineal skin integrity?

A

Fecal containment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are options for skin cleansing in patients with fecal incontinence?

A
  • Hydrating skin cleansing foam
  • Incontinence clean-up cloths
  • Baby wipes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What should be avoided in skin care products for sensitive skin?

A

Products that contain alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is a common emotional factor that can contribute to constipation?

A

Anxiety, depression, and stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What defines constipation?

A

Fewer than 3 stools per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are common risk factors for chronic constipation?

A
  • Low-fiber diet
  • Decreased physical activity
  • Ignoring the defecation urge
192
Q

What can prolonged retention of feces lead to?

A

Drying of stool due to water absorption

193
Q

What is cathartic colon syndrome?

A

A condition in which the colon becomes dilated and atonic due to chronic laxative use

195
Q

What is the clinical presentation of constipation?

A

Varies from mild discomfort to severe events mimicking an ‘acute abdomen’.

May include absent or hard, dry stools, abdominal distention, bloating, increased flatus, and increased rectal pressure.

196
Q

What are hemorrhoids a common complication of?

A

Chronic constipation.

Result from venous engorgement caused by repeated Valsalva maneuvers and venous compression from hard, impacted stool.

197
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

A

A technique where the patient inspires deeply and holds the breath while contracting abdominal muscles and bearing down.

Increases intraabdominal and intrathoracic pressures, reducing venous return to the heart.

198
Q

What serious outcomes can the Valsalva maneuver have for patients?

A

May be fatal for patients with heart failure, cerebral edema, hypertension, and coronary artery disease.

Can lead to a transient drop in arterial pressure followed by a sudden increase when the patient relaxes.

199
Q

What complications may arise from chronic constipation?

A

Rectal mucosal ulcers, fissures, and diverticulosis.

Colonic perforation can occur in cases of obstipation or fecal impaction.

200
Q

What are the signs of colonic perforation?

A

Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, and a high WBC count.

Perforation is life-threatening.

201
Q

How is constipation typically diagnosed?

A

Based on history and physical assessment, including abdominal assessment, inspection of the perianal and rectal region, and digital rectal examination (DRE).

Concerning signs include sudden changes in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, iron deficiency anemia, weight loss, significant abdominal pain, and palpable mass.

202
Q

What diagnostic tests may be needed if concerning signs are present?

A

Abdominal x-rays, barium enema, colonoscopy, or sigmoidoscopy.

Tests are necessary to rule out serious diseases like colorectal cancer (CRC).

203
Q

What interprofessional care strategies can prevent constipation?

A

Increasing fiber intake, fluid intake, and exercise.

Lifestyle modifications are key to prevention.

204
Q

What are the options for treating constipation?

A

Laxatives and enemas.

Each class of laxative works differently based on the severity and duration of constipation.

205
Q

What type of laxatives can prevent constipation?

A

Daily bulk-forming laxatives (e.g., psyllium).

They work like dietary fiber and do not cause dependence.

206
Q

What is the next recommended treatment for chronic constipation if diet and lifestyle modifications do not work?

A

Osmotic laxatives.

Stimulant laxatives are for patients who do not respond to osmotic laxatives.

207
Q

What precautions should be taken when using enemas?

A

Must be used cautiously, especially those containing sodium phosphate and magnesium.

Can cause electrolyte imbalances in older adults and patients with heart and kidney problems.

208
Q

What therapies target constipation from opioid use?

A

Peripherally acting opioid receptor antagonists (methylnaltrexone, naldemedine, naloxegol).

These do not block the analgesic effects of opioids.

210
Q

What type of drugs are associated with constipation?

A

Cardiovascular, Central nervous system, GI, Other

This includes various drug classifications that can lead to constipation as a side effect.

211
Q

Name two categories of cardiovascular drugs associated with constipation.

A
  • Antihypertensives (B-adrenergic blockers, calcium channel blockers)
  • Furosemide

These drugs can affect bowel motility and lead to constipation.

212
Q

Which type of hypolipidemic drugs can cause constipation?

A
  • Cholestyramine
  • Colestipol
  • Statins

These medications help lower cholesterol levels but may also contribute to constipation.

213
Q

What are some antidepressants that are associated with constipation?

A
  • Tricyclics
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

These classes of antidepressants can have gastrointestinal side effects, including constipation.

214
Q

List two antiepileptics that may lead to constipation.

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Phenytoin
  • Clonazepam

Antiepileptic drugs can impact gut motility and contribute to constipation.

215
Q

Which antipsychotic medications are linked to constipation?

A
  • Butyrophenones
  • Phenothiazines
  • Barbiturates

These medications are used to treat psychiatric disorders and can have gastrointestinal side effects.

216
Q

What class of drugs do benzodiazepines belong to regarding constipation?

A

Central nervous system drugs

Benzodiazepines can cause sedation and may also contribute to reduced bowel activity.

217
Q

Which antacids are known to cause constipation?

A
  • Antacids containing aluminum
  • Antacids containing calcium

These antacids can neutralize stomach acid but may have a constipating effect.

218
Q

Name two types of supplements that can lead to constipation.

A
  • Bismuth
  • Calcium
  • Iron

These supplements are often taken for various health benefits but can affect bowel movements.

219
Q

What type of analgesics are associated with constipation?

A

Opiates and derivatives

These pain relievers are well-known for causing constipation as a common side effect.

220
Q

Which antitussives may cause constipation?

A
  • Codeine
  • Dextromethorphan

These cough suppressants can have a constipating effect as they act on the central nervous system.

222
Q

What are some colonic disorders that can cause constipation?

A
  • Cancer
  • Diverticular disease
  • IBD
  • Intestinal stenosis
  • Intussusception
  • Luminal or extraluminal obstructing lesions
  • Prolapse
  • Rectocele

Colonic disorders are significant contributors to constipation and involve various structural or functional abnormalities of the colon.

223
Q

Name a systemic disorder associated with collagen vascular disease that can lead to constipation.

A
  • Amyloidosis
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)

Collagen vascular diseases can impact gastrointestinal motility and contribute to constipation.

224
Q

List metabolic/endocrine disorders that may cause constipation.

A
  • Chronic renal failure
  • Diabetes
  • Hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Pregnancy

Metabolic and endocrine disorders can disrupt normal bowel function, leading to constipation.

225
Q

Which neurologic disorder is associated with constipation due to autonomic neuropathy?

A

Diabetes

Autonomic neuropathy from diabetes can impair bowel motility and contribute to constipation.

226
Q

What is Hirschsprung megacolon?

A

A congenital condition causing bowel obstruction due to a lack of nerve cells in the colon

This condition can lead to severe constipation in affected individuals.

227
Q

True or False: Parkinson disease is a neurologic disorder that can lead to constipation.

A

True

Parkinson disease can affect gastrointestinal motility and contribute to constipation.

228
Q

Fill in the blank: Chronic renal failure can lead to _______.

A

constipation

Chronic renal failure can cause various metabolic changes that affect bowel function.

229
Q

Name two neurologic disorders that are associated with constipation.

A
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Stroke

Neurologic disorders can disrupt the normal functioning of the gastrointestinal system, leading to constipation.

231
Q

What is the mechanism of action for bulk forming laxatives?

A

Absorbs water, increases bulk, stimulating peristalsis

Action usually occurs within 24 hours.

232
Q

Indications for bulk forming laxatives include:

A
  • Acute constipation
  • Chronic constipation
  • IBS
  • Diverticulosis

Examples include methylcellulose (Citrucel) and psyllium (Metamucil).

233
Q

What is the primary action of emollients?

A

Lubricate intestinal tract and soften feces

Action: Softeners in 72 hours, lubricants in 8 hours.

234
Q

What do prosecretory drugs do?

A

Increase intestinal fluid secretion, speeding colonic transit

Action usually occurs within 24 hours.

235
Q

What is the action of saline and osmotic solutions?

A

Cause retention of fluid in intestinal lumen, reducing stool consistency and increasing volume

Action occurs within 15 minutes to 3 hours.

236
Q

How do stimulant laxatives work?

A

Increase peristalsis and speed colonic transit by irritating colon wall

Action usually occurs within 12 hours.

237
Q

Indications for stimulant laxatives include:

A
  • Acute constipation
  • Chronic constipation
  • Fecal impaction
  • Anorectal conditions
  • Chronic idiopathic constipation
  • IBS-C (women only)

Common agents include anthraquinones (cascara sagrada, senna) and bisacodyl (Dulcolax).

238
Q

What are nursing considerations for laxative use?

A
  • Do not use in patients with abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting
  • Must be taken with fluids (≥8 oz)
  • Can block absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

May increase bleeding risk in patients on anticoagulants.

239
Q

What is a potential side effect of stimulant laxatives?

A

Cause melanosis coli (brown or black pigmentation of colon)

Most widely abused laxatives; should not be used in patients with impaction or obstipation.

240
Q

Fill in the blank: Emollients do not affect _______.

A

[peristalsis]

241
Q

True or False: Saline and osmotic solutions can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances in older adults.

A

True

Overuse in those with renal failure can exacerbate this risk.

242
Q

What is a common example of a lubricant laxative?

A

Mineral oil (Fleet Mineral Oil Enema)

Used to soften hard stools.

243
Q

What is the action time for stimulant laxatives?

A

Usually within 12 hours

They work by stimulating the enteric nerves.

244
Q

What can be a result of overusing magnesium or sodium phosphates?

A

Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

Particularly concerning in older adults or those with renal failure.

245
Q

What is the action time for prosecretory drugs?

A

Usually within 24 hours

247
Q

What condition may help patients who have constipation due to uncoordinated contraction of the anal sphincter?

A

Anismus

Anismus refers to the inability to relax the anal sphincter during bowel movements.

248
Q

What might a patient with severe constipation related to bowel motility or mechanical disorders require?

A

More intense treatment

This may include procedures like colostomy, ileostomy, or continent fecal diversion.

249
Q

What dietary component is key in preventing and treating constipation?

A

Fiber

Fiber is found in fruits, vegetables, and grains.

250
Q

Which foods are especially effective in preventing and treating constipation?

A

Wheat bran and prunes

Whole wheat and bran are high in insoluble fiber.

251
Q

How does fiber help alleviate constipation?

A

By adding to stool bulk and attracting water

Larger, bulkier stools move through the colon more quickly.

252
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake for preventing constipation?

A

2 L/day

This may be contraindicated in patients with heart disease or renal failure.

253
Q

What initial effect may increasing fiber intake have on patients?

A

Increased gas production

This effect decreases over several days as the body adjusts.

254
Q

What should be assessed to manage a patient’s constipation?

A

Usual defecation patterns and habits

Assessment should include onset, duration, stool shape, consistency, and difficulty with evacuation.

255
Q

What should be taught to patients about managing constipation?

A

Role of diet, adequate fluid intake, and regular exercise

Emphasizing a high-fiber diet is crucial.

256
Q

What should be stressed to patients regarding laxatives and enemas?

A

Use them as ordered

Proper use of laxatives and enemas is part of effective constipation management.

257
Q

Fill in the blank: Increasing fiber intake may initially increase _______ production.

A

gas

This is due to fermentation in the colon.

259
Q

What should patients be taught regarding defecation?

A

Establish a regular time to defecate and not suppress the urge to defecate.

Regularity in defecation can help prevent constipation and promote bowel health.

260
Q

What position facilitates easier defecation?

A

Sitting on a commode with knees higher than hips.

This position allows gravity to aid the process and straightens the angle between the anal canal and rectum.

261
Q

What is the purpose of using a footstool in front of the toilet?

A

To promote flexion of the hips.

Flexed hips facilitate the defecation process.

262
Q

Why is it challenging to defecate while sitting on a bedpan?

A

The sitting position does not allow gravity to assist effectively.

Bedpans can create discomfort and may not be conducive to natural bowel movements.

263
Q

What should be done for a patient in bed to facilitate defecation?

A

Raise the head of the bed as high as the patient can tolerate.

This position can help mimic a sitting posture, which is beneficial for bowel movements.

264
Q

What factors can cause embarrassment during defecation?

A

Sights, odors, and sounds of defecation.

Providing privacy and using odor eliminators can help alleviate this embarrassment.

265
Q

What is recommended to maintain abdominal muscle tone?

A

Prompt patients to contract abdominal muscles several times a day.

Exercises like sit-ups and straight-leg raises can also improve muscle tone.

266
Q

What should be discussed with patients who have rigid beliefs about bowel function?

A

Concerns about bowel function and the adverse consequences of overuse of laxatives and enemas.

Providing accurate information can help address misconceptions.

267
Q

What is acute abdominal pain?

A

Pain of recent onset that may signal a life-threatening problem.

Immediate attention is required for acute abdominal pain.

268
Q

What are common causes of acute abdominal pain?

A

Damage to organs leading to inflammation, infection, obstruction, bleeding, and perforation.

Each of these causes can lead to urgent medical conditions.

269
Q

What does perforation of the GI tract result in?

A

Irritation of the peritoneum and peritonitis.

This condition can lead to severe complications and requires prompt medical intervention.

270
Q

What can cause hypovolemic shock in the context of acute abdominal pain?

A

Bleeding or obstruction and peritonitis.

These conditions can lead to significant fluid loss from the vascular space.

271
Q

What is the most common symptom of an acute abdominal problem?

A

Pain.

Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence, fatigue, fever, rebound tenderness, and bloating.

272
Q

What is the first step in diagnosing acute abdominal pain?

A

Complete history and physical assessment.

Gathering detailed information about the pain is crucial for accurate diagnosis.

273
Q

Fill in the blank: The irritation of the peritoneum is referred to as _______.

A

peritonitis.

Peritonitis can result from perforation of the GI tract and is a serious condition.

275
Q

What are some important health history factors to consider for constipation?

A

Colorectal disease, neurologic problems, bowel obstruction, environmental changes, cancer, IBD, diabetes

IBD stands for Inflammatory Bowel Disease.

276
Q

What are some medications that may be relevant to constipation?

A

Refer to Table 47.7 for specific medications

Table 47.7 is not provided here but typically includes various medications that can affect bowel function.

277
Q

What health perception issues might patients with constipation have?

A

Chronic laxative or enema use, rigid beliefs about bowel function, malaise

These perceptions can significantly impact a patient’s management of constipation.

278
Q

What nutritional changes may be relevant in assessing constipation?

A

Changes in diet or mealtime, fiber and fluid intake, anorexia, nausea

Adequate fiber and fluid intake are crucial for preventing constipation.

279
Q

What elimination changes are indicative of constipation?

A

Change in usual bowel patterns, hard stool, decrease in stool frequency and amount, flatus, abdominal distention, straining, tenesmus, rectal pressure, fecal incontinence (if impacted)

Tenesmus refers to the feeling of incomplete bowel evacuation.

280
Q

How might a patient’s activity-exercise level relate to constipation?

A

Daily activity routine, immobility, sedentary lifestyle

Increased physical activity is often recommended to alleviate constipation.

281
Q

What cognitive-perceptual symptoms might be present in patients with constipation?

A

Dizziness, headache, anorectal pain, abdominal pain on defecation

These symptoms can contribute to the patient’s overall discomfort and distress.

282
Q

What coping-stress tolerance factors may affect constipation?

A

Acute or chronic stress

Stress can influence bowel habits and exacerbate constipation.

283
Q

What objective data might indicate constipation?

A

Lethargy, anorectal fissures, hemorrhoids, abscesses, abdominal distention, hypoactive or absent bowel sounds, palpable abdominal mass, fecal impaction, small hard dry stool, stool with blood

Each of these signs can provide important clues to the patient’s condition.

284
Q

What diagnostic findings may suggest constipation?

A

Guaiac-positive stools, abdominal x-ray showing stool in lower colon

Guaiac-positive stools indicate the presence of blood in the stool, which may require further investigation.

286
Q

What is a common posture observed with peritoneal irritation?

A

Fetal posture

This is often seen in conditions like appendicitis.

287
Q

Which symptoms indicate the need for monitoring in patients with kidney stones or gallstones?

A

Restlessness and inability to find a comfortable position

288
Q

What physical assessments are performed on patients with acute abdominal pain?

A

Assessment of the abdomen, rectum, and pelvis

289
Q

What tests are commonly done for patients with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Complete blood count (CBC)
  • Urinalysis
  • Abdominal x-ray
  • ECG
  • Ultrasound or CT scan
290
Q

What additional test might be required for women of childbearing age with acute abdominal pain?

A

Pregnancy test

291
Q

What is the primary goal of emergency management for acute abdominal pain?

A

Identify and treat the cause and monitor for complications

292
Q

Why should pain medications be used cautiously in patients with non-traumatic acute abdominal pain?

A

To provide pain relief without interfering with diagnostic accuracy

293
Q

What surgical procedures may be performed if the cause of acute abdominal pain is found?

A
  • Diagnostic laparoscopy
  • Laparotomy
294
Q

What factors are assessed when monitoring a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Vital signs
  • Intake and output
  • Skin color and temperature
  • Peripheral pulse strength
295
Q

What does increased pulse and decreasing BP indicate in the context of acute abdominal pain?

A

Impending shock

296
Q

What does a fever in a patient with acute abdominal pain suggest?

A

An inflammatory or infectious process

297
Q

What clinical problems are associated with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Pain
  • Fluid imbalance
  • Risk for infection
298
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Relief of abdominal pain
  • Resolution of inflammation
  • Freedom from complications
  • Normal nutrition status
299
Q

What general care measures should be implemented for patients with acute abdominal pain?

A

Managing fluid and electrolyte imbalances, pain, and anxiety

300
Q

What should be assessed at regular intervals in patients with acute abdominal pain?

A

Quality and intensity of pain

301
Q

Fill in the blank: Patients with acute abdominal pain may experience _______ guarding and rigidity.

A

involuntary

302
Q

True or False: A laparotomy is performed when laparoscopic techniques are adequate.

303
Q

What information can be gained from assessing the abdomen in a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Distention
  • Masses
  • Abnormal pulsation
  • Symmetry
  • Hernias
  • Rashes
  • Scars
  • Pigmentation changes
305
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of fiber to manage constipation?

A

20 to 30 g of fiber per day

Gradually increase fiber intake over 1 to 2 weeks to promote stool evacuation.

306
Q

What foods are high in fiber?

A
  • Raw vegetables and fruits
  • Beans
  • Breakfast cereals (All-Bran, oatmeal)

Eating prunes or drinking prune juice daily can also stimulate defecation.

307
Q

What is the role of fluids in managing constipation?

A

Fluid softens hard stools; drink 2 L/day

Recommended fluids include water and fruit juices, while caffeinated beverages should be avoided.

308
Q

How often should one exercise to help manage constipation?

A

At least 3 times per week

Activities can include walking, swimming, or biking, and abdominal exercises can strengthen muscles.

309
Q

What is the best time to establish a regular schedule for defecation?

A

First thing in the morning or after the first meal of the day

Many people often feel the urge to defecate during these times.

310
Q

True or False: It is advisable to delay defecation.

A

False

Delaying defecation can lead to hard stools and decreased urge to go.

311
Q

Why is it important to record bowel elimination patterns?

A

To identify problems early

Regular monitoring helps in maintaining bowel health.

312
Q

What should be the approach towards the use of laxatives and enemas?

A

Use as ordered; avoid overuse

Overuse can lead to dependence and inability to have a bowel movement without them.

314
Q

What are common gynecologic problems that can cause acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
  • Ruptured ovarian cyst

These conditions are critical to consider during assessment for acute abdominal pain.

315
Q

Name three infectious diseases associated with acute abdominal pain.

A
  • Escherichia coli 0157:H7
  • Giardia
  • Salmonella

These pathogens can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms and abdominal discomfort.

316
Q

List at least three inflammatory conditions that can cause acute abdominal pain.

A
  • Appendicitis
  • Cholecystitis
  • Diverticulitis
  • Gastritis
  • IBD
  • Pancreatitis
  • Pyelonephritis

Inflammation of abdominal organs is a significant cause of acute pain.

317
Q

What vascular problems can lead to acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Mesenteric vascular occlusion
  • Ruptured aortic aneurysm

Vascular issues can result in severe abdominal pain and require immediate attention.

318
Q

What are some other causes of acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Obstruction or perforation of abdominal organ
  • GI bleeding or ischemia
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Trauma

These conditions may mimic abdominal pain and should not be overlooked.

319
Q

What types of abdominal pain might a patient experience?

A
  • Diffuse
  • Localized
  • Dull
  • Burning
  • Sharp

Understanding the characteristics of pain can aid in diagnosis.

320
Q

What are some assessment findings related to acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Abdominal distention
  • Abdominal rigidity
  • Diarrhea
  • Hematemesis
  • Melena
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Rebound tenderness

These findings provide critical information for assessment.

321
Q

What are signs of hypovolemic shock in a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Low blood pressure
  • Cool, clammy skin
  • Decreased level of consciousness
  • Tachycardia
  • Low urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/h)

Recognizing hypovolemic shock is essential for timely intervention.

322
Q

What initial interventions should be taken for a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Ensure patent airway
  • Apply oxygen via nasal cannula or nonrebreather mask
  • Establish IV access with large-bore catheter and infuse warm normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution
  • Obtain blood for CBC and electrolyte levels
  • Obtain blood for amylase level, pregnancy tests, clotting studies, and type and crossmatch as appropriate
  • Insert indwelling urinary catheter
  • Obtain urinalysis
  • Insert NG tube as needed

These steps are crucial for stabilization and further evaluation.

323
Q

What ongoing monitoring should be conducted for a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Monitor vital signs
  • Monitor level of consciousness
  • Monitor oxygen saturation
  • Monitor intake/output
  • Obtain pain assessment
  • Assess amount and character of emesis
  • Anticipate surgical intervention
  • Keep patient NPO

Continuous monitoring helps in detecting any changes in the patient’s condition.

325
Q

What should be provided to a patient experiencing ingestion problems?

A

Medication and other comfort measures

Includes maintaining a calm environment and providing information to decrease anxiety.

326
Q

What are key indicators of hypovolemic shock?

A

Vital signs, intake and output, level of consciousness

Ongoing assessments of these indicators are crucial.

327
Q

What does postoperative care depend on?

A

The type of surgery performed

Refer to specific nursing care plans for detailed guidance.

328
Q

After surgery, what color should the drainage from an NG tube typically be after 12 hours?

A

Light yellowish-brown or greenish tinge

Dark brown to dark red may indicate fresh blood.

329
Q

What does ‘coffee-grounds’ granules in NG tube drainage indicate?

A

Blood has been changed by acidic gastric secretions

This indicates the presence of digested blood.

330
Q

What common conditions may cause nausea and vomiting after a laparotomy?

A

Surgery, decreased peristalsis, pain medications

Antiemetics like ondansetron may be administered.

331
Q

What can lead to abdominal distention and gas pains post-surgery?

A

Swallowed air, reduced peristalsis, manipulation of abdominal organs, anesthesia

Early ambulation helps alleviate these symptoms.

332
Q

What should a patient start on after surgery regarding diet?

A

Clear liquids

Gradually progresses to a regular diet if tolerated.

333
Q

What are patients often restricted from lifting after surgery?

A

Anything heavier than a few pounds

This is to prevent complications during recovery.

334
Q

What are the expected outcomes for a patient with acute abdominal pain?

A
  • Resolution of the cause of acute abdominal pain
  • Relief of abdominal pain and discomfort
335
Q

What are common causes of abdominal injuries?

A
  • Blunt trauma
  • Penetrating injuries
336
Q

What can result from injuries to solid organs in the abdomen?

A

Profuse bleeding leading to hypovolemic shock

Examples include liver and spleen injuries.

337
Q

What risks are associated with hollow organ injuries?

A

Peritonitis

This occurs when contents spill into the peritoneal cavity.

338
Q

What is abdominal compartment syndrome?

A

Excessively high pressure in the abdomen

It can lead to respiratory failure and renal failure.

339
Q

What are classic manifestations of abdominal trauma?

A
  • Guarding and splinting of the abdominal wall
  • Hard, distended abdomen
  • Decreased or absent bowel sounds
  • Abrasions or bruising
  • Abdominal pain
  • Hematemesis or hematuria
  • Signs of hypovolemic shock
340
Q

What does bruising around the umbilicus indicate?

A

Cullen sign, suggesting retroperitoneal hemorrhage

Bruising around the flanks is known as Grey Turner sign.

341
Q

What may be heard in the chest if the diaphragm ruptures?

A

Bowel sounds

This is an abnormal finding and indicates a serious injury.

342
Q

What does auscultation of bruits indicate?

A

Arterial damage

This could signify serious vascular injury.

344
Q

What are the baseline laboratory tests included in diagnostic studies for abdominal trauma?

A

CBC and urinalysis

These tests help assess the patient’s condition and detect potential issues.

345
Q

Why might a patient have normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels even when bleeding?

A

Fluids are lost at the same rate as red blood cells

This can mask the severity of blood loss initially.

346
Q

What laboratory work is done in anticipation of possible blood transfusions?

A

Type and crossmatch

This is crucial for preparing for potential transfusions.

347
Q

What are the most common diagnostic methods for abdominal trauma?

A

Abdominal CT scan and focused abdominal ultrasound

The patient must be stable to undergo a CT scan.

348
Q

What is diagnostic peritoneal lavage used for?

A

To detect blood, bile, intestinal contents, and urine in the peritoneal cavity

This procedure helps assess internal injuries.

349
Q

What should be administered if a patient is hypotensive due to abdominal trauma?

A

Volume expanders or blood

This is part of emergency management.

350
Q

What is the purpose of an NG tube in the management of abdominal trauma?

A

To decompress the stomach and prevent aspiration

This is important for maintaining airway safety.

351
Q

What factors influence the decision to perform surgery in abdominal trauma cases?

A

Clinical findings, diagnostic test results, and patient response to conservative management

These factors help determine the most appropriate intervention.

352
Q

What is the characteristic nature of chronic abdominal pain?

A

Dull, aching, or diffuse

This type of pain can arise from various abdominal structures.

353
Q

What are common causes of chronic abdominal pain?

A
  • Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Hepatitis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Adhesions
  • Vascular insufficiency

Identifying the cause is crucial for treatment.

354
Q

What initial steps are taken to diagnose chronic abdominal pain?

A

A thorough history and description of pain characteristics

This includes assessing severity, location, duration, and onset.

355
Q

What diagnostic tests may be performed for chronic abdominal pain?

A
  • Endoscopy
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • Laparoscopy
  • Barium studies

These tests help visualize and assess internal conditions.

356
Q

What characterizes irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

A

Chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel patterns

Symptoms may include diarrhea, constipation, or a mix of both.

357
Q

How much more often does IBS affect women compared to men?

A

2 to 2.5 times more often

This indicates a significant gender disparity in prevalence.

358
Q

What are potential psychological stressors associated with IBS?

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Panic disorders
  • Posttraumatic stress disorder

These stressors can contribute to the development and exacerbation of IBS.

359
Q

What dietary intolerances may contribute to IBS symptoms?

A
  • Gluten
  • Fermentable oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides and polyols (FODMAPs)

Identifying and managing these intolerances can help alleviate symptoms.

360
Q

What are examples of oligosaccharides that may affect IBS?

A
  • Wheat and rye products
  • Some fruits and vegetables
  • Onions
  • Garlic
  • Legumes
  • Nuts

These foods can trigger symptoms in sensitive individuals.

361
Q

What is lactose and where is it found?

A

A disaccharide found in milk and milk products

Lactose intolerance can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms.

362
Q

What is fructose and where is it commonly found?

A

A monosaccharide found in honey, apples, pears, and high-fructose corn syrup

Fructose can also contribute to gastrointestinal discomfort.

363
Q

What are polyols and where can they be found?

A

Found in apples, pears, stone fruits, cauliflower, mushrooms, and artificial sweeteners like sorbitol

These compounds can exacerbate symptoms for some individuals with IBS.

365
Q

What are the causes of blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Causes include:
* Assault with a blunt object
* Crush injury
* Explosions
* Falls
* Motor vehicle collisions
* Pedestrian event

Blunt trauma is often associated with non-penetrating injuries.

366
Q

What are common assessment findings for abdominal trauma?

A

Common findings include:
* Abdominal distention
* Abdominal pain with palpation
* Abdominal rigidity
* Absent or 1 bowel sounds
* Hematemesis
* Hematuria
* Nausea and vomiting

These findings help in diagnosing the severity and type of abdominal injury.

367
Q

What are signs of hypovolemic shock in abdominal trauma patients?

A

Signs include:
* Decreased blood pressure
* Increased heart rate
* Decreased level of consciousness
* Tachypnea

Hypovolemic shock indicates significant blood loss and requires immediate intervention.

368
Q

What surface findings might indicate abdominal trauma?

A

Surface findings may include:
* Abrasions and bruising on the abdominal wall, flank, or peritoneum
* Impaled object
* Open wounds: lacerations, eviscerations, puncture wounds, gunshot wounds

These findings can help to assess the extent of injury.

369
Q

What is the initial intervention for an unresponsive patient with abdominal trauma?

A

Assess circulation, airway, and breathing

This is a critical step in emergency management.

370
Q

What should be done if a patient with abdominal trauma is responsive?

A

Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation

Continuous monitoring is essential to ensure patient stability.

371
Q

What is the purpose of establishing IV access in abdominal trauma management?

A

To infuse normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution

IV access is crucial for fluid resuscitation.

372
Q

What steps should be taken regarding external bleeding in abdominal trauma?

A

Control external bleeding with:
* Direct pressure
* Sterile pressure dressing

Immediate control of bleeding is vital to prevent shock.

373
Q

What should be done with an impaled object in an abdominal trauma patient?

A

Stabilize impaled objects with bulky dressing—do not remove

Removing an impaled object can cause further injury.

374
Q

What should be covered with a sterile saline dressing in abdominal trauma?

A

Protruding organs or tissue

This helps to prevent contamination and further injury.

375
Q

When should an indwelling urinary catheter be inserted in abdominal trauma patients?

A

If there is no blood at the meatus, pelvic fracture, or boggy prostate

This is to assess urinary function and potential injuries.

376
Q

What is the purpose of ongoing monitoring in abdominal trauma management?

A

To monitor vital signs, level of consciousness, O2 saturation, and urine output

Continuous monitoring is essential for detecting changes in the patient’s condition.

377
Q

How can patient warmth be maintained during ongoing monitoring?

A

Using:
* Blankets
* Warm IV fluids
* Warm humidified O2

Maintaining warmth is critical in trauma care to prevent hypothermia.

379
Q

What are the Rome IV criteria for diagnosing IBS?

A

Presence of abdominal pain and/or discomfort at least 1 day per week for 3 months, associated with 2 or more of the following: related to defecation, change in stool frequency, change in stool form.

380
Q

What are the categories of IBS based on stool patterns?

A
  • IBS with constipation (IBS-C)
  • IBS with diarrhea (IBS-D)
  • IBS mixed
  • IBS unsubtyped
381
Q

What are common symptoms of IBS?

A
  • Abdominal distention
  • Nausea
  • Flatulence
  • Bloating
  • Urgency
  • Mucus in stool
  • Sensation of incomplete evacuation
382
Q

What non-GI symptoms may be associated with IBS?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Headache
  • Sleep problems
383
Q

What is key to diagnosing IBS?

A

A thorough history and physical assessment.

384
Q

What factors should be assessed when diagnosing IBS?

A
  • Symptoms description
  • Health history (including psychosocial factors)
  • Family history
  • Drug and diet history
  • Impact of symptoms on daily activities
385
Q

What diagnostic tests are used in IBS?

A

To rule out other disorders such as CRC, IBD, endometriosis, and malabsorption disorders.

386
Q

What are the main treatment approaches for IBS?

A
  • Psychologic support
  • Diet and lifestyle changes
  • Drugs to regulate stool output and reduce discomfort
387
Q

What is the benefit of keeping a diary for IBS patients?

A

To help identify factors that trigger IBS symptoms.

388
Q

What dietary approach may help IBS patients?

A

Following a low-FODMAP diet.

389
Q

What are high-FODMAP foods that should be avoided?

A
  • Garlic
  • Onions
  • Wheat
  • Dairy
390
Q

What is recommended for patients with IBS-C?

A

A high-fiber diet to produce soft, painless bowel movements.

391
Q

What are common drug therapies for IBS?

A
  • Antidepressants
  • Antispasmodic agents (e.g., hyoscyamine, dicyclomine)
  • Rifaximin
  • Eluxadoline
  • Alosetron
392
Q

What is the mechanism of action of eluxadoline?

A

Decreases colonic contractions to reduce diarrhea and pain.

393
Q

What is a significant side effect of alosetron?

A

Severe constipation and ischemic colitis.

394
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

Inflammation of the appendix.

395
Q

What is the most common reason for emergency abdominal surgery?

A

Appendicitis.

396
Q

What is the common age range for developing appendicitis?

A

10 to 30 years of age.

397
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

Luminal obstruction leading to distention, venous engorgement, and accumulation of mucus and bacteria.

398
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of appendicitis?

A
  • Dull periumbilical pain
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Persistent pain shifting to right lower quadrant
399
Q

What diagnostic signs may indicate appendicitis?

A
  • Rigidity
  • Rebound tenderness
  • Muscle guarding
  • Positive psoas sign
  • Positive obturator sign
  • Positive Rovsing sign
400
Q

What is the typical initial pain location in appendicitis?

A

Dull periumbilical pain.

401
Q

What type of fever may develop in appendicitis?

A

Low-grade fever.

402
Q

What should patients with IBS-C consider for treatment?

A

Linaclotide (Linzess) if laxative therapy is ineffective.

403
Q

What is a contraindication for linaclotide?

A

History of mechanical obstruction or prior bowel surgery.

405
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic procedure for appendicitis?

A

CT scan

Ultrasound and MRI are also options.

406
Q

What is the standard treatment for appendicitis?

A

Immediate appendectomy

This is the surgical removal of the appendix.

407
Q

What should be started before surgery for appendicitis?

A

Antibiotics and fluid resuscitation

These help prepare the patient for surgery.

408
Q

What is the purpose of IV fluids and antibiotic therapy before appendectomy in case of a ruptured appendix?

A

To prevent dehydration and sepsis

Especially important if there is evidence of peritonitis or an abscess.

409
Q

What are the key nursing management focuses for a patient with suspected appendicitis?

A

Preventing fluid volume deficit, relieving pain, preventing complications

Ensure the stomach is empty in case surgery is needed.

410
Q

How long do patients typically stay in the hospital after an uncomplicated laparoscopic appendectomy?

A

24 hours

Ambulation begins a few hours after surgery.

411
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum

It may result from contamination of the peritoneal cavity.

412
Q

What are common causes of secondary peritonitis?

A
  • Ruptured appendix
  • Perforated ulcer
  • Diverticulitis
  • Trauma from gunshot or knife wounds

These lead to the release of contents into the peritoneal cavity.

413
Q

What is the most common symptom of peritonitis?

A

Severe, continuous abdominal pain

Tenderness over the involved area is a universal sign.

414
Q

What are signs of peritoneal irritation in peritonitis?

A
  • Rebound tenderness
  • Rigidity
  • Spasm

Patients may lie still and take shallow breaths due to pain.

415
Q

What complications can arise from peritonitis?

A
  • Hypovolemic shock
  • Sepsis
  • Intra-abdominal abscess formation
  • Paralytic ileus
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Peritonitis can be fatal if treatment is delayed.

416
Q

What diagnostic studies are conducted for peritonitis?

A
  • CBC for WBC count and hemo-concentration
  • Peritoneal aspiration
  • Abdominal x-ray
  • Ultrasound and CT scans
  • Peritoneoscopy

These help identify the cause and severity of the condition.

417
Q

What conservative treatment is provided for milder cases of peritonitis?

A
  • Antibiotics
  • NG suction
  • Analgesics
  • IV fluid administration

Surgery is indicated for severe cases to locate the cause of inflammation.

419
Q

Why is assessing the patient’s pain important in peritonitis?

A

It helps to determine the cause of peritonitis

Assessing pain location and quality can provide insights into the underlying issues contributing to peritonitis.

420
Q

What are some clinical problems associated with peritonitis?

A
  • Pain
  • Fluid imbalance
  • Impaired GI function
  • Risk for infection

These problems can complicate the patient’s condition and require careful management.

421
Q

What are the overall goals for a patient with peritonitis?

A
  • Resolution of inflammation
  • Relief of abdominal pain
  • Freedom from complications
  • Normal nutrition status

Achieving these goals is critical for the patient’s recovery.

422
Q

What is a key implementation step for managing a patient with peritonitis?

A

Establish IV access for fluid replacement and antibiotic therapy

IV fluids help replace lost fluids and antibiotics treat the infection.

423
Q

What positioning may increase comfort for a patient with peritonitis?

A

Knees flexed

This position can relieve abdominal tension and discomfort.

424
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

An inflammation of the mucosa of the stomach and small intestine

It often presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

425
Q

What are common features of acute gastroenteritis?

A
  • Sudden diarrhea
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Fever
  • Abdominal cramping

These symptoms can indicate the presence of gastroenteritis.

426
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Viruses

Norovirus is a leading cause of foodborne outbreaks of acute gastroenteritis.

427
Q

What should be encouraged to prevent dehydration in gastroenteritis?

A

Oral fluids containing glucose and electrolytes

These fluids help replace lost fluids and maintain electrolyte balance.

428
Q

What is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A

A chronic inflammation of the GI tract characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

IBD includes conditions such as Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

429
Q

How is IBD classified?

A
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Ulcerative colitis

The classification is based on clinical manifestations and the affected areas of the GI tract.

430
Q

What is the typical onset age for IBD?

A

Teenage years and early adulthood

IBD can also have a second peak in the 6th decade of life.

431
Q

What is the suspected etiology of IBD?

A

An autoimmune disease involving an immune reaction to the intestinal tract

The exact cause of IBD is still not fully understood.

433
Q

What does IBD stand for?

A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

IBD encompasses conditions like Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

434
Q

What type of response is associated with IBD?

A

Inappropriate or sustained immune response

This response is triggered by environmental and bacterial factors in genetically susceptible individuals.

435
Q

Where are the highest rates of IBD found?

A

Northern Hemisphere and industrialized nations

The incidence varies based on geographic location and racial or ethnic background.

436
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for developing IBD?

A

Family history

Many individuals with IBD have a family member who also has the condition.

437
Q

How do lifestyle factors influence IBD?

A

They increase susceptibility by changing the GI microbial flora

Factors include diet, smoking, and stress.

438
Q

What dietary factors are thought to contribute to IBD?

A

High intake of refined sugar, total fats, PUFA, and omega-6 fatty acids

Conversely, consuming more raw fruits, vegetables, omega-3-rich foods, and fiber decreases risk.

439
Q

Name some medications that increase the risk of IBD.

A

NSAIDs, antibiotics, and oral contraceptives

These medications can alter gut health and immune responses.

440
Q

What genetic link is associated with IBD?

A

IBD occurs more often in family members of affected individuals

This includes a higher incidence in monozygotic twins.

441
Q

How many genes associated with IBD have been identified?

A

Over 200 genes

These genes may contribute to different forms of IBD, such as Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

442
Q

Which major genes are related to Crohn’s disease?

A

NOD2, ATG16L1, IL23R, and IRGM

These genes are involved in immune system function.

443
Q

What is the pattern of inflammation in Crohn’s disease?

A

Can occur anywhere in the GI tract, often involves the distal ileum and proximal colon

It features skip lesions and inflammation through all layers of the bowel wall.

444
Q

What type of inflammation is characteristic of ulcerative colitis?

A

Mucosal layer inflammation in the colon and rectum

It typically begins in the rectum and moves continuously toward the cecum.

445
Q

True or False: Fistulas are common in ulcerative colitis.

A

False

Fistulas and abscesses are rare in UC since inflammation does not extend through all bowel wall layers.

446
Q

What are ‘skip’ lesions?

A

Segments of normal bowel between diseased portions

These are characteristic of Crohn’s disease.

447
Q

What complications can arise from Crohn’s disease?

A

Bowel obstruction, abscesses, and peritonitis

These complications occur due to deep inflammation and microscopic leaks.

449
Q

What is the usual age at onset for Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Teens to mid-30s; after 60

450
Q

What type of abdominal pain is commonly associated with Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Common, severe constant

451
Q

Is diarrhea common in Ulcerative Colitis?

452
Q

What is the incidence of malabsorption in Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Minimal incidence

453
Q

What is the usual age at onset for Crohn’s Disease?

A

Teens to mid-30s; after 60

454
Q

What type of abdominal pain is commonly associated with Crohn’s Disease?

A

Common, cramping

455
Q

Is diarrhea common in Crohn’s Disease?

456
Q

What is the incidence of fever during acute attacks in Ulcerative Colitis?

A

During acute attacks

457
Q

What is the incidence of rectal bleeding in Ulcerative Colitis?

458
Q

What is the incidence of tenesmus in Ulcerative Colitis?

459
Q

What is the weight loss incidence in Ulcerative Colitis?

460
Q

What is the weight loss incidence in Crohn’s Disease?

A

Common, may be severe

461
Q

Where does Ulcerative Colitis usually start?

A

Usually starts in rectum and spreads in a continuous pattern up the colon

462
Q

What is the pathologic depth of involvement in Ulcerative Colitis?

463
Q

What is the distribution pattern of inflammation in Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Continuous areas of inflammation

464
Q

Is small bowel involvement common in Ulcerative Colitis?

465
Q

Where can Crohn’s Disease occur along the GI tract?

A

Occurs anywhere along GI tract. Most common site is distal ileum

466
Q

What is the pathologic depth of involvement in Crohn’s Disease?

A

Entire thickness of bowel wall (transmural)

467
Q

What is a characteristic feature of Crohn’s Disease?

A

Healthy tissue interspersed with areas of inflammation (skip lesions)

468
Q

What is the incidence of cancer in Ulcerative Colitis after 10 years of disease?

A

Common (because of toxic megacolon)

469
Q

What is the incidence of C. difficile infection in Ulcerative Colitis?

470
Q

What complication is more common in Crohn’s Disease?

A

Perianal abscess and fistulas

471
Q

What is the incidence of strictures in Crohn’s Disease?

472
Q

What is a complication associated with Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Toxic megacolon

473
Q

What is the incidence of small intestinal cancer in Crohn’s Disease?

474
Q

What is the incidence of colorectal cancer (CRC) in Crohn’s Disease compared to Ulcerative Colitis?

A

T Incidence of CRC but less than with ulcerative colitis

475
Q

Is the incidence of complications in Ulcerative Colitis severe?

A

Common (because inflammation involves entire bowel wall)

476
Q

True or False: Malabsorption is common in Crohn’s Disease.