Chapter 42 Animal Development Flashcards

1
Q

What does housing refer to?

A

Place where embryo develops.

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2
Q

What does aiding and abetting the young called?

A

Feeding.

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3
Q

Can skin secretions be used for feeding?

A

Yes.

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4
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of embryonic development?

A

Cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis.

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5
Q

Where do the instructions for the development from embryo to organism come from?

A

Zygotes’ nucleus and the maternal cytoplasm.

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6
Q

What directs the first stages of development in the embryo?

A

Maternal cytoplasm in zygote.

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7
Q

What are the mRNA and proteins stored in cytoplasm that direct the first stages of development called?

A

Cystoplasmic determinants

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8
Q

When can polarity arise?

A

Unequal distribution of yolk.

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9
Q

What produces bilateral symmetry?

A

Unequal distribution of egg.

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10
Q

What are the 3 axis created by polarity?

A

Dorsal-ventral, anterior-posterior, and right-left.

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11
Q

What are 3 characteristics of animal pole?

A

Less yolk, faster cell division, and gives rise to surface structures and anterior part of body. (Easy to develop skin)

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12
Q

What are 3 characteristics of vegetal pole?

A

Slow division, gives rise to internal structure and posterior end of body, and more yolk.

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13
Q

What are the blastula cells called?

A

Blastomeres

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14
Q

What is the solid ball of cells during the cleavage called?

A

Morula.

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15
Q

Why doesn’t embryo size increase during cleavage?

A

Because the maternal cytoplasm content remains the same.

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16
Q

What is the human blastula called?

A

Blastocyst.

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17
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Rearrangement of cells in blastula to form the 3 germ layers.

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18
Q

At what stage of development is the body pattern established?

A

Gastrulation.

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19
Q

At what stage of development does the archenteron formed?

A

Gastrulation.

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20
Q

What is the archenteron lined with?

A

Endoderm.

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21
Q

What are the 6 mechanisms controlling development?

A

Mitotic divisions, cell movement, selective cell adhesion, induction, determination, and differentiation.

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22
Q

What is selective cell adhesion?

A

The phase where cells choose to break or make connections to other cells or ECM.

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23
Q

What are the 4 extraembryonic membranes?

A

Amnion, chorion, yolk sac, and allantois.

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24
Q

How is the yolk distributed in sea Urchin?

A

Evenly.

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25
Q

Does cleavage take place at the same rate in sea urchin?

A

Yes.

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26
Q

Where does invagination and gastrulation begin in sea urchin?

A

Flattened vegetal pole cells.

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27
Q

Determination is a product of what?

A

Induction

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28
Q

What triggers the primary mesenchyme to migrate into blastocoel in a sea urchin?

A

Inducation

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29
Q

Where does the mouth form during gastrulation in sea urchin?

A

Where archenteron touches the ectoderm.

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30
Q

Where do the secondary mesenchyme cells come from in sea urchin?

A

From the connection between archenteron to the ectoderm.

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31
Q

How is the yolk distribution in an amphibian development?

A

Uneven.

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32
Q

Where is the site for fertilization on a frog egg?

A

The grey side/ animal pole.

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33
Q

What color is the animal pole in an amphibian egg?

A

Grey (The dark side of humans)

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34
Q

How and where is the dorsal-ventral side established on a frog egg?

A

Rotation of pigment layer after fertilization. The dorsal side is the grey crescent.

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35
Q

Where does the 1st cleavage occur in from embryo?

A

Across the grey crescent.

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36
Q

How does a dorsal lip form?

A

When animal pole cells migrate to the grey crescent and create a depression.

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37
Q

Is gastrulation in frog symmetrical?

A

No

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38
Q

What is a major induction center in frog embryo?

A

Dorsal Lip.

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39
Q

What is a yolk plug?

A

Cells of vegetal half.

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40
Q

What is the first thin layer of cells that forms in bird embryo?

A

Blastodisk (disk=thin).

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41
Q

What 2 layers does the blastodisk get transformed into?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast.

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42
Q

What layer produces the 3 germ line cells in bird embryo?

A

Epiblast.

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43
Q

What kind of cell line does a hypoblast produce in bird embryo?

A

Germ line that lead to development of egg and sperm in embryo.

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44
Q

What is the difference between primitive groove and primitive streak?

A

Primitive streak is just a line when epiblast cells move towards middle of blastodisk. Primitive groove forms when the midline sinks.

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45
Q

What do the cells that move laterally from epiblast cells into blastocoel form in chick embryo?

A

Mesoderm.

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46
Q

What do the cells that move straight down from epiblast cells into blastocoel form in chick embryo?

A

Endoderm.

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47
Q

Epiblast cells that remain at the surface of embryo form what?

A

Ectoderm.

48
Q

When does a coelom form in mesoderm of chick embryo?

A

When the ectoderm and mesoderm twist into an ohm’s symbol shape.

49
Q

Is there an archenteron in chick embryo?

A

Yes, after the ohm’s symbol shape is fully established.

50
Q

How are the nutrients in the yolk absorbed by the embryo?

A

Through the absorption from the mesoderm and endoderm.

51
Q

Including the 6 mechanisms of development what is the 7th one which plays a factor in organogenesis?

A

Apoptosis.

52
Q

Does notochord cause induction?

A

Yes, neural plate doesn’t form without it.

53
Q

When does organogenesis begin in vertebrates?

A

Neurulation.

54
Q

From what primary germ layer does the neural tube form from?

A

Ectoderm

55
Q

What do neural crest cells go on to develop?

A

Major organ systems.

56
Q

What anatomical side does the primitive streak form from on birds’ embryo?

A

From the posterior-dorsal side to the anterior-dorsal side.

57
Q

What does mesoderm split into during organogenesis?

A

Somites (repeating structures).

58
Q

What do somites give rise to?

A

Vertebral columns, ribs, ribs muscles, and limbs.

59
Q

The loss of tail of adult frog demonstrates which mechanism of development?

A

Apoptosis.

60
Q

Human gestation is divided into how many trimesters?

A

3

61
Q

What nourished an embryo during human pregnancy?

A

Placenta

62
Q

When is an embryo called a fetus?

A

When major organ systems form 8 weeks.

63
Q

After how many weeks is a baby ready to be born?

A

40 weeks.

64
Q

What does partuition mean?

A

When mother is in labour. (Baby parts from moms body)

65
Q

What is the lining of the uterus wall called?

A

Endometrium.

66
Q

What layers does a human blastocyst consists of?

A

Trophoblast and inner cell mass.

67
Q

What two layers are in inner cell mass of human embryo?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast.

68
Q

What gives rise to the 3 germ layers in human embryo?

A

Epiblast

69
Q

What do trophoblast release to invaginate endometrium?

A

Proteases.

70
Q

What does the amnion form from in human embryo?

A

Epiblast

71
Q

What part of a human blastocyst becomes embryo?

A

Inner cell mass.

72
Q

What conducts blood between embryo and placenta?

A

Umbilical cord.

73
Q

What are chorionic villi?

A

Fingerlike extensions of chorion.

74
Q

What three cellular events need regulation during development?

A

Cell division, cell movement, and cell adhesion.

75
Q

What two factors have an impact on cell division?

A

Orientation and rate of mitosis.

76
Q

What causes the neural plate cells to change shape from cuboidal to columnar during development?

A

The lengthening and sliding of microtubules.

77
Q

What causes the wedge shape transformation in the neural tube development?

A

Microfilaments sliding close together and constricting.

78
Q

What 2 mechanisms are responsible for moving cells during development?

A

Tracks (ECM secretions) and gradient (protein receptors).

79
Q

What are the four basic steps for cells movement in order?

A

Attachment, extension, attachment, contraction

80
Q

What does selective cell adhesion use?

A

Glycoproteins such as cell adhesion molecules.

81
Q

What is an example of CAM?

A

Cadherins.

82
Q

How do Cadherins work?

A

Set up adhesion using calcium ions.

83
Q

What are final adhesions?

A

Hold the cell in its final shape and form using the 3 junctions.

84
Q

What is induction?

A

When inducer cells induce responder cells to follow a particular pathway.

85
Q

What is differentiation?

A

When cells become specialized from embryonic form.

86
Q

What is differential gene activation and when does it occur?

A

It means that after the activation of a certain genes another set of genes can be activated from then on. It occurs during differentiation.

87
Q

What is fate mapping?

A

Tracking and mapping the embryonic structure from which each larval structure is derived.

88
Q

What techniques are used in fate mapping?

A

Dyes.

89
Q

What are the master regulatory genes involved in skeletal muscle formation?

A

myoD, myogenin, and MEF (mother f****).

90
Q

What are the two master regulatory genes right before skeletal muscle formation?

A

myogenin and MEF.

91
Q

What transcription factor plays a role in the formation of myoblasts?

A

MyoD

92
Q

How do cells know their position in the embryo?

A

Concentration gradients of regulatory molecules.

93
Q

What is pattern formation?

A

Arrangement of organs in their proper 3-D relationships.

94
Q

Does cytokinesis occur in embryogenesis in Drosophila?

A

No.

95
Q

What help establish segmentation?

A

Protein gradients.

96
Q

What 2 major sets of genes determine body plan?

A

Maternal-Effect genes and segmentation genes.

97
Q

What are maternal effect genes?

A

Expressed by mother during oogenesis and thus in embyo.

98
Q

What is the master regulatory gene controlling the development of thorax and head?

A

bicoid gene.

99
Q

What are segmentation genes?

A

Subdivide embryo into regions determining segments of adult.

100
Q

What are the 3 segmentation genes?

A

Gap genes, pair-rule genes, and segment polarity genes.

101
Q

What do maternal effect genes control?

A

Polarity of egg and therefore the embryo.

102
Q

What is the product of gap genes?

A

Divides embryo into broad anterior and posterior regions.

103
Q

What is the product of pair rule genes?

A

Divide the embryo into 2 regions each.

104
Q

What is the product of segment polarity genes?

A

Establish an anterior and posterior boundary to each segment of the embyo.

105
Q

What happens during a mutation of a gap gene?

A

Loss of a full body segment.

106
Q

What happens during a mutation of a pair rule gene?

A

Loss of one segment of a pair.

107
Q

What happens during a mutation of a segment polarity gene?

A

Loss of one part of the segment and duplication of another.

108
Q

What do homeotic genes determine?

A

Determine what organ each body part will become.

109
Q

What is the full name for Hox genes?

A

Homeobox.

110
Q

What do Homeobox code for?

A

Amino acid region of transcription factor known as homeodomain. (Box has the tools to make stuff)

111
Q

What are the evolutionary conserved genes known as?

A

Hox genes.

112
Q

What part of transcription factor binds to the promoter region of a gene (talking about homeotic genes)?

A

Homeodomain.

113
Q

Are Homeotic genes master regulatory genes?

A

Yes.

114
Q

What 2 proteins must be stopped from getting activated to stop apoptosis from happening?

A

CED-4 and CED-3

115
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Study of organisms by changing gene expression rather than genetic code.

116
Q

What are the 3 techniques used in epigenetics?

A

Methylation, X chromosome inactivation, and acetylation of histones.

117
Q

What can be used for programming cells in gametogenesis and embryogenesis to change their gene expression?

A

Epigenetics.