Chapter 4: Tool and Equipment Flashcards

1
Q

Light rescue vehicles are designed to handle ____

A

only basic extrication and life support functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Light rescue vehicles are built on a ____ or ____ chassis.

A

1-ton or 1 1/2-ton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Medium rescue vehicles are capable of handling

A

the majority of vehicle rescue incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Equipment usually carried by Medium Rescue Vehicles:

A
  • Basic hand tools
  • Hydraulic spreaders and cutters
  • Pneumatic lifting bags
  • Power saws
  • Acetylene cutting equipment
  • Ropes and rigging equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Heavy Rescue Vehicles must be capable of ____

A

providing the support necessary to extricate victims from almost any entrapment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Equipment carried by heavy rescue units may include:

A
  • A frames or gin poles
  • Cascade systems
  • Larger capacity generators
  • Trenching and shoring equipment
  • Small pumps and foam equipment
  • Large winches
  • Hydraulic booms
  • Large quantities of rope and rigging equipment
  • Air compressors
  • Ladders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two primary types of rescue vehicle chassis?

A

commercial and custom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ are the most commonly used chassis for rescue vehicles. All light and medium chassis units and a large percentage of heavy rescue chassis units are ____.

A
  • Commercial chassis
    These are typically used for commercial vehicles such as plumbers trucks, garbage trucks, dump trucks, and delivery trucks.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Custom chassis are ____

A

built by manufacturers who specialize in fire apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Common special features incorporated into rescue vehicles.

A
  • All wheel drive
  • Rescue vehicle electrical equipment
  • Vehicle mounted winches
  • Gin poles and A frames
  • Hydraulic cranes
  • Stabilizers
  • Air supply systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inverters

A

AKA alternators, used when large amounts of power are not necessary. They convert the vehicles DC electricity into AC. Inverters are fuel efficient and produce little or no noise during operation; however they have limited poser generating capacity and limited range from the vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common power source used on emergency vehicles.

A

Generators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vehicle mounted generators usually have a ____ capacity than portable units.

A

larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vehicle mounted generators can be powered in what ways?

A
  • gasoline
  • diesel
  • Propane
  • hydraulic
  • power take off systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vehicle mounted generators known as power plants generally have ____ and ____ capabilities with capacities up to ____ and occasionally greater.

A
  • 110 and 220 volt

* 50 kilowatts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Some dedicated lighting units have hydraulically operated booms with banks of lights and capacities ranging from ____ to ____ per light.

A

500 to 1500 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A winch is rated at its capacity when the ____ is still on the drum.

A

first layer of cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Winch and cable strength are strongest ____. As more cable is wrapped around the drum and the cable becomes layered, the strength ____. As more cable is taken off the drum, the strength capacity ____. For safety reasons, ____ should not be removed from the drum.

A
  • on the first wrap around the drum
  • decreases
  • increases
  • the last layer of cable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gin Pole

A

Vertical lifting device that may be attached to the front or the rear of the apparatus; consists of a single pole that is attached to the apparatus at one end and has a woking pulley at the other. Guy wires may also be used to stabilize the pole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A-Frame

A

Vertical lifting device that can be attached to the front of rear of the apparatus; consists of two poles attached several feet apart on the apparatus and whose working ends are connected to form the letter A. A pulley or block and tackle through which a rope or cable is passed is attached to the end of the frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hydraulic Cranes assist in ____, and have lifting capabilities of ____ or more.

A
  • vehicle stabilization, removal of heavy vehicle components, and raising and lowering personnel and equipment.
  • 18 tons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stabilizers on rescue vehicles are used to ____

A

steady the vehicle when deploying a gin pole, A frame, or hydraulic crane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Three common types of air supply systems on rescue vehicles:

A
  • Cascade systems
  • Breathing air compressors
  • Non-breathing air compressors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cascade Systems

A

Three of more large, interconnected air cylinders, from which smaller SCBA cylinders are recharged; the larger cylinders typically have a capacity of 300 cubic feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When a rescue vehicle contains a breathing air compressor, be sure to position the apparatus ____

A

Upwind of any emergency scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cribbing

A

Wooden or plastic blocks used to stabilize a vehicle during vehicle extrication or debris following a structural collapse; typically 4X4 inches or larger and between 16 to 26 inches long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The advantages and disadvantages of plastic cribbing.

A
  • Advantages
  • Plastic cribbing is twice as strong as wood, and is impervious to oil, gasoline, and other substances that can soak into and contaminate wood.
  • Disadvantages
  • Provides no warning prior to failure where wood will crack, it may be slippery when wet, and is more expensive and harder to replace than wood.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A ____ is the most common cribbing application in. vehicle extrication.

A

Box crib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

There should be a minimum of ____ of overlap on all four corners of the box crib, and cribbing ends should ____.

A
  • four inches

* extend beyond the sides touching the layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The more members used to construct the individual layers of a box crib the more it will ____

A

strengthen the box crib and increase its load carrying capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The maximum height of a box crib is ____

A
  • three times the shortest width of the box crib.

* it is recommended to have maximum heights of four feet in 4x4 systems, and six feet in 6x6 systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Shims are the same shape as wedges but ____

A

may be cut from smaller stock. Wedges are usually 4x4x18-inch, or 2x4x12-inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between how wedges and shims are used?

A
  • Wedges are inserted in pairs, with each wedge on opposite sides to tighten cribbing.
  • Shims are inserted singularly to take up space between cribbing and the object being supported.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Wooden step chocks have a ____ inch base approximately ____ inches long. Aligned on the base are progressively shorter lengths of ____ inch lumber, and each step is approximately ____ inches shorter than the one beneath it.

A
  • 2x6
  • 30
  • 2x6
  • 6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do not install step chocks ____

A

where they would interfere with the swing of the vehicle doors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Eliminate any space between the highest step under the vehicle and the underside of the vehicle be setting a _____, or by _____.

A
  • shim under the the step chock

* letting out the air of inflated tires in a controlled manner to load the step chocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Nylon rope is not ideal for vehicle stabilization because ____

A

it stretches under load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Use only ____ chains in vehicle extrication.

A

alloy steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The best chain for rescue work is ____

A

Grade 80, AKA Grade 8 or Grade T. This chain is identified by an 8 or T embossed on the links at regular intervals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The minimum chain size for extrication operations is ____

A

3/8 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

All chains should have ____ that has the safe load weight stamped or printed on it.

A

an attached tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Safety rules when using chains

A
  • Do not drag a load with a chain under it
  • Do not cross, knot, or hammer a chain into position
  • Do not exceed the chain’s listed safe working load
  • Do not use worn or damaged chains
  • Do not impact load a chain
  • Do not connect chain hooks to anything but the chain itself
  • Do not weld links in alloy chain or other wise expose them to excessive heat
  • Do not use appliances, such as hooks, pins, and links that are not of at least equal strength to the load being supported or controlled
  • Do not use hooks and attachments that are not made of the same alloy material as the rest of the chain.
  • Do not attempt to splice a chain by placing a bolt through two links
  • Do not apply force to a kinked chain - make sure that all of the links are straight.
  • Do not side load any of the chain attachments or components.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

While using hooks, orient the opening, or eye, ____. If the hook fails and elongates, the hook will ____.

A
  • towards the rescuer

* fail away from the rescuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

With few exceptions, chains and webbing of the appropriate size and strength may be used ____

A

interchangeably

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two main webbing construction types?

A

Flat and tubular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tubular webbing is woven in one of two ways, ____ and ____. Generally, the ____ weave is stronger and more resistant to abrasion.

A
  • spiral and chain

* spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The appropriate size of webbing varies with the intended use, but most webbing used for lifting and pulling operations starts at ____.

A

about 2 inches in width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Webbing is susceptible to damage from ____, ____, and ____.

A
  • ultraviolet light, abrasions, and chemical degradation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ratchet straps are most often used for ____, ____, and ____ in stabilization operations.

A
  • marrying a vehicle to an object or other vehicle
  • capturing a vehicles suspension
  • to secure most rescue strut systems to vehicles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prying tools are safer than striking tools because of ____

A

the absence of ballistic movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the distinct groups of manual cutting tools?

A
  • Chopping tools
  • Snipping tools
  • Hand saws
  • Knives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Guidelines to ensure maximum cutting efficiency of chopping tools.

A
  • Keep the cutting edge free of paint and covered with a thin coating of light grade machine oil
  • Keep the blade sharp, but not so sharp the the cutting edge chips when the tool is used
  • Check tool handles regularly for looseness, cracks, splinters, or warping.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Use handsaws on objects that require ____

A

a controlled cut but do not fit into the jaws of a manual opposing jaw cutter.

54
Q

To increase the cutting efficiency of any saw, periodically spray the surface of the material being cut with ____, ____, or ____ to reduce friction between the material and the saw blade.

A
  • bee’s wax
  • a water based cutting fluid
  • soapy water
55
Q

Always ____ prior to removing glass from a vehicle with any device.

A

Protect any victims

56
Q

What are the two basic types of center punches?

A

Standard and spring loaded

57
Q

With the exception of pneumatic lifting bags and cushions, the primary lifting tools used in vehicle extrication are ____

A

non-hydraulic jacks

58
Q

The jacks most often used are ____ and ____.

A
  • screw jacks

* ratchet lever jacks

59
Q

____ jacks are the easiest jacks to operate. The two most common types are the ____, and the ____

A
  • Screw
  • bar screw jack
  • folding screw jack
60
Q

The bar screw jack is an excellent tool for ____ but is considered impractical for ____.

A
  • stabilizing a load

* lifting

61
Q

Folding jack are not always stable under load and therefore considered safe only for ____

A

light loads.

62
Q

Ratchet lever jacks are good medium duty jacks but they are ____

A

the least stable under load.

63
Q

Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter

A

GFCI - Device designed to protect against electric shock; when grounding occurs, the device opens a circuit to shut off the flow of electricity. AKA Ground Fault Indicator (GFI) Receptacle.

64
Q

Portable lights generally range from ____ to ____

A

300 to 1000 watts.

65
Q

The most common size of electrical cable or extension cord is ____

A

12 gauge, 3 wire

66
Q

Twist lock receptacles are used to ____

A

provide secure, safe connections.

67
Q

Electrical cable must be ____, ____, and have no ____.

A

adequately insulated, waterproof, and have no exposed wires.

68
Q

Voltage detection devices usually detect ____ from frequencies between ____ to ____.

A
  • AC electricity

* 20 to 100 Hz

69
Q

When equipped with metal cutting blades, ____ saws are extremely effective at bus and passenger vehicle extrications incidents.

A

reciprocating saws

70
Q

____ are much easier to control and are safer to use than circular saws.

A

reciprocating saws

71
Q

Types of blades for rotary saws.

A
  • steel blades with carbide tips for cutting wood
  • Carborundum or other abrasive blades for cutting masonry and metal
  • diamond impregnated blades for cutting virtually anything.
72
Q

____ blades can degrade when exposed to hydrocarbon vapors.

A

Abrasive

73
Q

Use water to cool saw blades while cutting by ____

A

applying the water in a fine mist while the blade is in operation. Start the water before the cutting begins and continue it throughout the cutting operation.

74
Q

Putting cold water on a hot blade may cause ____

A

it to shatter.

75
Q

Portable band saws are used extensively during ____ and ____ responses.

A

Impalement and industrial entrapment

76
Q

____ are useful in cutting the ultra and advanced high strength metals found in new vehicle technology.

A

Portable band saws.

77
Q

Portable band saws come in ____ and ____ configurations, with the ____ type having the smaller cutting capacity.

A
  • cordless (battery operated)
  • 110 volt corded
  • battery operated
78
Q

Portable band saws have the following advantages over reciprocating saws, grinders, and hydraulic cutters.

A
  • They undergo minimal vibrations since their blades spin in one direction.
  • They give off minimal heat
  • They rarely spark
  • They will not cause an object to fracture.
79
Q

What are the two categories of hydraulic tools?

A
  • Power driven

* Manual

80
Q

What are the primary tools used for extrication situations, and why?

A
  • Power driven hydraulic tools

* The versatility of uses, speed, and superior power.

81
Q

What resources can power hydraulic pumps?

A
  • Compressed air
  • Pressurized water
  • Power take offs (PTO)
  • Electric motors
  • Diesel or gasoline engines
  • Battery
82
Q

____ were the first powered hydraulic tools available.

A

Powered hydraulic spreaders.

83
Q

Some models of cutters cannot cut ____

A

case hardened steel or high strength low alloy steel (HSLA).

84
Q

Cutters are limited because ____

A

materials they cannot cut are often located at potential impact points and at corners or the compartment, prime cutting locations for vehicle extrication.

85
Q

How are cutters performance level rated?

A

By five material categories based on the type of material: ABCDE. These categories are coupled with a numerical performance level rating (1-9) which indicates the size of the material category.

86
Q

____ can cut virtually anything that will fit between the blade and anvil.

A

Pedal cutters

87
Q

The closing force of a hydraulic ram is usually about ____ of the opening force.

A

one-half that

88
Q

Unlike conventional hydraulic rams ____ cannot be used for pulling.

A

telescoping

89
Q

In telescoping hydraulic rams, after the first stage, the pushing force decreases ____ for each additional stage.

A

by half

90
Q

Manual hydraulic jacks are available in capacities up to ____ or larger.

A

20 tons

91
Q

The most commonly used pneumatic tools used in vehicle extrication include:

A
  • Pneumatic chisels and hammers
  • Pneumatic wrenches
  • Pneumatic saws
  • Pneumatic lifting bags and cushions
92
Q

Pneumatic chisels are designed to operate at air pressures between ____ and ____

A

90 and 150 psi

93
Q

Air chisels can be especially effective for cutting through ____. They are good for cutting ____.

A
  • the roof, roof support posts or doorjambs, seat bolts, and door lock assemblies.
  • medium to heavy-gauge sheet metal and for popping rivets and bolts.
94
Q

Never use ____ to power pneumatic tools.

A
  • Oxygen

* Mixing pure oxygen with tool lubricants can result in fire or violent explosion.

95
Q

Air ratchets or impact wrenches are extremely useful for ____

A

disassembling vehicle components.

96
Q

A whizzer saw may run for ____ on an SCBA cylinder.

A

3 minutes

97
Q

Pneumatic saws include both ____ and ____ saws.

A
  • rotary

* reciprocating

98
Q

At about ____ the whizzer saw weights about ____ as much as a circular saw.

A
  • 2 pounds

* one-tenth

99
Q

Operating at ____ rpm, the whizzer saws 3 inch ____ blade cuts case hardened locks and steel up to ____ inch in thickness.

A
  • 20,000
  • carborundum
  • 3/4 inch
100
Q

Safety rules when using pneumatic lifting bags and cushions.

A
  • Plan the operation before starting the work
  • Be thoroughly familiar with the equipment, its operating principles, capabilities, and limitations.
  • Consult the appropriate operator’s manuals and follow the recommendations for the specific system used.
  • Keep all components in good operating condition and all safety seals in place.
  • Have an adequate air supply and sufficient cribbing on hand before beginning operations.
  • Position bag(s) on or against a solid surface.
  • Do not inflate bags against sharp objects - use a protective mat
  • Inflate bags slowly and monitor them continuously for any shifting
  • Never work under a load supported only by lifting bags
  • Interrupt the process frequently to increase shoring or cribbing that will support the load if bags fail. lift an inch - crib an inch
  • Ensure that the top tier is solid when using box cribbing
  • Avoid exposing bags to materials hotter than 220°
  • Stack bags according to manufacturers recommendations.
101
Q

Do not expose pneumatic lifting bags to materials hotter than ____.

A

220° F

102
Q

High pressure lifting bags are constructed of ____ or ____ reinforced with either ____ or ____.

A
  • neoprene or butly rubber

* steel wire or Kevlar aramid fiber

103
Q

High pressure pneumatic lift bags range in inflation pressure is about ____

A

116 - 150 psi

104
Q

The largest lift bags may inflate to a height of ____, and can lift approximately ____. A lifting bags maximum weight capacity is generally rated at ____ of lift, and the lifting capacity ____ as the height of the lift ____.

A
  • 20 inches
  • 90 tons
  • one inch
  • decreases
  • increases
105
Q

The decrease in lifting capacity as a lifting bags height increases is due to ____

A

the decrease in surface contact made by the bag.

106
Q

What is the formula to determine the lift capacity of a high pressure bag?

A

Length * Width * Operating Pressure (psi) = Lifting Capacity (lbs)

107
Q

High pressure lift bags maximum lifting capacity is determined by

A

the amount of surface area of the lifting bag that is in contact with the object being lifted multiplied by the pressure of the system.

108
Q

To ensure maximum safe lifting capabilities of a lift bag ____

A

use cribbing or another solid base as a foundation to position the bag as close as possible to the underside of the object to be lifted.

109
Q

Low and medium pressure lift cushions are most commonly used to

A

lift or temporarily stabilize large vehicles or objects.

110
Q

Low pressure cushions are generally operated on ____ to ____ psi. While medium pressure cushions use ____ to ____ psi.

A
  • 7 to 10

* 12 to 15

111
Q

Advantages of low and medium pressure lifting bags:

A
  • They lift a much greater height
  • They maintain their entire lifting wight capacity throughout the entire lift
  • They are safer than stacking high pressure bags
  • They are easier to repair
112
Q

Disadvantages of low and medium pressure lifting bags:

A
  • They are capable of lifting less weight
  • They require twice as much space for insertion
  • They are more vulnerable to puncture
  • They cannot lift a load straight up on their own; they must have a base or foundation point
  • They should never be stacked.
113
Q

Some low and medium pressure lifting bags are capable of lifting an object ____

A

upward of 6 feet.

114
Q

Griphoists have many applications such as ____

A

removing vehicles from under-ride or over-ride scenarios.

115
Q

A common griphoist model used by rescue personnel is the TU-32, which is rated at ____ for material handling applications and ____ pounds for personnel hoisting applications.

A
  • 8000 pounds

* 6000 pounds

116
Q

A griphoists capacity can be increased two, three, or four times with the use of ____

A

sheave blocks

117
Q

The ____ wire rope used with the TU-32 griphoist has a minimum breaking strength of ____.

A
  • 5/8 inch

* 40,000

118
Q

The TU-28 griphoist is rated at ____ for material handling application, and ____ for personnel hoisting. It uses ____ wire rope that has a minimum breaking strength of ____.

A
  • 4000 pounds
  • 3000 pounds
  • 7/16 inch
  • 20,000 pounds
119
Q

The lever handles on some come alongs are designed to ____ before the chin or cable reaches the breaking point.

A

bend

120
Q

What is the most common size or rating of come along use for rescue purposes?

A

10 tons

121
Q

Do not use ____ with come alongs. Use only the ____ that came with the device.

A
  • extension handles

* calibrated handle

122
Q

What is a three to one mechanical advantage system most commonly used for?

A

deploying resources and equipment down a slight grade of 15 - 40 degrees and then bringing victims and rescuers safely back up the slope.

123
Q

Safety rules for using a mechanical advantage system.

A
  • Ensure the components of the mechanical advantage system are rated for the load to be moved.
  • Pull in a direct line with pulleys or sheaves
  • Pull downhill whenever possible
  • Do not allow anyone to stand under or near the load in case the assembly fails.
  • Block or crib all loads as they are moved
  • Lower suspended loads gradually, without jerking
  • Mouse (wrap) a small rope across the hook opening to prevent slings or ropes from slipping off.
124
Q

Do not utilize ____ in mechanical advantage systems when a life is not involved.

A

life safety rope.

125
Q

Safety guidelines for using thermal cutting devices.

A
  • Do not use in area where the atmosphere may be flammable.
  • Have a charged handline in place prior to beginning cutting operations.
  • Handline personnel should be in appropriate PPE
  • Ensure that all torch cutting personnel are experienced and efficient in using the tool in all situations.
  • Train regularly in exercises that present a variety of cutting problems
  • Wear appropriate PPE
  • Store acetylene cylinders upright, and never place them on their side.
  • Handle cylinders carefully, a dented cylinder creates a potentially explosive situation
  • Mark dented cylinders and return them to the supplier.
  • Avoid storing cylinders in ambient conditions exceeding 130 degrees
  • Do not store Acetylene cylinders on wet damp surfaces to prevent rust
  • Design storage areas to prevent cylinders from falling over
  • Perform soap tests to detect leaks after making regulator, torch, hose, and cylinder connections.
  • Remove leaking cylinders to an open area immediately. Do not attempt to stop a fuse plug leak
  • Open acetylene cylinder valves no more than 3/4 of one turn, and dont force it.
  • Do not use at pressures greater than 15 psi
  • Do not exceed a withdrawal rate of 1/7 of the cylinder capacity per hour
  • Keep valves closed and bleed when not in use
  • Cap unconnected cylinders
  • Do not use petroleum products on threads
126
Q

Exothermic cutting devices (AKA burning bars)

A

ultra high temperature burning tools capable of cutting through virtually any metallic, non-metallic, or composite material. They produce temperatures in excess of 8000° F, range in size from 1/4 to 3/4 inch in diameter and from 22 to 36 inches in length.

127
Q

One type of exothermic cutting device called an Arcair produces temperatures from ____ to ____ and last between ____ and ____.

A
  • 6000° to 10000° F
  • 15 and 30 seconds
  • Uses a hollow magnesium rod that allows oxygen to flow through the rod, is ignited by an electric striker, and burns as the oxygen is increased.
128
Q

Cutting flares

A

Approximately the same size as highway flare and are ignited in the same way. These cut metal and concrete and produce a 6800° flame that last from 15 seconds to 2 minutes. The advantage of these flare compared to burning bars is the absence of power cord, and their light weight and portability.

129
Q

Plasma arc cutters

A

Used to cut metal generating temperatures of up to 50,000° F by sending an electric arc through a gas that is passing through a constricted opening. They use up to 200 amperes of electrical power, and many types of gases including air, nitrogen, and argon. Air is the most common gas used in the fire service. They work so fast that the heat travel through the material is minimal compared to other cutting devices. They do not do well in wet conditions, or in poor conductive conditions.

130
Q

Oxyacetylene cutting torches

A

Metal cutting torch that produces flames approximately 4200° F in air for preheating metal, when pure oxygen is added a flame of over 5700° F is created. These cylinders contain a porous filler of calcium silicate, which prevents accumulations of free acetylene within the cylinder. They also contain liquid acetone in which the acetylene is dissolved and stored in liquid form. Always store these cylinders upright and never allow them to be on their side.

131
Q

Oxygasoline cutting torches

A

These cutting devices produce a flame of 2800° and with special equipment may be used under water. These systems give increased operational safety because the fuel is delivered to the torch in liquid form. This prevents the flame from traveling back through the supply hose.