Chapter 2: Personal Protective Equipment, Hazards and Hazard Mitigation Flashcards
1
Q
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
A
Formal methods or rules to guide the performance of routine functions or emergency operations. Procedures are typically written in a handbook, so that al firefighters can consult and become familiar with them.
2
Q
Foot protection should provide the best protection against likely hazards that the rescuers will encounter:
A
heat, punctures, and impact
3
Q
NFPA requires that rescue personnel wear ____ if they are likely to contact bodily fluids during a vehicle extrication.
A
medical exam gloves inside their leather or extrication gloves
4
Q
The actual duration of respiratory support provided by a SCBA bottle depends on ____
A
the individual wearer’s physiological and psychological conditioning.
5
Q
What are the types of Air-purifying respirators
A
- Particulate removing
- Vapor and gas removing
- Combination particulate removing and vapor and gas removing
6
Q
Canister or cartridge respirators pass air through a ____, ____, or ____ to remove specific contaminants from the air.
A
filter, sorbent, or combination of these
7
Q
APR’s should be worn only in ____ where the hazards present are ____ and at least ____ percent oxygen is present.
A
- controlled atmospheres
- completely understood
- 19.5%
8
Q
Responders should be able to answer the following questions before deciding to use APR’s
A
- What is the hazard?
- Is the hazard a vapor or gas?
- Is the hazard a particle or dust?
- Is there some combination of dust and vapors present?
- What concentration levels are present?
9
Q
What are the three primary limitations of APR’s?
A
- Limited life of its filters and canisters
- Need for constant monitoring of the contaminated atmosphere
- Need for a normal oxygen content of the atmosphere before use
10
Q
Many vehicle hazards can be grouped into what two categories?
A
- Hazards from energy sources
* Hazards from beneficial systems
11
Q
Isolate and manage conventional fuel systems using the following techniques:
A
- Place wheel chocks in front of and behind tires preventing unexpected movement
- Apply the emergency brake
- If the vehicle has an automatic transmission
- Place the gear selector in park
- Turn off the ingnition
- Remove the key
- If the vehicle has a manual transmission
- Turn off the ignition
- Remove the key
- Place the gear shift in the lowest gear
- Eliminate any ignition sources
12
Q
If a vehicle is equipped with a smart key system and rescuers are unable to disable the 12 volt battery, ____
A
locate and remove the key from the area surrounding the vehicle. Be aware of the potential for a second smart key.
13
Q
An alternative fuel is ____
A
a fuel that is not entirely derived from petroleum products.
14
Q
Examples of alternative fuels
A
- Propane/ liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
- Natural gas
- Auxiliary fuel cells
- Alcohol/ gasoline blended mixtures
- Biodiesel
- Aircraft fuel
15
Q
When dealing with alternative fuels, rescuers have to exercise further mitigation techniques.
A
- Monitor the atmosphere
- Stay clear of vapor clouds
- Once the vehicle is secured and ignition sources are eliminated
- locate, access, and manually turn off the fuel at the tank shut-off valve.
16
Q
Hybrid electric vehicles may contain as much as ____ of DC current
A
800 volts
17
Q
Rescuers should always assume that every hybrid electric vehicle is ____ despite a lack of engine noise.
A
powered up
18
Q
The most desirable method for disabling a hybrid electric vehicle is to ____
A
shut down the vehicle with the switch and key system.
19
Q
Disconnecting or cutting the 12 volt negative and positive battery cables in a hybrid electric car will ____
A
open relays to isolate the high voltage system.
20
Q
Defoggers can ____ during window removal.
A
produce sparks or shock a person
21
Q
Laminated safety glass consists of ____
A
two sheets of glass bonded to a sheet of plastic sandwiched between them.
22
Q
Impact with Laminated safety glass produces ____. In addition ____ created from cutting this glass creates respiratory hazards.
A
- multiple long, pointed shards with sharp edges.
* any fine dust
23
Q
Tempered glass is most commonly used in ____
A
side windows, and some rear windows.
24
Q
Crushable bumpers are not a hazard until ____
A
the fire is out.
25
When ____ cool after being exposed to the heat of a fire, beads of a clear liquid form on their surface. This liquid appears to be water but is actually ____.
* crushable bumpers
| * concentrated hydrofluoric acid
26
Magnesium vehicle components:
* alloy wheels
* Valve covers
* Steering columns
* Mounting brackets on antilock braking systems
* Transmission casings
* Engine blocks
* Frame supports
* Exterior body components
27
Beneficial vehicle systems are:
any system or component of a vehicle that provides benefit to and/ or enhances the safety and comfort of the vehicle occupants.
28
The safest manner in which to deal with SRS devices is ____
to give them space.
29
The ABC's of dealing with SRS:
* Always respect the deployment path of any type of airbag, rollover protection system, or SRS.
* Be aware that there is no way to make an undeployed airbag, ROPS, or SRS safe.
* Caution must be paramount in cutting or manipulating any vehicle equipped with airbags, ROPS, or SRS.
30
SRS are concealed within ____, and require rescuers to ____ to identify ____ prior to cutting.
* the vehicles interior trim pieces
* peel and peek
* stored gas and canister type inflators, and other components
31
Seatbelt pretensioners tighten belts as ____
the frontal impact airbags deploy
32
Once a seatbelt is cut, remove ___ so that they cannot strike anyone if the system suddenly activates.
the buckle and excess belt
33
Seat belt pretensioners in most modern vehicles deploy using ____
pyrotechnic devices.
34
The pyrotechnic pretensioning device is usually located:
near the bottom of the B post at the base of the seat belt.
35
If pretensioners are heated during vehicle fires it ____
can explode.
36
Most modern airbag systems detect :
* The occupant's weight and position
* If the seat belt is buckled
* The vehicle's speed and area of impact
37
What are the airbag safe practice guidelines?
5, 10, 12, 18, 20
* 5 inches for side impact and knee bolsters
* 10 inches for driver frontal airbags
* 12 to 18 inches for curtain airbags
* 20 inches for passenger frontal airbags
38
When mitigating supplemental restraint systems during extrication operations, these guidelines should be followed.
* Do not cut inflators
* Peel away interior trim and peek before cutting (peel and peek)
* Work with the safety systems that are not around them.
* Maintain situational awareness of airbag locations and appropriate airbag deployment zones while working in and around the vehicle.
39
When reaching into a vehicle to remove or turn off the ignition, rescuers should ____ to avoid the path of the airbags.
reach from behind the steering hub
40
Always use caution when working around airbags. ____ can cause these systems to detonate without an electrical source.
Static electricity
41
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration ( NHTSA)
Agency within the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) that publishes annual summary reports of fatal highway accidents.
42
Driver and front passenger airbags can be ____, ____, or ____ systems.
single, dual-stage, or dual-depth systems.
43
Single stage airbags
deploy at a standard rate every time they deploy
44
Dual-stage airbags
utilize sensors that use this information to determine if the airbag should deploy using its full capacity or a diminished deployment to reduce the possibility of injuring lighter smaller occupants.
45
Dual-depth airbags
Work the same way as dual-stage systems, but have two airbags. One airbag is the normal size while the other one is smaller and located inside the larger bag.
46
____ airbags can deploy only once. ____ and ____ airbags are equipped with two inflator devices.
* single stage
| * dual-stage and dual-depth
47
Front impact airbags deploy in ____ at speeds in excess of ____ with an inflating force of over ____.
* 0.05 seconds
* 200 mph
* 3000 psi
48
Side impact airbags deploy at rates ____ than front impact airbags.
even higher
49
The sound of airbag deployment is in the range of ____ to ____ decibels for ____ second.
* 165 to 175
| * 0.1 second
50
The amount of time needed for the airbags reserve power to drain varies from ____ to ____. The average time is ____
* 1 second to 30 minutes
| * less than 5 minutes.
51
Passenger fontal airbag inflators containing ____ reach temperatures in excess of ____.
* sodium azide
| * 1200°
52
When airbags deploy the interior of the vehicle and those inside may be covered with a fine white powder containing ____ and ____ or ____ that was used to lubricate the airbag during deployment.
* Sodium Azide
| * Talcum powder or cornstarch
53
Sodium azide converts to ____ when wet, and can cause minor irritation of the throat and eyes, or ____ in those who are predisposed.
* sodium hydroxide, a highly alkaline powder that becomes ordinary lye
* asthma attack
54
Sodium azide that has not been converted to sodium hydroxide is ____
extremely toxic
55
Electrical wiring for airbag systems are sometimes identified by ____
Yellow tape, insulation, or tags
56
In dual stage and dual depth systems, each airbag operates ____, so accidentally activating one of them ____.
* Independently
| * does not activate both.
57
Head Protection Systems (HPS) ____ after deployment.
* remain inflated
58
HPS typically use compressed gas inflators stored in steel or aluminum cylinders at pressures of ____ to ____ or higher.
2500 to 4000 psi
59
HPS cylinders are usually located in the ____.
A-post, roof rail, and C-post
60
Rollover Protection Systems pop up and extend behind passangers when the vehicle exceeds ____ from horizontal, a lateral angle limit of ____, a longitudinal angle of ____, a 3G acceleration force, or become weightless for at least ____
* 23°
* 62°
* 72°
* 80 milliseconds
61
If the power is not interrupted during stabilization and extrication of vehicles with air ride suspension systems, the system may try ____
to auto level the vehicle.
62
Never ____ beneath a vehicle with an air ride suspension system without ____ in place.
* put any part of your body
| * proper stabilization
63
Do not cut yellow colored or yellow tagged cables in an airbag system. Doing so may ____
deploy armed airbags
64
Approach vehicles from a ____ angle. Remain aware of the various fire and explosion hazards that are on/in a vehicle.
45 deree
65
Fuel spills are common after vehicle crashes, and any ____ should be recognized and isolated before addressing any other concerns.
ignition sources
66
Vehicle accidents are full of possible ignition sources, some of these sources include:
* Downed power lines
* Vehicle batteries and electrical systems
* Static energy sources
67
Methods of isolating possible ignition sources at vehicle accidents.
* Cordon downed wires
* Disable battery and electrical systems
* Avoid pyrotechnic devices
* Protect struts from excessive heat or physical damage
* Consider appropriate apparatus and tool placement
* Atmospheric monitoring
68
If both struts attached to a bumper explode simultaneously, they can launch the bumper and/or struts ____.
100 feet or more from the vehicle
69
When the front or rear bumper of a vehicle is exposed to heavy flame impingement, all personnel should ____
stay out of the danger zone - directly in front of and to each side, a distance equal to the length of the bumper.
70
For fire protection at vehicle extrication incidents it is recommended that at least one ____ and ready for use by ____.
* 1 1/2 inch hoseline be charged
| * at least two firefighters equipped with full PPE.
71
Fire control strategy for vehicle fires.
* Establish command
* Perform a 360
* Ensure an apparatus is protection the scene
* Ensure that personnel and apparatus are positioned uphill and upwind
* Determine hazards and initiate appropriate control measures
* Monitor the atmosphere with a multi gas detector
* Advance the appropriate size hoseine with the appropriate type of extinguishing agent
* Advance at a 45° angle
* Extinguish the fire
* Overhaul and investigate
72
A ____ is the best most appropriate form of fire protection at a vehicle incident.
pre-connected hoseline, preferably foam capable
73
What is the extinguishing agent of choice for fires involving all types of hydrocarbon or solvent fuels:
Alcohol resistant - aqueous film forming foam (AR-AFFF)
74
When combustible metals are encountered during vehicle fires, firefighters should ____
utilize copious amounts of water
75
Alcohol/ gasoline blended fuels are ____.
water soluble gasoline blends
76
Alcohol fuels do not react to standard fire fighting methods. Water ____ the alcohol, producing a ____.
* dilutes
| * running fuel fire
77
Ethanol and methanol fires burn ____, and produce ____, making them hard to see during daylight hours. Using ____ can help locate the fire. Use ____ to extinguish the fire.
* bright blue
* little smoke
* a thermal imager
* AR-AFFF
78
In the presence of a natural gas fire, it is recommended to ____
allow the fire to burn off all the fuel as long as no lives or exposures are threatened.
79
When water is applied directly to an LNG fire it ____ increasing ____, therefore increasing ____.
* warms the liquid
* the amount of vapor production
* the intensity of the fire
80
Control LNG fires by using ____
* Purple K dry chemical agent or high expansion foam on the surface of the fire.
81
Rescuers should exercise caution when performing extrication operations around LNG in order to ____
prevent their release and ignition.
82
Use ____ to extinguish a CNG fire, use ____ to disperse CNG vapor clouds.
* water or foam
| * a fog stream
83
____ is the third most common vehicle fuel type after gasoline and diesel.
Propane
84
How should hydrogen fuel fires in vehicles be handled:
* Locate the fires with a thermal imager as they are not easily seen.
* Do not extinguish hydrogen fuel fires, protect exposures and allow the fuel to burn off.
85
Bio diesel fuel
A yellow liquid with an odor of cooking oil that is non-toxic, biodegradable, and sulfur free. Biodiesel can be used in any vehicle designed to use diesel.
86
Extinguishing agent for Lead-acid batteries
Carbon dioxide, foam, or dry chemical
87
Extinguishing agent for Nickel metal hydride batteries
Class D extinguisher (metal X or similar)
88
Extinguishing agent for Lithium-ion batteries
Dry sand, sodium chloride powder, graphite powder, or copper powder
89
The most common hazardous materials found at passenger vehicle incidents are ____
the fuels that propel the vehicles.
90
Before approaching a crashed medium or heavy truck, ____
stop a safe distance away and use binoculars to look for hazardous materials labels or placards.
91
Pedestrians fleeing the scene may be the first indication of the need to ____
stop and assess the scene before approaching.
