Chapter 2: Personal Protective Equipment, Hazards and Hazard Mitigation Flashcards

1
Q

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

A

Formal methods or rules to guide the performance of routine functions or emergency operations. Procedures are typically written in a handbook, so that al firefighters can consult and become familiar with them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Foot protection should provide the best protection against likely hazards that the rescuers will encounter:

A

heat, punctures, and impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NFPA requires that rescue personnel wear ____ if they are likely to contact bodily fluids during a vehicle extrication.

A

medical exam gloves inside their leather or extrication gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The actual duration of respiratory support provided by a SCBA bottle depends on ____

A

the individual wearer’s physiological and psychological conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the types of Air-purifying respirators

A
  • Particulate removing
  • Vapor and gas removing
  • Combination particulate removing and vapor and gas removing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Canister or cartridge respirators pass air through a ____, ____, or ____ to remove specific contaminants from the air.

A

filter, sorbent, or combination of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

APR’s should be worn only in ____ where the hazards present are ____ and at least ____ percent oxygen is present.

A
  • controlled atmospheres
  • completely understood
  • 19.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Responders should be able to answer the following questions before deciding to use APR’s

A
  • What is the hazard?
  • Is the hazard a vapor or gas?
  • Is the hazard a particle or dust?
  • Is there some combination of dust and vapors present?
  • What concentration levels are present?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three primary limitations of APR’s?

A
  • Limited life of its filters and canisters
  • Need for constant monitoring of the contaminated atmosphere
  • Need for a normal oxygen content of the atmosphere before use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Many vehicle hazards can be grouped into what two categories?

A
  • Hazards from energy sources

* Hazards from beneficial systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Isolate and manage conventional fuel systems using the following techniques:

A
  • Place wheel chocks in front of and behind tires preventing unexpected movement
  • Apply the emergency brake
  • If the vehicle has an automatic transmission
  • Place the gear selector in park
  • Turn off the ingnition
  • Remove the key
  • If the vehicle has a manual transmission
  • Turn off the ignition
  • Remove the key
  • Place the gear shift in the lowest gear
  • Eliminate any ignition sources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a vehicle is equipped with a smart key system and rescuers are unable to disable the 12 volt battery, ____

A

locate and remove the key from the area surrounding the vehicle. Be aware of the potential for a second smart key.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An alternative fuel is ____

A

a fuel that is not entirely derived from petroleum products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Examples of alternative fuels

A
  • Propane/ liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
  • Natural gas
  • Auxiliary fuel cells
  • Alcohol/ gasoline blended mixtures
  • Biodiesel
  • Aircraft fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When dealing with alternative fuels, rescuers have to exercise further mitigation techniques.

A
  • Monitor the atmosphere
  • Stay clear of vapor clouds
  • Once the vehicle is secured and ignition sources are eliminated
  • locate, access, and manually turn off the fuel at the tank shut-off valve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hybrid electric vehicles may contain as much as ____ of DC current

A

800 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rescuers should always assume that every hybrid electric vehicle is ____ despite a lack of engine noise.

A

powered up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most desirable method for disabling a hybrid electric vehicle is to ____

A

shut down the vehicle with the switch and key system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Disconnecting or cutting the 12 volt negative and positive battery cables in a hybrid electric car will ____

A

open relays to isolate the high voltage system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Defoggers can ____ during window removal.

A

produce sparks or shock a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Laminated safety glass consists of ____

A

two sheets of glass bonded to a sheet of plastic sandwiched between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Impact with Laminated safety glass produces ____. In addition ____ created from cutting this glass creates respiratory hazards.

A
  • multiple long, pointed shards with sharp edges.

* any fine dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tempered glass is most commonly used in ____

A

side windows, and some rear windows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Crushable bumpers are not a hazard until ____

A

the fire is out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When ____ cool after being exposed to the heat of a fire, beads of a clear liquid form on their surface. This liquid appears to be water but is actually ____.

A
  • crushable bumpers

* concentrated hydrofluoric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Magnesium vehicle components:

A
  • alloy wheels
  • Valve covers
  • Steering columns
  • Mounting brackets on antilock braking systems
  • Transmission casings
  • Engine blocks
  • Frame supports
  • Exterior body components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Beneficial vehicle systems are:

A

any system or component of a vehicle that provides benefit to and/ or enhances the safety and comfort of the vehicle occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The safest manner in which to deal with SRS devices is ____

A

to give them space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ABC’s of dealing with SRS:

A
  • Always respect the deployment path of any type of airbag, rollover protection system, or SRS.
  • Be aware that there is no way to make an undeployed airbag, ROPS, or SRS safe.
  • Caution must be paramount in cutting or manipulating any vehicle equipped with airbags, ROPS, or SRS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SRS are concealed within ____, and require rescuers to ____ to identify ____ prior to cutting.

A
  • the vehicles interior trim pieces
  • peel and peek
  • stored gas and canister type inflators, and other components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Seatbelt pretensioners tighten belts as ____

A

the frontal impact airbags deploy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Once a seatbelt is cut, remove ___ so that they cannot strike anyone if the system suddenly activates.

A

the buckle and excess belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Seat belt pretensioners in most modern vehicles deploy using ____

A

pyrotechnic devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The pyrotechnic pretensioning device is usually located:

A

near the bottom of the B post at the base of the seat belt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If pretensioners are heated during vehicle fires it ____

A

can explode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most modern airbag systems detect :

A
  • The occupant’s weight and position
  • If the seat belt is buckled
  • The vehicle’s speed and area of impact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the airbag safe practice guidelines?

A

5, 10, 12, 18, 20

  • 5 inches for side impact and knee bolsters
  • 10 inches for driver frontal airbags
  • 12 to 18 inches for curtain airbags
  • 20 inches for passenger frontal airbags
38
Q

When mitigating supplemental restraint systems during extrication operations, these guidelines should be followed.

A
  • Do not cut inflators
  • Peel away interior trim and peek before cutting (peel and peek)
  • Work with the safety systems that are not around them.
  • Maintain situational awareness of airbag locations and appropriate airbag deployment zones while working in and around the vehicle.
39
Q

When reaching into a vehicle to remove or turn off the ignition, rescuers should ____ to avoid the path of the airbags.

A

reach from behind the steering hub

40
Q

Always use caution when working around airbags. ____ can cause these systems to detonate without an electrical source.

A

Static electricity

41
Q

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration ( NHTSA)

A

Agency within the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) that publishes annual summary reports of fatal highway accidents.

42
Q

Driver and front passenger airbags can be ____, ____, or ____ systems.

A

single, dual-stage, or dual-depth systems.

43
Q

Single stage airbags

A

deploy at a standard rate every time they deploy

44
Q

Dual-stage airbags

A

utilize sensors that use this information to determine if the airbag should deploy using its full capacity or a diminished deployment to reduce the possibility of injuring lighter smaller occupants.

45
Q

Dual-depth airbags

A

Work the same way as dual-stage systems, but have two airbags. One airbag is the normal size while the other one is smaller and located inside the larger bag.

46
Q

____ airbags can deploy only once. ____ and ____ airbags are equipped with two inflator devices.

A
  • single stage

* dual-stage and dual-depth

47
Q

Front impact airbags deploy in ____ at speeds in excess of ____ with an inflating force of over ____.

A
  • 0.05 seconds
  • 200 mph
  • 3000 psi
48
Q

Side impact airbags deploy at rates ____ than front impact airbags.

A

even higher

49
Q

The sound of airbag deployment is in the range of ____ to ____ decibels for ____ second.

A
  • 165 to 175

* 0.1 second

50
Q

The amount of time needed for the airbags reserve power to drain varies from ____ to ____. The average time is ____

A
  • 1 second to 30 minutes

* less than 5 minutes.

51
Q

Passenger fontal airbag inflators containing ____ reach temperatures in excess of ____.

A
  • sodium azide

* 1200°

52
Q

When airbags deploy the interior of the vehicle and those inside may be covered with a fine white powder containing ____ and ____ or ____ that was used to lubricate the airbag during deployment.

A
  • Sodium Azide

* Talcum powder or cornstarch

53
Q

Sodium azide converts to ____ when wet, and can cause minor irritation of the throat and eyes, or ____ in those who are predisposed.

A
  • sodium hydroxide, a highly alkaline powder that becomes ordinary lye
  • asthma attack
54
Q

Sodium azide that has not been converted to sodium hydroxide is ____

A

extremely toxic

55
Q

Electrical wiring for airbag systems are sometimes identified by ____

A

Yellow tape, insulation, or tags

56
Q

In dual stage and dual depth systems, each airbag operates ____, so accidentally activating one of them ____.

A
  • Independently

* does not activate both.

57
Q

Head Protection Systems (HPS) ____ after deployment.

A
  • remain inflated
58
Q

HPS typically use compressed gas inflators stored in steel or aluminum cylinders at pressures of ____ to ____ or higher.

A

2500 to 4000 psi

59
Q

HPS cylinders are usually located in the ____.

A

A-post, roof rail, and C-post

60
Q

Rollover Protection Systems pop up and extend behind passangers when the vehicle exceeds ____ from horizontal, a lateral angle limit of ____, a longitudinal angle of ____, a 3G acceleration force, or become weightless for at least ____

A
  • 23°
  • 62°
  • 72°
  • 80 milliseconds
61
Q

If the power is not interrupted during stabilization and extrication of vehicles with air ride suspension systems, the system may try ____

A

to auto level the vehicle.

62
Q

Never ____ beneath a vehicle with an air ride suspension system without ____ in place.

A
  • put any part of your body

* proper stabilization

63
Q

Do not cut yellow colored or yellow tagged cables in an airbag system. Doing so may ____

A

deploy armed airbags

64
Q

Approach vehicles from a ____ angle. Remain aware of the various fire and explosion hazards that are on/in a vehicle.

A

45 deree

65
Q

Fuel spills are common after vehicle crashes, and any ____ should be recognized and isolated before addressing any other concerns.

A

ignition sources

66
Q

Vehicle accidents are full of possible ignition sources, some of these sources include:

A
  • Downed power lines
  • Vehicle batteries and electrical systems
  • Static energy sources
67
Q

Methods of isolating possible ignition sources at vehicle accidents.

A
  • Cordon downed wires
  • Disable battery and electrical systems
  • Avoid pyrotechnic devices
  • Protect struts from excessive heat or physical damage
  • Consider appropriate apparatus and tool placement
  • Atmospheric monitoring
68
Q

If both struts attached to a bumper explode simultaneously, they can launch the bumper and/or struts ____.

A

100 feet or more from the vehicle

69
Q

When the front or rear bumper of a vehicle is exposed to heavy flame impingement, all personnel should ____

A

stay out of the danger zone - directly in front of and to each side, a distance equal to the length of the bumper.

70
Q

For fire protection at vehicle extrication incidents it is recommended that at least one ____ and ready for use by ____.

A
  • 1 1/2 inch hoseline be charged

* at least two firefighters equipped with full PPE.

71
Q

Fire control strategy for vehicle fires.

A
  • Establish command
  • Perform a 360
  • Ensure an apparatus is protection the scene
  • Ensure that personnel and apparatus are positioned uphill and upwind
  • Determine hazards and initiate appropriate control measures
  • Monitor the atmosphere with a multi gas detector
  • Advance the appropriate size hoseine with the appropriate type of extinguishing agent
  • Advance at a 45° angle
  • Extinguish the fire
  • Overhaul and investigate
72
Q

A ____ is the best most appropriate form of fire protection at a vehicle incident.

A

pre-connected hoseline, preferably foam capable

73
Q

What is the extinguishing agent of choice for fires involving all types of hydrocarbon or solvent fuels:

A

Alcohol resistant - aqueous film forming foam (AR-AFFF)

74
Q

When combustible metals are encountered during vehicle fires, firefighters should ____

A

utilize copious amounts of water

75
Q

Alcohol/ gasoline blended fuels are ____.

A

water soluble gasoline blends

76
Q

Alcohol fuels do not react to standard fire fighting methods. Water ____ the alcohol, producing a ____.

A
  • dilutes

* running fuel fire

77
Q

Ethanol and methanol fires burn ____, and produce ____, making them hard to see during daylight hours. Using ____ can help locate the fire. Use ____ to extinguish the fire.

A
  • bright blue
  • little smoke
  • a thermal imager
  • AR-AFFF
78
Q

In the presence of a natural gas fire, it is recommended to ____

A

allow the fire to burn off all the fuel as long as no lives or exposures are threatened.

79
Q

When water is applied directly to an LNG fire it ____ increasing ____, therefore increasing ____.

A
  • warms the liquid
  • the amount of vapor production
  • the intensity of the fire
80
Q

Control LNG fires by using ____

A
  • Purple K dry chemical agent or high expansion foam on the surface of the fire.
81
Q

Rescuers should exercise caution when performing extrication operations around LNG in order to ____

A

prevent their release and ignition.

82
Q

Use ____ to extinguish a CNG fire, use ____ to disperse CNG vapor clouds.

A
  • water or foam

* a fog stream

83
Q

____ is the third most common vehicle fuel type after gasoline and diesel.

A

Propane

84
Q

How should hydrogen fuel fires in vehicles be handled:

A
  • Locate the fires with a thermal imager as they are not easily seen.
  • Do not extinguish hydrogen fuel fires, protect exposures and allow the fuel to burn off.
85
Q

Bio diesel fuel

A

A yellow liquid with an odor of cooking oil that is non-toxic, biodegradable, and sulfur free. Biodiesel can be used in any vehicle designed to use diesel.

86
Q

Extinguishing agent for Lead-acid batteries

A

Carbon dioxide, foam, or dry chemical

87
Q

Extinguishing agent for Nickel metal hydride batteries

A

Class D extinguisher (metal X or similar)

88
Q

Extinguishing agent for Lithium-ion batteries

A

Dry sand, sodium chloride powder, graphite powder, or copper powder

89
Q

The most common hazardous materials found at passenger vehicle incidents are ____

A

the fuels that propel the vehicles.

90
Q

Before approaching a crashed medium or heavy truck, ____

A

stop a safe distance away and use binoculars to look for hazardous materials labels or placards.

91
Q

Pedestrians fleeing the scene may be the first indication of the need to ____

A

stop and assess the scene before approaching.