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General and Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist > Chapter 4 DENT 1060 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 DENT 1060 Flashcards

Infectious Diseases

1
Q 
1. The most specific of the body's defense mechanisms against infection is:
A. Intact skin
B. The immune response
C. Skin secretions
D. The inflammatory response
A

B. The immune response

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2
Q
  1. Which statement is FALSE?
    A. The primary lesion of syphilis is called a chancre.
    B. The secondary lesion of syphilis occurs at the site of an inoculation with the organism.
    C. The tertiary lesion of syphilis is called a gumma.
    D. Syphilis is caused by the spirochete TREPONEMA PALLIDUM.
A

B. The secondary lesion of syphilis occurs at the site of an inoculation with the organism.

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3
Q 
3. Perioral lesions of Impetigo maybe resemble:
A. Syphilis
B. recurrent herpes simplex infection
C. Herpes Zoster
D. Actinomycosis
A

B. recurrent herpes simplex infectionAnswer

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4
Q 
Which of the following is NOT associated with group A, B-hemolytic streptococcal infection?
A. Tonsillitis 
B. Syphilis
C. Scarlet fever
D. Rheumatic fever
A

B. Syphilis

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5
Q 
Oral candidiasis is caused by a:
A. Bacterium
B. Yeastlike fungus
C. Spirochete
D. Ptrotozoan
A

B. Yeastlike fungus

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6
Q

Which statement is FALSE?
A. Angular cheilitis may be caused by Candida albicans.
B. White lesions resulting from candidiasis may not rub off the mucosal surface.
C. Erythematous candidiasis is usually completely asymptomatic.
D. Denture stomatitis may be a form of oral candidiasis.

A

C. Erythematous candidiasis is usually completely asymptomatic.

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7
Q 
Which type of infection is involved when normal components of the oral microflora can cause disease?
A. Chronic inflammatory
B. Opportunistic
C. Hyperplastic
D. Granulomatous
A

B. Opportunistic

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8
Q 
The most characteristic clinical feature of herpes zoster is: 
A. Ulcer formation
B. Pain
C. Unilateral distribution of lesions
D. Abscesses that drain through fistulas
A

C. Unilateral distribution of lesions

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9
Q 
A cytologic smear may be helpful in the diagnosis of:
A. Coxsackievirus infection
B. Human papillomavirus infection
C. Tuberculosis
D. Candidiasis
A

D. Candidiasis

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10
Q 
Which condition is NOT associated with the Epstein-Barr virus?
A. Hairy leukoplakia
B. Herpangina
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
A

B. Herpangina

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11
Q 
Which of the following stages of syphilis is NOT infectious?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. All stages are equally infectious
A

C. Tertiary

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with syphilis?
A. Mucous patch
B. Venereal Disease Research Laboratories and fluorescent treponemal antibody
C. Dark-field microscopy
D. Hypodontia

A

D. Hypodontia

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13
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms causes tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacterium israelii
B. Actinomycosis israelii
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Treponema pallidum
A

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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14
Q 
A positive skin reaction to PPD indicates:
A. Active tuberculosis
B. Contagious tuberculosis
C. Infection with tuberculosis bacteria
D. Need for antibiotic therapy
A

C. Infection with tuberculosis bacteria

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15
Q 
A specific clinical characteristic found in actinomycosis is:
A. Periapical radiolucency
B. Filamentous bacteria
C. Fungal infection
D. Sulfur granules present in exudates
A

D. Sulfur granules present in exudates

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16
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a clinical characteristic of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
A. Painful gingiva
B. Xerostomia
C. Foul odor
D. Metallic taste
A

B. Xerostomia

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17
Q 
Which of the following is associated with chronic osteomyelitis?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Paget disease
C. Radiation treatment involving bone
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

18
Q 
Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of oral candidiasis?
A. Antibiotic therapy
B. HIV infection
C. Xerostomia
D. Herpangina
A

D. Herpangina

19
Q

Verruca vulgaris:
A. Clinically resembles an irritative fibroma
B. Is caused by a human papillomavirus
C. Is most commonly seen on the buccal mucosa
D. Clinically resembles a pyogenic granuloma

A

B. Is caused by a human papillomavirus

20
Q 
Another name for a common wart is:
A. Papilloma
B. Verruca vulgaris
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Fibroma
A

B. Verruca vulgaris

21
Q 
Which of the following is caused by a papillomavirus and is considered a sexually transmitted disease?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Syphilis
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Infectious mononucleosis
A

C. Condyloma acuminatum

22
Q 
Painful oral ulcers, gingivitis, fever, malaise, and cervical lymphadenopathy in a child younger than 6 years old would cause the hygienist to suspect which of the following diseases?
A. Herpangina
B. Heck disease
C. Primary herpes simplex infection
D. Herpetic whitlow
A

C. Primary herpes simplex infection

23
Q 
The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is:
A. Herpes zoster
B. Herpetic whitlow
C. Herpangina
D. Herpes labialis
A

D. Herpes labialis

24
Q 
The primary infection with the varicella-zoster virus is called:
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Chickenpox
C. Shingles
D. Measles
A

B. Chickenpox

25
Q 
Herpangina is caused by:
A. Coxsackievirus
B. Herpes simples virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus
A

A. Coxsackievirus

26
Q

Antibody testing to determine whether a person has been infected with HIV includes which of the following tests?
A. Schilling
B. Complete blood count
C. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and Western blot

A

D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and Western blot

27
Q 
Which one of the following oral conditions is an early sign of a deficiency in the immune system and is commonly found in patients with HIV infection?
A. Geographic tongue
B. Advanced periodontitis
C. Candidiasis
D. Histoplasmosis
A

C. Candidiasis

28
Q 
Hairy leukoplakia most commonly occurs on the:
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Dorsal tongue
C. Lateral tongue
D. Soft palate
A

C. Lateral tongue

29
Q 
Which one of the following oral conditions is NOT a lesion associated with HIV or AIDS?
A. Candidiasis
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. Leukoedema
A

D. Leukoedema

30
Q

Linear gingival erythema has specific characteristics that include spontaneous bleeding, petechiae on the attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa, and a band of erythema at the gingival margin. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. These tissues respond well to scaling and root planing.
B. Excellent oral hygiene and home care techniques will eliminate these gingival conditions.
C. This condition will automatically develop into advanced periodontal disease in all patients infected with HIV.
D. Patients with linear gingival erythema do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques; the gingival condition exists independently of the patient’s oral hygiene status.

A

D. Patients with linear gingival erythema do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques; the gingival condition exists independently of the patient’s oral hygiene status.

30
Q

Granuloma

A

A tumor-like mass of inflammatory tissue consisting of a central collection of macrophages, often including multinucleated giant cells, surrounded by lymphocytes.

31
Q

Granulomatous disease

A

I disease characterized by the formation of granulomas.

32
Q

Herpetic Whitlow

A

An infection caused by herpes simplex virus infection that involves the distal phalanx of a finger.

33
Q

Incubation period

A

The period between the infection of an individual by a pathogen and the manifestation of the disease it causes.

34
Q

Malaise

A

I vague, indefinite feeling of discomfort, debilitation, or lack of health.

35
Q

Opportunistic infection

A

I do these caused by microorganisms that does not ordinarily cause disease but becomes pathogenic under certain circumstances.

36
Q

Paresthesia

A

An abnormal sensation such as burning, prickling, or tingling.

37
Q

Pathogenic microorganism

A

A microorganism that causes disease.

38
Q

Pruritus

A

Itching.

39
Q

Subclinical infection

A

And infectious disease not detectable by the usual clinical signs.

General and Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist (10 decks)

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