Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General and Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist > Chapter 2 DENT 1060 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 DENT 1060 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is the body's initial response to injury?
A. The immune response
B. The inflammatory response
C. Repair
D. Hyperplasia
A

B. The inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What type of inflammation occurs if the injury is minimal and brief and the source is removed from the tissue?
A. Fatal 
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Life-threatening
A

B. Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During the inflammatory response, the first microscopic event is:
A. Dilation of the microcirculation
B. Increased permeability of the microcirculation
C. Formation of exudate
D. Constriction of the microcirculation

A

D. Constriction of the microcirculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which one of the following conditions is considered a chronic inflammatory lesion?
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Aspirin burn
A

B. Periapical granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
The directed movement of white blood cells to the area of injury is called:
A. Pavementing
B. Margination
C. Chemotaxis
D. Hyperemia
A

C. Chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which of the following cells are the most prevalent cells seen in chronic inflammation?
A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages and lymphocytes
C. Lymphocytes and plasma cells
D. Neutrophils and lymphocytes
A

C. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
The macrophage has many functions. Which of the following is NOT a function of the macrophage?
A. Phagocytosis 
B. Removal of large foreign matter
C. Removal of inhaled particles
D. Formation of antibodies
A

D. Formation of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Which of the following is the term used to describe blood plasma with cells and proteins that leaves the blood vessels and enters the surrounding tissues during inflammation?
A. Hyperemia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Margination
D. Exudate
A

D. Exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The process of phagocytosis during inflammation directly involves the:
A. Ingestion of foreign substances by white blood cells
B. Escape of plasma fluids and proteins from the microcirculation into the surrounding tissues
C. Displacement of white blood cells to the blood vessel walls
D. Attachment of white blood cells to the blood vessel walls

A

A. Ingestion of foreign substances by white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning the neutrophil? The neutrophil:
A. Makes up 30% of white blood cells
B. Contains lysosomal enzymes
C. Is a cell whose main function is phagocytosis
D. Has a multilobed nucleus

A

A. Makes up 30% of white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
During the process of inflammation, the second type of white blood cell to emigrate from the blood vessel into the injured tissue is the:
A. Neutrophil
B. Red blood cell
C. Lymphocyte
D. Macrophage
A

D. Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Components of the complement system mediate the inflammatory process by:
A. Decreasing vascular permeability
B. Releasing histamine granules from neutrophils
C. Causing cytolysis of cells
D. Decreasing phagocytosis

A

C. Causing cytolysis of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Two days after injury, granulation tissue can be described as:
A. Immature vascular connective tissue
B. Fluid in the form of exudate
C. Dense avascular connective tissue
D. Ulcerated tissue
A

A. Immature vascular connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The enlargement of superficial lymph nodes that occurs as a systemic sign of inflammation is:
A. Called leukocytosis
B. Regulated by the hypothalamus
C. Caused by changes in their lymphocytes
D. A process that involves only the lymph nodes in the submental area

A

C. Caused by changes in their lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which statement concerning repair in the body is TRUE?
A. Repair can be completed with the injurious agents present
B. Functioning cells and tissue components are always replaced by functioning scar tissue
C. Repair always results in regeneration
D. The process of repair is initiated by the inflammatory response

A

D. The process of repair is initiated by the inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The clot that forms during repair after injury:
A. Consists of fibrous connective tissue
B. Serves as a guide for migrating epithelial cells
C. Forms after skin injury, but not after mucosal injury
D. Occurs only with healing by secondary intention

A

B. Serves as a guide for migrating epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Healing by secondary intention refers to healing of an injury when:
A. The incision has clean edges joined by sutures
B. Only a small clot forms
C. An infection forms in the injured area
D. There is increased formation of granulation tissue

A

D. There is increased formation of granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which of the following is the term used to describe an increase in the size of an organ or tissue resulting from an increase in the number of its cells?
A. Hyperemia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Inflammation
D. Hypertrophy
A

B. Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Normal bone tissue repair in the body can be delayed by:
A. Maintenance of osteoblast-producing tissues
B. Inadequate movement of bone tissue
C. Drainage of an area of edema
D. Reduction in the amount of tissue infection

A

B. Inadequate movement of bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Which one of the following lesions would clinically appear as a pigmented lesion?
A. Amalgam tattoo
B. Traumatic ulcer
C. Frictional keratosis
D. Aspirin burn
A

A. Amalgam tattoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Attrition is the wearing away of tooth structure during mastication
B. Bruxism is the same process as mastication
C. Erosion is the loss of tooth structure resulting from chemical action
D. Abrasion is caused by mechanical, repetitive habits

A

B. Bruxism is the same process as mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Loss of tooth structure associated with bulimia is caused by:
A. Attrition
B. Erosion
C. Bruxism
D. Abrasion
A

B. Erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
An aspirin burn in the oral cavity:
A. Occurs as a result of an overdose of aspirin
B. Is usually painless
C. Results from a misuse of aspirin
D. Usually takes several weeks to heal
A

C. Results from a misuse of aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
A patient has a generalized white appearance of the palate. Tiny erythematous dots can be seen, surrounded by a thickened, raised, white-to-gray area. Overall the palate appears wrinkled. This condition is most likely:
A. Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
B. Nicotine stomatitis
C. An aspirin burn
D. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
A

B. Nicotine stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
Which of the following is the most common cause of a mucocele?
A. Acute inflammation
B. Tumor formation
C. Minor salivary gland duct trauma
D. A sialotlith
A

C. Minor salivary gland duct trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
A ranula is located on the:
A. Lower lip
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Retromolar area
D. Floor of the mouth
A

D. Floor of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
Which one of the following lesions would NOT occur on the gingiva?
A. Irritation fibroma
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Giant cell granuloma
D. Epulis fissuratum
A

D. Epulis fissuratum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Generalized loss of tooth structure primarily on the lingual surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth is associated with:
A. Erosion
B. Attrition
C. Abrasion
D. Abraction
A

A. Erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
Which of the following may be a cause of external tooth resorption?
A. Caries
B. Salivary gland dysfunction
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Medication
A

A. Caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
Which one of the following is considered to be the most likely cause of necrotizing sialometaplasia?
A. Loss of blood supply
B. Radiation therapy
C. Smoking
D. A sialolith
A

A. Loss of blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
The most common site for a mucocele to occur is the:
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Tongue
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Lower lip
A

D. Lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
The peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs only on the:
A. Gingiva or alveolar mucosa
B. Hard palate
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Floor of the mouth
A

A. Gingiva or alveolar mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A sialotlith is:
A. Chronic inflammation of a salivary gland
B. Acute inflammation of a salivary gland
C. A pooling of saliva in the connective tissue
D. A salivary gland stone

A

D. A salivary gland stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. A periapical cyst develops from a periapical granuloma
B. A periapical abscess always causes radiographic periapical changes
C. A periapical granuloma is a circumscribed area of chronically inflamed tissue
D. A periapical cyst is also a radicular cyst

A

B. A periapical abscess always causes radiographic periapical changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Epulis fissuratum results from irritation caused by:
A. A denture flange
B. Denture adhesive
C. Poor suction from the denture in the palatal vault
D. An allergic reaction to the acrylic in the denture

A

A. A denture flange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. A traumatic neuroma is never painful
B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is considered a denture-related lesion
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is similar to gingival hyperplasia
D. Gingival enlargement may be caused by medication

A

D. Gingival enlargement may be caused by medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Loss of tooth structure caused by chemical action describes:
A. Abrasion
B. Internal resorption
C. Erosion
D. Attrition
A

C. Erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Which of the following cysts is characteristically associated with a tooth that is nonvital on pulp testing?
A. Residual
B. Radicular
C. Dentigerous
D. Dermoid
A

B. Radicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
Which of the following cysts results when a tooth is extracted without removing the periapical cystic sac?
A. Radicular
B. Primordial
C. Residual
D. Periodontal
A

C. Residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The most common cause of a radicular cyst is:
A. Deep restorations without a base
B. Caries
C. Occlusal trauma
D. Toothbrush abrasion at the cemento-enamel junction

A

B. Caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
The wearing away of tooth structure through an abnormal mechanical action defines:
A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Erosion
D. Resorption
A

B. Abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT associated with attrition?
A. Toothpaste
B. Bruxism
C. Mastication
D. Age
A

A. Toothpaste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Heavy plaque and calculus deposits, mouth breathing, orthodontic appliances, and overhanging restorations best describe some of the causative factors for:
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) hyperplasia
B. A reaction from nifedipine (Procardia)
C. Irritation fibromatosis
D. Chemical firbromatosis

A

C. Irritation fibromatosis

44
Q 
A pink, granular or "cobblestone"-like appearance of the hard palate under a denture is most likely:
A. Nicotine stomatitis
B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
C. Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
D. Multiple fibromas
A

C. Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

45
Q 
During examination of the dentition, the dental hygienist notes the presence of active wear facets. This indicates that the patient is:
A. Chewing too vigorously
B. A bruxer
C. A vegetarian
D. Lip biting
A

B. A bruxer

46
Q 
A patient has a loss of tooth structure on the labial surfaces of the anterior teeth and reports a high intake of citrus fruit juices. The dental hygienist would most likely suspect:
A. Abrasion
B. Bulimia
C. Bruxism
D. Erosion
A

D. Erosion

47
Q

The amalgam tattoo represents amalgam particles in the tissue and is most commonly observed in the oral cavity on the:
A. Lateral borders of the tongue
B. Anterior palate near the rugae
C. Floor of the mouth
D. Posterior gingiva and edentulous ridge

A

D. Posterior gingiva and edentulous ridge

48
Q 
A pink protruding mass in the occlusal surface of a severely carious mandibular first or second molar is most likely a(n):
A. Irritation fibroma
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Pulp polyp
D. Pulpal granuloma
A

C. Pulp polyp

49
Q 
Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Cyclosporine
C. Nifedipine (Procardia)
D. Tetracycline
A

D. Tetracycline

50
Q

Traumatic ulcers are usually diagnosed on the basis of:
A. The patient’s medical history
B. The clinical appearance and history of the ulcers
C. The results of a biopsy and microscopic examination
D. A therapeutic diagnosis

A

B. The clinical appearance and history of the ulcers

51
Q 
Which of the following might be identified on a radiograph?
A. Mucocele
B. Sialolith
C. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
D. Chronic sialadenitis
A

B. Sialolith

52
Q

Which of the following is FALSE concerning actinic cheilitis?
A. It affects the vermilion of the lips
B. It is caused by sun exposure
C. It usually involves the upper lip more severely than the lower lip
D. It can be identified by clinical changes in the appearance of the lips

A

C. It usually involves the upper lip more severely than the lower lip

53
Q 
All of the following are systemic manifestations of inflammation except:
A. Leukocytosis
B. Fever
C. Hyperemia and erythema
D. Lymphadenopathy
A

C. Hyperemia and erythema

54
Q 
A raised, white line is seen on the buccal mucosa at the level of the occlusal plane. This is best called:
A. Frictional keratosis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Linea alba
D. A traumatic ulcer
A

C. Linea alba

55
Q

Which of the following is FALSE concerning a traumatic neuroma? It is:
A. Caused by an injury to a peripheral nerve
B. Composed of nerve tissue completely surrounded by a fibrous connective tissue capsule
C. Composed of a proliferation of small nerves
D. Often painful

A

B. Composed of nerve tissue completely surrounded by a fibrous connective tissue capsule

56
Q 
Enhancement of phagocytosis is called:
A. Opsonization
B. Abfraction
C. Transudate
D. Chemotaxis
A

A. Opsonization

57
Q 
Wedge-shaped defects at the cervical area of teeth define which of the following terms?
A. Erosion
B. Abfraction
C. Attrition
D. Abrasion
A

B. Abfraction

58
Q 
Condensing osteitis is diagnosed mainly through which type of diagnostic process?
A. Clinical
B. Radiographic
C. Laboratory
D. Therapeutic
A

B. Radiographic

59
Q

Abscess

A

a collection of purulent exudate that has accumulated in a cavity formed by the tissue

60
Q

Actinic

A

relating to or exhibiting chemical changes produced by radiant energy, especially the visible and ultraviolet parts of the spectrum; relating to exposure to the UV rays of sunlight

61
Q

Acute

A

a course of disease that is either of short duration or one that is both short and relatively severe

62
Q

Angiogenesis

A

the formation and differentiation of blood vessels

63
Q

Atrophy

A

the decrease in size and function of a cell, tissue, organ, or whole body

64
Q

Central

A

describes a lesion that is at the center of an involved area; in the context of oral lesions, it indicates that the lesion is within bone

65
Q

Chemotaxis

A

the movement of white blood cells, as directed by biochemical mediators, to an area of injury

66
Q

Chronic

A

course of disease persisting for a long time

67
Q

C-reactive protein

A

a nonspecific protein, produced in the liver, that becomes elevated during episodes of acute inflammation or infection

68
Q

Cyst

A

an abnormal sac or cavity lined by epithelium and surrounded by fibrous connective tissue

69
Q

Cytolysis

A

the dissolution or destruction of a cell

70
Q

Edema

A

excess plasma or exudate in the interstitial space that results in tissue swelling

71
Q

Emigration

A

the passage of white blood cells through the walls of small blood vessels and into injured tissue

72
Q

Epithelialization

A

the process of being covered with epithelium

73
Q

Erythema

A

redness of the skin or mucosa

74
Q

Exudate

A

fluid with a high protein content that leaves the microcirculation during an inflammatory response; an exudate consists of serum that contains white blood cells, fibrin, and other protein molecules

75
Q

Fever

A

an elevation of body temperature to greater than the normal level of 37C or 98.6F

76
Q

Fibroplasia

A

the formation of fibrous tissue, as normally occurs in healing

77
Q

Fistula

A

an abnormal passage that leads from an abscess to the body surface

78
Q

Granulation tissue

A

the initial connective tissue formed in healing

79
Q

Granuloma

A

a collection of macrophages usually surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes

80
Q

Hyperemia

A

an excess of blood within blood vessels in a part of the body

81
Q

Hyperplasia

A

an enlargement of a tissue or organ resulting from an increase in the number of normal cells; the result of increased cell division

82
Q

Hypertrophy

A

an enlargement of a tissue or organ resulting from an increase in the size of its individual cells, but not in the number of cells

83
Q

Inflammation

A

a nonspecific response to injury that involves the microcirculation and its blood cells

84
Q

Leukocytosis

A

a temporary increase in the number of white blood cells circulating in the blood

85
Q

Local

A

a disease process that is confined to a limited location in the body; not general or systemic

86
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

abnormal enlargement of lymph nodes

87
Q

Macrophage

A

the second type of white blood cell to arrive at a site of injury; it participates in phagocytosis during inflammation and continues to be active in the immune response

88
Q

Margination

A

a process during inflammation in which white blood cells tend to move to the periphery of the blood vessel at the site of injury

89
Q

Microcirculation

A

small blood vessels, including arterioles, capillaries, and venules

90
Q

Myofibroblast

A

a fibroblast that has some of the characteristics of smooth muscle cells, such as the ability to contract

91
Q

Necrosis

A

the pathologic death of one or more cells, or a portion of tissue, or an organ that results from irreversible damage to cells

92
Q

Neutrophil

A

the first white blood cell to arrive at a site of injury; the primary cell involved in acute inflammation; also called POLYMORPHONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTE

93
Q

Opacification

A

the process of becoming opaque

94
Q

Opsonization

A

the enhancement of phagocytosis by a process in which a pathogen is marked, with opsonins, for destruction by phagocytes

95
Q

Pavementing

A

the adherence of white blood cells to blood vessel walls during inflammation

96
Q

Peripheral

A

located away from the center; in the context of oral lesions, peripheral indicates that the lesion is within the gingival tissue or alveolar mucosa

97
Q

Phagocytosis

A

the ingestion and digestion of particulate material by cells

98
Q

Purulent

A

a secretion containing or forming pus

99
Q

Radicular

A

pertaining to the root of a tooth

100
Q

Regeneration

A

the process by which injured tissue is replaced with tissue identical to that present before the injury

101
Q

Repair

A

the restoration of damaged or diseased tissues by cellular change and growth

102
Q

Serous

A

a secretion having a watery consistency; relating to serum

103
Q

Systemic

A

pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole; a disease process pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole

104
Q

Transudate

A

the fluid component of blood that normally passes through the endothelial cell walls of the microcirculation

105
Q

Traumatic injury

A

a disease process that results from injury that causes tissue damage

106
Q

Waldeyer’s ring

A

the ring of lymphatic tissue formed by the two palatine tonsils, the pharyngeal tonsil, the lingual tonsil, and intervening lymphoid tissue

106
Q

Wheal

A

A localized swelling of tissue because of a edema during inflammation, often accompanied by severe itching

General and Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions