Chapter 4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

H & P

A

History and Physical
documentation of patient history and physical exam findings
usually the first document entered into the patient’s hospital record on admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hx

A

History
record of subjective information regarding the patient’s personal medical history, including past injuries, illnesses, operations, defects, and habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

subjective information

A

information obtained from the patient including his or her personal perceptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CC

A

Chief Complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

c/o

A

complains of
patient’s description of what brought him or her to the doctor or hospital; it is usually brief and is often documented in the patient’s own words indicated within quotes
Example: left lower back pain; patient states, “I feel like I swallowed a stick and it got stuck in my back”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HPI (PI)

A

History of Present Illness (Present Illness)
amplification of the chief complaint recording details of the duration and severity of the condition (how long the patient has had the complaint and how bad is it)
Example: the patient has had left lower back pain for the past two weeks since slipping on a rug and landing on her left side; the pain worsens after sitting upright for any extended period but gradually subsides after lying in a supine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sx

A
symptom
subjective evidence (from the patient) that indicates an abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PMH (PH)

A

Past Medical History (Past History)
a record of information about the patient’s past illnesses starting with childhood, including surgical operations, injuries, physical defects, medications, and allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

UCHD

A

usual childhood diseases
an abbreviation used to note that the patient had the “usual” or commonly contracted illnesses during childhood (e.g. measles, chickenpox, mumps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

NKA

A

no known allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NKDA

A

no known drug allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FH

A

Family History
state of health of immediate family members
A & W (alive and well) or L & W (living and well)
Example: father, age 92, L & W; mother, age 91, died, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SH

A

Social History
a record of the patient’s recreational interests, hobbies, and use of tobacco and drugs, including alcohol
Example: plays tennis twice/week; tobacco - none; alcohol - drinks 1-2 beers/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

OH

A

Occupational History
a record of work habits that may involve work-related risks
Example: the patient has been employed as a heavy equipment operator for the past 6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ROS (SR)

A

Review of Systems (Systems Review)
a documentation of the patient’s response to questions organized by a head-to-toe review of the function of all body systems (note: this review allows evaluation of other symptoms that may not have been mentioned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PE (Px)

A

Physical Examination

documentation of a physical examination of a patient, including notations of positive and negative objective findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

objective information

A

facts and observations noted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HEENT

A

head, eyes, ears, nose throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NAD

A

no acute distress, no appreciable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PERRLA

A

pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WNL

A

within normal limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dx

A

Diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IMP

A

Impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A

A

Assessment
identification of a disease or condition after evaluation of the patient’s history, symptoms, signs, and results of laboratory tests and diagnostic procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

R/O

A

Rule Out
used to indicate a differential diagnosis when one or more diagnoses are suspect; each possible diagnosis is outlined and either verified or eliminated after further testing is performed
Example: R/O pancreatitis
R/O gastroenteritis
this indicates that either of these two diagnoses is suspected and further testing is required to verify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

P

A

Plan (also referred to as recommendation or disposition)
outline of the treatment plan designed to remedy the patient’s condition, which includes instructions to the patient, orders for medications, diagnostic tests, or therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

problem-oriented medical record (POMR)

A

method of record keeping introduced in the 1960s
highly organized approach that encourages a precise method of documenting the logical thought processes of health care professionals
data are organized so that information can be accessed readily at a glance, with a focus on the patient’s health problem(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

problem list

A

directory of the patient’s problems; each problem is listed and often assigned a number
problems include a specific diagnosis, a sign or symptom, an abnormal diagnostic test result, and any other problem that may influence health or well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

initial plan

A

the strategy employed to resolve each problem
includes 3 subdivisions: diagnostic plan (orders are given for specific diagnostic testing to confirm suspicions), therapeutic plan (goals for therapy), and patient education (instructions communicated to the patient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

progress notes

A

documentation of the progress concerning each problem

organized using the SOAP format

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

S of SOAP format

A

subjective

that which the patient describes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

O of SOAP format

A
objective
observable information (e.g. test results, BP readings)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A of SOAP format

A

assessment
patient’s progress and evaluation of the plan’s effectiveness (note: any new problem identified is added to the problem list, and a separate plan for its treatment is recorded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

P of SOAP format

A

plan

decision to proceed or alter the plan strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hospital records

A

includes history and physical, consent form, informed consent, physician’s orders, diagnostic tests/laboratory reports, nurse’s notes, physician’s progress notes, ancillary reports, consultation report, operative report (op report), pathology report, anesthesiologist’s report, discharge summary/clinical resume/clinical summary/discharge abstract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

consent form

A

document signed by the patient or legal guardian giving permission for medical or surgical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

informed consent

A

consent of a patient after being informed of the risks and benefits of a procedure and alternatives - often required by law when a reasonable risk is involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

physician’s orders

A

a record of all orders directed by the attending physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

diagnostic tests/laboratory reports

A

records of results of various tests and procedures used in evaluating and treating a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

nurse’s notes

A

documentation of patient care by the nursing staff (note: flow sheets and graphs are often used to display recordings of vital signs and other monitored procedures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

physician’s progress notes

A

physician’s daily account of patient’s response to treatment, including results of tests, assessment, and future treatment plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ancillary reports

A

miscellaneous records of procedures or therapies provided during a patient’s care (e.g. physical therapy, respiratory therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

consultation report

A

report filed by a specialist asked by the attending physician to evaluate a difficult cases (note: a patient may also see another physician in consultation as an outpatient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

operative report (op report)

A

surgeon’s detailed account of the operation including the method of incision, technique, instruments used, types of sutures, method of closure, and the patient’s responses during the procedure and at the time of transfer to recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pathology report

A

report of the findings of a pathologist after the study tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

anesthesiologist’s report

A

anesthesiologist’s or anesthetist’s report of the details of anesthesia during surgery, including the drugs used, dose and time given, and records indicating monitoring of the patient’s vital status throughout the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

discharge summary
clinical resume
clinical summary
discharge abstract

A

four terms that describe an outline summary of the patient’s hospital care, including date of admission, diagnosis, course of treatment, final diagnosis, and date of discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CCU

A

coronary (cardiac) care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ECU

A

emergency care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ER

A

emergency room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ICU

A

intensive care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

IP

A

inpatient (a registered bed patient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

OP

A

outpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

OR

A

operating room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

PACU

A

postanesthetic care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PAR

A

post anesthetic recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

post-op/postop

A

postoperative (after surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pre-op/preop

A

preoperative (before surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

RTC

A

return to clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

RTO

A

return to office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

BRP

A

bathroom privileges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

CP

A

chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DC

D/C

A

discharge
discontinue
error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out “discontinue” or “discharge”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ETOH

A

ethyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

circled L

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

circled R

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

pt

A

patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

RRR

A

regular rate and rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SOB

A

shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tr

A

treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tx

A

treatment or traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

VS

A

vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T

A

temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

P

A

pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

R

A

respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

BP

A

blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Ht

A

height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Wt

A

weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

WDWN

A

well-developed and well-nourished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

y.o.

A

year old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

#

A

number if before the numeral (#2 = number 2)

pound if after the numeral (150# = 150 pounds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

2 most common laboratory tests performed as part of a general health inquiry or to rule out a particular condition

A

complete blood count (CBC) and urinalysis (UA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ionizing diagnostic imaging modalities

A

changes the electrical charge of atoms with a possible effect on body cells
overexposure to ionizing radiation can have harmful side effects
common modalities include radiography (x-ray), computed tomography (CT), and nuclear medicine imaging or radio nucleotide organ imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

nonionizing diagnostic imaging modalities

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI; particularly useful in examining soft tissues, joints, and the brain and spinal cord) and sonography (diagnostic ultrasound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

use of contrast

A

some imaging procedures require the internal administration of a contrast medium to enhance the visualization of anatomical structures
contrast media are diverse and include barium, iodinated compounds, gasses (air, carbon dioxide), and other chemicals known to increase visual clarity
can be injected, swallowed, or introduced through an enema or catheter depending on the medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

acute

A

sharp

having intense, often severe symptoms and a short course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

chronic

A

a condition developing slowly and persisting over time

88
Q

benign

A

mild or noncancerous

89
Q

malignant

A

harmful or cancerous

90
Q

degeneration

A

gradual deterioration of normal cells and body functions

91
Q

degenerative disease

A

any disease in which there is deterioration of structure for function of tissue

92
Q

diagnosis

A

determination of the presence of a disease based on an evaluation of symptoms, signs, and test findings (results)

93
Q

etiology

A

cause of a disease

94
Q

exacerbation

A

increase in severity of a disease with aggravation of symptoms

95
Q

remission

A

a period in which symptoms and signs stop or abate

96
Q

febrile

A

relating to a fever (elevated temperature)

97
Q

gross

A

large

visible to the naked eye

98
Q

idiopathic

A

a condition occurring without a clearly identified cause

99
Q

localized

A

limited to a definite area or part

100
Q

systemic

A

relating to the whole body rather than only a part

101
Q

malaise

A

a feeling of unwellness

often the first indication of illness

102
Q

marked

A

significant

103
Q

equivocal

A

vague, questionable

104
Q

morbidity

A

sick

a state of disease

105
Q

morbidity rate

A

the number of cases of a disease in a given year

the ratio of sick to well individuals in a given population

106
Q

mortality

A

the state of being subject to death

107
Q

mortality rate

A

death rate

ratio of total number of deaths to total number in a given population

108
Q

prognosis

A

foreknowledge
prediction of the likely outcome of a disease based on the general health status of the patient along with knowledge of the usual course of the disease

109
Q

progressive

A

the advance of a condition as signs and symptoms increase in severity

110
Q

prophylaxis

A

a process or measure that prevents disease

111
Q

recurrent

A

to occur again

describes a return of symptoms and signs after a period of quiescence (rest or inactivity)

112
Q

sequela

A

a disorder or condition after, and usually resulting from, a previous disease or injury

113
Q

sign

A

a mark

objective evidence of disease that can be seen or verified by an examiner

114
Q

symptom

A

occurrence

subjective evidence of disease that is perceived by the patient and is often noted in his or her own words

115
Q

syndrome

A

a running together
combination of symptoms and signs that give a distinct clinical picture indicating a particular condition or disease (e.g. menopausal syndrome)

116
Q

noncontributory

A

not involved in bringing on the condition or result

117
Q

unremarkable

A

not significant or worthy of noting

118
Q

cc

A

cubic centimeter
1 cc = 1 mL
error-prone abbreviation

119
Q

cm

A

centimeter

2.5 cm = 1 inch

120
Q

g

gm

A

gram

121
Q

kg

A

kilogram
1000 g
2.2 pounds

122
Q

L

A

liter

123
Q

mg

A

milligram

0.001 g

124
Q

mL

A

milliliter

0.001 L

125
Q

mm

A

millimeter

0.001 m

126
Q

cu mm

A

cubic millimeter

127
Q

fl oz

A

fluid ounce

128
Q

gr

A

grain

129
Q

gt

A

drop

130
Q

gtt

A

drops

131
Q

dr

A

dram

1/8 ounce

132
Q

oz

A

ounce

133
Q
lb
#
A

pound

16 ounces

134
Q

qt

A

quart

32 ounces

135
Q

tablet (tab)

capsule (cap)

A

forms: oral (per os; p.o), sublingual (SL), buccal

route of administration: by mouth, under the tongue in the cheek

136
Q

suppository

A

forms: vaginal (per vagina; PV), rectal (per rectum; PR)

route of administration: inserted in vagina, inserted in rectum

137
Q

fluid

A

forms: inhalation

route of administration: inhaled through nose or mouth

138
Q

parenteral

A

forms: by injection (intradermal - ID, intramuscular - IM, intravenous - IV, subcutaneous - Sub-Q)
route of administration: within the skin, within the muscle, within the vein, under the skin

139
Q

cream, lotion, ointment

A

forms: topical

route of administration: applied to the surface of the skin

140
Q

transdermal

A

route of administration: absorption of a drug through unbroken skin

141
Q

implant

A

route of administration: a drug reservoir imbedded in the body to provide continual infusion of a medication

142
Q

prescription

A

written direction by a physician for dispensing or administering a medication to a patient

143
Q

chemical name of a drug

A

assigned to a drug in the laboratory at the time it is invented

144
Q

generic name of a drug

A

the official, nonproprietary name given a drug

145
Q

trade or brand name of a drug

A

the manufacturer’s name for a drug

146
Q

q.d.

A

error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out daily)

every day

147
Q

q.o.d.

A

error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out every other day)
every other day

148
Q

AS
AD
AU

A

left ear
right ear
both ears
error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out)

149
Q

OS
OD
OU

A

left eye
right eye
both eyes
error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out)

150
Q

SC

SQ

A

error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out “subcutaneously” or use Sub-Q)
subcutaneous

151
Q

>

A

greater than
less than
error-prone abbreviation (preferred use: spell out)

152
Q

ā

A

before

Latin: ante

153
Q

a.c.

A

before meals

Latin: ante cibum

154
Q

a.m.

A

before noon

Latin: ante meridiem

155
Q

b.i.d.

A

twice a day

Latin: bis in die

156
Q

d

A

day

157
Q

h

A

hour

Latin: hora

158
Q

h.s.

A

at hour of sleep (bedtime)
Latin: hora somni
error-prone abbreviation

159
Q

noc.

A

night

Latin: noctis

160
Q

p

A

after

Latin: post

161
Q

p.c.

A

after meals

Latin: post cibum

162
Q

p.m.

A

after noon

Latin: post meridiem

163
Q

p.r.n.

A

as needed

Latin: pro re nata

164
Q

q

A

every

Latin: quaque

165
Q

q h

A

every hour

Latin: quaque hora

166
Q

q 2 h

A

every 2 hours

167
Q

q.i.d.

A

four times a day

Latin: quater in die

168
Q

STAT

A

immediately

Latin: statim

169
Q

t.i.d.

A

three times a day

Latin: ter in die

170
Q

wk

A

week

171
Q

yr

A

year

172
Q

ad lib.

A

as desired

Latin: ad libitum

173
Q

amt

A

amount

174
Q

aq

A

water

Latin: aqua

175
Q

C

A

celsius

centigrade

176
Q

ć

A

with

Latin: cum

177
Q

F

A

Farenheit

178
Q

NPO

A

nothing by mouth

Latin: non per os

179
Q

circled m

A

murmur

180
Q

circled B

A

bilateral

181
Q

per

A

by or through

182
Q

p.o.

A

by mouth

Latin: per os

183
Q

PR

A

through rectum

Latin: per rectum

184
Q

PV

A

through vagina

Latin: per vagina

185
Q

q.n.s.

A

quantity not sufficient

186
Q

q.s.

A

quantity sufficient

187
Q

Rx

A

recipe

prescription

188
Q

Sig:

A

label
instruction to the patient
Latin: signa

189
Q

ś

A

without

Latin: sine

190
Q

śś

A

one-half
Latin: semis
error-prone abbreviation

191
Q

w.a.

A

while awake

192
Q

x

A

times (e.g. x 6 = six times)

for (e.g. x 2 d = for 2 days)

193
Q

1:00 a.m.

A

0100

194
Q

2:00 a.m.

A

0200

195
Q

2:15 a.m.

A

0215

196
Q

3:00 a.m.

A

0300

197
Q

4:00 a.m.

A

0400

198
Q

5:00 a.m.

A

0500

199
Q

6:00 a.m.

A

0600

200
Q

7:00 a.m.

A

0700

201
Q

8:00 a.m.

A

0800

202
Q

9:00 a.m.

A

0900

203
Q

10:00 a.m.

A

1000

204
Q

11:00 a.m.

A

1100

205
Q

12:00 p.m.

noon

A

1200

206
Q

1:00 p.m.

A

1300

207
Q

2:00 p.m.

A

1400

208
Q

3:00 p.m.

A

1500

209
Q

4:00 p.m.

A

1600

210
Q

5:00 p.m.

A

1700

211
Q

6:00 p.m.

A

1800

212
Q

7:00 p.m.

A

1900

213
Q

8:00 p.m.

A

2000

214
Q

9:00 p.m.

A

2100

215
Q

10:00 p.m.

A

2200

216
Q

11:00 p.m.

A

2300

217
Q

12:00 a.m.

midnight

A

2400