Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Pathology > Chapter 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

whether an organism can cause disease depends on what

A
  • the microorganism

- the body’s defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 2 types of microorganisms divided according to

A
  • pathogenic (disease causing)

- nonpathogenic (non disease causing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the classes of infectious disease that can gain entry to the body

A
  • bacterial
  • fungal
  • viral
  • protozoan
  • helminthic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is an opportunistic infection

A
  • when an organism that usually is nonpathogenic causes disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is an infectious disease

A
  • microorganisms that penetrate epithelial surfaces as foreign bodies and stimulate a response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are a few different routes of infection

A
  • transferred through the air on dust particles or water droplets
  • some may require intimate and direct contact
  • some may be transferred by hands or objects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what can affect oral flora

A
  • changes in salivary flow
  • administration of antibiotics
  • changes in the immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens when microorganisms penetrate the epithelial surfaces as foreign bodies

A
  • stimulate the inflammatory response: nonspecific response that results in edema and the accumulation of a large number of white blood cells
  • stimulate the immune system: a highly specific response that results in the production of antibodies to the microorganisms that act as antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is tonsillitis/pharyngitis

A
  • often caused by bacteria/viruses

- streptococcal, influenza, epstein barr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is strep throat and scarlet fever caused by and what are common symptoms

A
  • endotoxins of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci

- produces rash on body and strawberry tongue – fungiform papillae are prominent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is rheumatic fever

A
  • can follow strep infection

- affects the heart, joints, CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is tuberculosis caused by

A
  • usually an organism called mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • chief form of disease is an infection of the lungs caused by the bacteria
  • this organism is resistant to destruction by macrophages
  • after being engulfed, they multiply in the macrophages and then disseminate in the bloodstream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis

A
  • fever, chills, fatigue and malaise, weight loss, persistent cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is miliary tuberculosis

A
  • involvement of organs such as kidney and liver in widespread areas of the body – enters bloodstream and becomes systemic
  • potential oral lesions but they are rare. appear as painful, nonhealing, superficial or deep slowly enlarging ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is tuberculosis contagious

A
  • when it is active
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is tuberculosis spread

A
  • coughing
  • laughing
  • sneezing
  • singing
  • talking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how can we diagnose tuberculosis

A
  • oral lesions: identified by biopsy and microscopic examination
  • chronic granulomatous lesions with areas of necrosis surrounded by macrophages, multinucleated giant cells, and lymphocytes
  • tissue may be stained to reveal organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do we test for TB

A
  • skin test: an antigen is injected into the skin (purified protein derivative – mantoux test)
  • a positive inflammatory reaction occurs if the person has previously been exposed to the antigen
  • chest radiographs may be taken after a positive skin test to see if lung damage/disease is present
  • sputum test for culture purposes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how can we treat TB

A
  • combination medications, including isoniazid and rifampin
  • tx may continue for 6 mo or years
  • ptes usually become noninfectious shortly after tx begins
  • pte’s physician should be consulted to determine whether pte is infectious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what causes syphillis

A
  • spirochete Treponema pallidum
  • transmitted by direct contact: the organisms die when exposed to air and changes in temperature
  • can penetrate mucous membranes, but not intact skin
  • usually transmitted through sexual contact but may be transmitted through transfusion of infected blood or to a fetus from an infected mother
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 3 stages of syphilis

A
  • within about 21 days of contact, but can be sooner or up to 90 days
  • primary stage
  • secondary stage
  • tertiary stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the primary stage

A
  • within about 21 days of contact, but can be sooner or up to 90 days
  • lesion of the primary stage is a chancre (shang-ker)
  • forms where the spirochete enters the body (mouth, anus, penis, vagina)
  • highly infectious BUT painless so can go un-noticed
  • heals spontaneously (within 3-6 weeks) and the disease enters a latent period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the secondary stage

A
  • diffuse eruptions occur on skin and mucous membranes
  • mucous patches: oral lesions that appear as multiple, painless, grayish white plaques covering ulcerated mucosa
  • these lesions are the MOST INFECTIOUS
  • undergo spontaneous remission but may recur for months or years
  • fever, malaise, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue
  • latent stage occurs after this (period of remission)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the tertiary stage

A
  • can be 10-30 years later
  • chiefly involves the cardiovascular system and the nervous system
  • lack of muscle coordination, paralysis, numbness, dementia
  • multiple organ involvement – eyes, heart, joints
  • gumma: a firm mass, noninfectious, a destruction lesion that can result in perforation of the palatal bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

overall, what are the oral lesions found in all 3 stages of syphillis

A
  • primary: chancre
  • secondary: mucous patch
  • latent: none
  • tertiary: gumma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is congenital syphilis

A
  • transmitted from an infected mother to the fetus
  • may cause serious and irreversible damage
  • facial and dental abnormalities
  • hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how do we diagnose and treat syphilis

A
  • lesions on skin may be diagnosed by dark-field microscopy
  • diagnosis confirmed by blood tests including VDRL and fluorescent terponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
  • tx: penicillin and retested
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

A
  • a painful, erythematous gingivitis with necrosis of interdental papillae (“punched out papillae”), foul odor and metallic taste
  • most likely caused by both a fusiform bacillus and a spirochete (borrelia vincentii)
  • associated with decrease resistance to infection
  • systemic symptoms: fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy
  • “trench mouth”: stress, smoking, poor nutrition, poor OHI contributory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do we diagnose and treat NUG

A
  • diagnosis: necrosis results in cratering of the interdental papillae. sloughing off necrotic tissue causes a pseudomembrane over the tissue
  • treatment: gentle debridement, CHX or hydrogen peroxide rinse. Antibiotics (metronidazole or penicillin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is pericoronitis

A
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • around partially impacted or erupted molar (operculum)
  • proliferation of bacteria
  • immunodeficiency increases risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how do we diagnose and treat pericoronitis

A
  • dx: clinical appearance; swollen, erythematous, painful

- tx: debridement and irrigation, antibiotics, extraction of impacted molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is acute osteomyelitis

A
  • acute inflammation of the bone marrow
  • most commonly the result of extension of a periapical abscess
  • may follow fracture of a bone
  • may result from bacteremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do we diagnose acute osteomyelitis

A
  • identification of the causative organism is based on culture results
  • tx is based on antibiotic sensitivity testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the treatment and prognosis of acute osteomyelitis like

A
  • drainage of the area
  • appropriate antibiotics
  • surgical debridement may also be required
  • prognosis is good
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is chronic osteomyelitis

A
  • a longstanding inflammation of bone
  • the involved bone is painful and swollen
  • radiographs reveal a diffuse and irregular radiolucency that can eventually become opaque
  • known as chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis when radiopacity develops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the non-treated acute phase of chronic osteomyelitis like

A
  • more painful and infected
  • radiolucent to opaque
  • also present post radiation therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how do we diagnose and treat chronic osteomyelitis

A
  • dx: biopsy, culture test

- tx: debridement, antibiotics, hyperbaric oxygen (reduces cell death and infection while maintaining tissue viability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is candidiasis

A
  • a fungal infection
  • yeast like fungus
  • most common oral fungal infection
  • candida albicans: normal oral flora, overgrowth, due to imbalance, may causes
  • the outcome of an overgrowth of candida albicans is candidiases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what can cause candidiasis

A
  • antibiotics
  • cancer chemotherapy
  • corticosteroid therapy
  • dentures
  • diabetes
  • HIV infection
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • infancy
  • multiple myeloma
  • primary T lymphocyte deficiency
  • xerostomia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how can we identify candidiasis

A
  • scraping of the lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is pseudomembranous candidiasis

A
  • a white curdlike material is present on the mucosal surface
  • the mucosa is erythematous underneath
  • the patient may complain of a burning sensation and/or metallic taste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is erythematous candidiasis

A
  • the presenting complaint is an erythematous, often painful mucosa
  • sometimes accompanied by depapillation of the tongue
  • may be localized to one area or oral mucosa or be more generalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is denture stomatitis and what is another name for it

A
  • chronic atrophic candidiasis
  • most common type of candidiasis
  • the mucosa is erythematous, but the change is limited to the mucosa covered by a full or partial denture
  • the pattern follows the outline of the RPD or denture
  • usually asymptomatic
44
Q

what is chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

A
  • a white lesion that does not wipe off the mucosa
  • it will respond to antifungal medication
  • a lesion that does not respond to antifungal meds should be biopsied
45
Q

what is angular cheilitis

A
  • erythema or fissuring at the labial commissures

- most commonly from candida, but may be caused by other factors such as nutritional deficiencies

46
Q

what is chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

A
  • a severe form that usually occurs in patients who are severely immunocompromised
  • the patient has chronic oral and genital mucosal candidiasis and skin lesions as well
47
Q

what is median rhomboid glossitis

A
  • an erythematous, often rhomboid shaped, flat to raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue
  • candida has been identified in some lesions, and some lesions disappear with antifungal treatment
  • the response is not consistent though
48
Q

what is the human papillomavirus

A
  • over 200 types of HPV have been identified
  • most are common, treatable and non cancerous
  • transmission can be as simple as skin-to-skin or STD
  • infection usually clears within 1 year (6 mos-3 years), 5% are “persistent” (can cause cancer)
49
Q

which type of HPV is commonly responsible for cervical cancer and oropharyngeal cancers

A
  • HPV 16
50
Q

where do we usually see oral cancer caused by HPV

A
  • back of tongue, tonsillar pillars, oropharynx
51
Q

where do we usually see oral cancers caused by smoking and alcohol

A
  • buccal mucosa, floor of mouth, alveolar ridge, anterior tongue, lateral borders
52
Q

which types of HPV are most commonly associated with warts

A
  • HPV 6 and 11
53
Q

which types of HPV are most commonly associated with cancer

A
  • HPV 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58
54
Q

what are signs and symptoms of an HPV infection

A
  • hoarseness
  • continual sore throat, throat infection not responding to antibiotics
  • pain when swallowing or difficulty swallowing
  • pain when chewing
  • continual lymphadenopathy
  • non-healing oral lesions
  • bleeding in the mouth or throat
  • ear pain
  • lump in throat or feeling that something is stuck in throat
55
Q

what is verruca vulgaris

A
  • common wart
  • a papillary oral lesion caused by a papillomavirus
  • usually transmitted from skin to oral mucosa
  • autoinoculation usually occurs through finger sucking or fingernail biting
  • usually a white, papillary, exophytic lesion that closely resembles a papilloma
56
Q

how do we diagnose verruca vulgaris

A
  • biopsy and histologic examination revels the light microscopic features of this lesion
  • immunologic staining may help identify viruses
57
Q

how do we treat verruca vulgaris

A
  • conservative surgical excision, lesion may recur

- patients with finger lesions should refrain from finger sucking or fingernail biting to prevent re-inoculation

58
Q

what is condyloma acuminatum

A
  • a benign papillary lesion caused by a papillomavirus
  • genital warts
  • generally transmitted by sexual contact
  • may be trasmitted to the oral cavity through oral-genital contact or self-inoculation
  • papillary, bulbous pink masses that can occur anywhere in the oral mucosa; multiple lesions may be present
59
Q

how do we treat condyloma acuminatum

A
  • conservative surgical excision

- recurrence is common

60
Q

what is focal epithelial hyperplasia

A
  • aka Heck disease
  • characterized by the presence or multiple white-ish to pale pink nodules distributed throughout the oral mucosa
  • most common in children
  • lesions are generally asymptomatic and do not require tx
  • resolve spontaneously within a few weeks
61
Q

what is a herpes simplex infection

A
  • two major types of herpes simplex:
    1. type I: oral infections
    2. type II: genital
  • herpes simplex is one of a group of viruses called human herpes viruses (HHV)
62
Q

what is primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A
  • the oral disease caused by initial infection with herpes simplex virus
  • painful, erythematous and swollen gingiva and multiple tiny vesicles on perioral skin, vermillion border of lips and oral mucosa may be seen
  • the vesicles progress to form ulcers
  • the patient may have systemic symptoms such as fever, malaise, and cervical lymphadenopathy
  • most commonly occurs in children between 6 months and 6 years of age – the majority of infections are thought to be subclinical
63
Q

what are all of the herpes simplex infections in the family of viruses

A
  • HSV1: oral infections: primary and secondary/recurrent
  • HSV2: genital herpes
  • (3) varicella zoster: chicken pox and shingles (secondary)
  • (4) epstein barr: mononucleosis
  • (5) cytomegalovirus
  • (6 and 7) roseola
  • (8) kaposi’s sarcoma
64
Q

what is cytomegalovirus

A
  • mono-like symptoms
  • congenital – deafness and mental retardation
  • rare severe congenital disease
  • immunocompromised – HIV
65
Q

what is roseola

A
  • fever and skin rash
66
Q

what is kaposi’s sarcoma associated with

A
  • AIDS
67
Q

when recurrent herpes simplex infection is found in the mouth, how does it present

A
  • occurs intraorally on keratinized mucosa that is attached to bone
  • painful groups of small vesicles that ulcerate and coalesce to form a single ulcer with an irregular border
68
Q

when is herpes most infectious

A
  • during vesicle stage
69
Q

how do we diagnose herpes

A
  • mainly based on clinical appearance

- changes in epithelial cells can be seen microscopically

70
Q

how do we treat recurrent herpes simplex infection

A
  • antiviral drugs where appropriate
  • acyclovir
  • not been shown to be consistently effective in treating lesions except in immunocompromised patients
71
Q

what is varicella-zoster

A
  • causes both chicken pox (varicella) and herpes zoster (shingles)
  • resp aerosols and contact with secretions from skin lesions transmit the virus
72
Q

what are chicken-pox

A
  • a highly contagious disease
  • causes vesicular and pustular eruptions of skin and mucous membranes
  • systemic symptoms include headache, fever and malaise
  • usually occurs in children
73
Q

what is herpes zoster

A
  • shingles
  • secondary chickenpox in an adult
  • characterized by unilateral, painful eruptions of vesicles along the distribution of a sensory nerve
  • any branch of the trigeminal nerve may be involved if lesions affect the face
  • vesicles are often preceded by pain, burning or paresthesia
  • the disease usually lasts for several weeks. neuralgia may take months to resolve
74
Q

how do we diagnose varicella zoster

A
  • generally made based on clinical features

- biopsy or smear may show the same type of virally altered epithelial cells seen in herpes simplex infection

75
Q

how do we treat varicella

A
  • antiviral, steroids – should syart within couple of days of rash
  • contagious to those who have NOT had chicken pox – during the time when vesicles are actively present and not crusted over – when new continue to come even if old have crusted
76
Q

what is the epstein barr virus

A
  • mono
  • implicated in several diseases, including infectious mononucleosis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, burkitt lymphoma, and hairy leukoplakia
77
Q

what are signs and symptoms of epstein barr and how is it transmitted

A
  • characterized by sore throat, fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, enlarged spleen, malaise and fatigue
  • petechiae may appear on the palate
  • occurs primarily among adolescents and young adults
  • often transmitted by kissing
78
Q

what is hairy leukoplakia

A
  • an irregular, corrugated, white lesion most commonly occurring on the lateral border of the tongue
  • epstein barr virus is considered to be the cause of the lesion
  • occurs most commonly in patients infected with HIV but has also been reported in patients who are not HIV +
79
Q

what are coxsackievirus infections

A
  • causes several different infectious diseases
  • may be transmitted by fecal-oral contamination
  • three have distinctive oral lesions
80
Q

what are the 3 distinctive oral lesions of coxsackievirus

A
  • herpangina
  • hand-foot-and-mouth disease
  • acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
81
Q

what is hand foot and mouth disease

A
  • usually occurs in epidemics in children less than 5 years old
  • multiple macules or papules occur on the skin, typically on feet, toes, hands and fingers
  • oral lesions are painful vesicles that can occur anywhere in the mouth
  • resolves within 2 weeks
82
Q

how do we diagnose and treat hand foot and mouth disease

A
  • dx: the distribution of skin lesions and mild systemic symptoms help differentiate the condition from herpes simplex infection
  • tx: generally not required
83
Q

what is measles and what are oral symptoms

A
  • caused by a type of virus called paramyxovirus
  • highly contagious disease causing systemic symptoms and a skin rash
  • koplik spots may occur in the oral cavity; small erythematous macules
  • starts as fever about 10-12 days after exposure and around 14 days rash will appear
84
Q

what are the mumps

A
  • a viral infection of the salivary glands
  • most commonly causes bilateral swelling of the parotid glands
  • transmitted thru saliva or mucus droplets
  • contagious a few days before and 5 days after swelling presents itself = isolate
85
Q

how are HIV and AIDs transmitted

A
  • sexual contact with an infected person
  • contact with infected blood and blood products
  • infected mothers to their infants
86
Q

what cells does HIV and AIDS attack

A
  • CD4 T helper lymphocytes
87
Q

what is the definition of AIDS

A
  • HIV infections with severe CD4 lymphocyte depletion

- less than 200 CD4 lymphocytes per microliter of blood

88
Q

what is the normal CD4 lymphocyte count

A
  • 550-1000 CD4 lymphocytes per microliter of blood
89
Q

how do we test for HIV

A
  • 2 antibody tests are used to determine if a person is infected
  • ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay) is used first
  • when this test is positive twice, it is followed by the Western blot test
90
Q

how soon after an HIV infection can you be diagnosed with it

A
  • antibodies to HIV usually begin to become detectable about 6 weeks following infection
  • in some people, antibodies may not be detectable for 6 months or up to a year
  • this is called the window of infectivity
91
Q

what is the window of infectivity

A
  • how long it takes for the body to build up antibodies to an antigen
92
Q

what is a viral load

A
  • the amount of HIV circulating in the serum being tested
93
Q

what is HAART

A
  • highly active antiretroviral therapy
94
Q

what are the 12 oral lesions associated with AIDS

A
  • oral candidiasis
  • herpes simplex
  • herpes zoster
  • hairy keukoplakia
  • HPV infections
  • kaposi’s sarcoma
  • lymphoma
  • spontaneous gingival bleeding
  • gingival and periodontal disease
  • aphthous ulcers
  • salivary gland disease
  • mucosal melanin pigmentation
95
Q

what is oral candidiasis in HIV + patients

A
  • generally signals the beginning of progressively severe immunodeficiency
96
Q

what is the symptom of herpes simplex in HIV positive patients indicative of

A
  • when the immune system becomes deficient, the infection appears as persistent, superficial, painful ulcers that may be located anywhere in the oral cavity
  • an ulceration due to herpes simplex that has been present for more than 1 month “meets the criteria for the diagnosis of aids”
97
Q

what is the symptom of herpes zoster in HIV + patients indicative of

A
  • generally follows the usual pattern when it occurs in a person who is HIV positive
  • the facial and oral area, the lesions follow branches of the trigeminal nerve
  • it is a sign of developing immunodeficiency
98
Q

what is an HPV infection in an HIV positive patient

A
  • papillary oral lesions from several different papillomaviruses have been described in persons with HIV infection
  • may have normal colour or be erythematous
  • may be persistent and occur in multiple oral locations
  • may be associated with antiretroviral treatment
99
Q

what is kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • an opportunistic neoplasm that may occur in patients with HIV infection
  • oral lesions appear as reddish-purple, flat or raised lesions
  • may be seen anywhere in the oral cavity, most commonly on the palate and gingiva
100
Q

how do we diagnose and treat kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • dx: biopsy

- tx: surgical excision, radiation tx, chemotherapy

101
Q

what is lymphoma

A
  • a malignant tumor that may occur in association with HIV infection, non-hodgkin’s
  • appears as a non-ulcerated, necrotic, or ulcerated mass
  • may be surfaced by ulcerated or normal-coloured erythematous mucosa
102
Q

how do we diagnose and treat a lymphoma

A
  • dx: biopsy and histological exam

- tx: chemotherapeutic drugs

103
Q

how does gingival and periodontal disease appear in HV + patients

A
  • unusual forms of gingival and periodontal disease may develop
  • linear gingival erythema
  • NUP
104
Q

what is linear gingival erythema and how do we treat it

A
  • 3 characteristic features:
    1. spontaneous bleeding
    2. punctate or petechiae-like lesions on attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa
    3. a bandlike erythema of the gingiva that does not respond to therapy
  • LGE occurs independently of oral hygiene status
  • tx: debridement and chx rinses 2x daily for 2 weeks
105
Q

what is NUP

A
  • characterized by intense erythema and extremely rapid bone loss
  • necrotizing stomatitis: extensive focal areas of bone loss along with features of NUP
106
Q

how do we treat gingival and periodontal disease in HIV patients

A
  • scaling, root planing, soft tissue curettage

- intrasulcular lavage, chx mouthrinse, systemic metronidazole

107
Q

why do we often see spontaneous gingival bleeding

A
  • a decrease in platelets may occasionally be seen in patients with HIV
  • due to an autoimmune type of thrombocytopenic purpura
  • in these patients, “a platelet count and bleeding time should be considered before deep scaling procedures”

Oral Pathology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions