chapter 35-36-37 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are potential risks of lumbar puncture’?
1. Downward herniation from the posterior fossa into the cervical spinal cord
2. Meningitis
3. Low pressure headache
4. Upward herniation from the posterior fossa to the cerebrum
Select: A = 1,2,3. B = 1, 3. C = 2. 4. D = 4 only. E = All

A

a

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2
Q

A 24-year-old man with AIDS presents with MR I. lesions which have the differential
diagnosis of toxoplasmosis or lymphoma. The neuroradiologist cannot be more specific
about the diagnosis. Which is the best approach to diagnosis and treatment?
A. Stereotactic brain biopsy
B. Open resection of one or more of the lesions
C. Empiric treatment of toxoplasmosis and rescanning to evaluate response
D. Empiric freatment of lymphoma and rescanning to evaluate response

A

c

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3
Q

An 85-year-old female presents with transient weakness of the right side associated with
expressive difficulty. The symptoms abate within an hour and she is back to baseline. She
has no prior history of TLA or CVA, but has severe COPD and end-stage cardiomyopathy.
Carotid duplex sonography suggests 80% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery. Which is
the best approach to subsequent evaluation and management ?
A. Cerebral arteriography with carotid erdarterectoniy if the lesion appears ulcerated or if
there is significant low-limiting stenosis
B. Cerebral arteriography with carotid stent placement if there is a significant ulcerated or
obstructive lesion
C. MRA and consideration of arteriography if the MRA shows significant stenosis
D. Antithrombotic therapy without other diagnostic studies

A

d

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4
Q

You are asked to evaluate a 10-year-old girl who had an EEG ordered by a child psychiatrist
which you interpreted. The EEG showed centrotemporal spikes. The child has a history of
learning difficulty but no symptoms which you believe to be seizures. Which is the most
appropriate clinical formulation?
A. The child has rolandic epilepsy, with unobserved nocturnal seizures. Drug treatment is
not needed unless she has daytime seizures.
B. The child has rolandic epilepsy, with unobserved nocturnal seizures. She should be
started on anticonvulsants.
C. The child has no clinical findings to suggest seizures, and anticonvulsants should not be
prescribed.
D. The child has no clinical findings to suggest seizures, but should be begun on
anticonvulsants because of the epileptiform discharges.

A

c

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5
Q
Antigliadin antibodies are typically ordered in order to diagnose which neurologic
presentation?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Motor neuron disease
C. Ataxia
D. Stiff man syndrome
A

c

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6
Q
Which of the following paraneoplastic antibodies has the strongest association with ovarian
cancer?
A. Anti-Yo(PCA-l)
B. Anti-Tr (PCA-Tr)
C. Anti-PCA-2
D. Anti-Hu
A

a

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7
Q
Anti-glutamic acid decaiboxyiase (GAD) antibodies are associated with which of the
following disorders?
A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Cerebellar degeneration
C. Motor neuron disease
D. Stiff man syndrome
A

d

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8
Q

An increased CSF protein without a cellular response could be expected in which of the
following conditions.
A. Acute inflammatory demyelinative poly radi cu Ion europath y
B. Chronic inflammatory demyelinative polyradiculoneuropathy
C. Schwannoma
D. Spinal cord compression
E. All of these

A

e

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9
Q

You are asked to evaluate a 78-year-old man with progressive decline in memory and
cognition. The duration of the symptoms is less than three months. MRI shows ageappropriate
atrophy and some small vessel disease, but no other abnormalities. Laboratory
studies are normal. WTiich is the most appropriate formulation and plan?
A. The diagnosis is probably Alzheimer’s disease, and acetylcholinesterase inhibitor should
be started without further evaluation.
B. The diagnosis is unknown, but with the short duration of illness, brain biopsy is indicated.
C. The diagnosis is probably vasculitis, on the basis of the short duration of symptoms and
vascular changes on MRI, so cerebral angiography should be performed.
D. The diagnosis is uncertain, so additional studies including EEG and LP should be
performed.

A

d

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10
Q

Creatine kinase is elevated in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which is the
correlation between CK levels and clinical course?
A. CK progressively increases with duration and severity of the disease
B. CK decreases with duration and severity of disease
C. CK has no correlation with disease progress and severity
D. CK levels are used to monitor medical treatment of DMD

A

b

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11
Q
Which of the following conditions can be associated with diffuse voltage attenuation of the
EEG?
A. Absence epilepsy
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Anoxic encephalopathy
D. Metabolic encephalopathy
A

c

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12
Q

The figure shows the EEG of a 9-year-old child with suspected seizures. Which is the most
likelv diagnosis?
A. Absence epilepsy
B. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
C. Complex partial epilepsy
D. Atypical absence seizures
Select: A = 1.2.3. B = 1.3 C=2,4. D = 4 only. E = All

A

a

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13
Q

The figure shows the EEG recording of a 65-year-oid woman with encephalopathy. No
other clinical infomiation is provided which of the following are possible diagnoses0
A. Herpes encephalitis
B. Cerebral infarctions
C. Anoxic damage
D. Meningitis

A

c

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14
Q

The figure shows the EEG of a man with progressive encephalopathy. He is presumed to
have hepatic encephalopathy on the basis of history and laboratory findings. Which is the
correct interpretation of the EEG?
A. Slow spike and wave discharge
B. Triphasic waves from the hepatic failure, without epileptiform significance
C. PLEDs from intercurrent CNS infection
D. Frequent eye blink artifact on an othervise slow background

A

a

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15
Q

You interpret the EEG of a patient who has failed to recover following cardiac arrest. The
patient has apparent myoclonic jerks. The tracing shown in the figure is obtained. The
patient is on no sedatives or anticonvulsants but is paralyzed, and shows no overt motor
activity in association with the episodic waves in the recording.
Which is the most appropriate interpretation of the record?
A. The record shows a periodic partem which is associated with post-anoxic myoclonus.
B. The record shews persistent status epilepticus which should be treated with
anticonvulsants.
C. The record shows a periodic pattern which is associated with a poorer pattern for
recovery than if the patient had alpha coma.
D. The record shows an isoelectric background with EGG artifact.

A

b

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16
Q

Which of the following are typical findings seen in the EEG of aging patients?
1. Focal sharp waves in the central region, pronounced in the sleep state
2. Higher theta and delta in the frontal and temporal regions.
3. Frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity
4. Reduction in alpha amplitude and frequency
Select: A = 1. 2. 3. B =1,3. C = 2,4. D = 4 only E= All

A

b

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17
Q

The following questions concern patients with dementia. For each, select the most likely
diagnosis from the following list.
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Creutzfeidt-Jakob disease
D. Vascular dementia
Normal EEG background with 8.5 Hz posterior dominant rhythm.

A

c

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18
Q
The following questions concern patients with dementia. For each, select the most likely
diagnosis from the following list.
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Creutzfeidt-Jakob disease
D. Vascular dementia

Focal slowing is seen in the right occipital region with loss of the posterior dominant alpha.
Also, there is slowing in the right temporal and bilateral frontal regions.

A

a

19
Q

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is an important anomaly in the innervation of muscles of
the hand winch affects nerve conduction study results. Which of the following summarizes
the anastomcsis findings when testing ulnar nerve conduction”?
A. Sensory nerve action potential amplitude is greater with distal than proximai stimulation
B. Sensor/ nerve action potential amplitude is greater with proximal than distal stimulation
C. Motor conduction measuring abductor digiti minimi CMAP shows greater amplitude
with distal stimulation than proximal stimulation
D. Motor conduction measuring abductor digiti minimi CMAP shows greater amplitude
with proximal stimulation than distal stimulation

A

a

20
Q
A patient has a stab injury in the forearm with resultant loss of distal median nerve motoi
function. The next day following the injury, nerve conductions show no CMAP with
proximal stimulation but a normal CMAP with distal stimulation. Which is the proper
interpretation of these data?
A. The intact distal median nerve innervation indicates good prognosis for recovery of
function
B. The intact distal median nerve innervations is due to temporary preservation of nerve
function and is still consistent with nerve transection
C. The intact median nerve conduction with loss of response to proximal stimulation must
be due to technical factors, and not due to organic dysfunction
A

c

21
Q

A patient presents with distal Hrnh numbness and weakness, ancf peripheral neuropathy is
suspected. NCS shows slowed conduction velocity to about 50% of normal. CMAP
amplitude is near normal with distal stimulation but the CMAP with proximal stimulation
is lower in amplitude and dispersed. Which is the correct interpretation of the data?
A. The patient has axonal neuropathy
B. The patient has a demyelinating neuropathy
C. Performance of the study was technically flawed to obtain such a different CMAr
configuration

A

b

22
Q
Reduction in temperature of the limb being tested produces which of the following changes
in NCS findings?
A Higher CMAP amplitude
B. Higher SNAP amplitude
C. Slowing of conduction
D. Longer duration of CMAP
E. All of these
A

b

23
Q
Which EMG findings are expected in patients with upper motor neuron lesions?
A. Fibrillation potentials
B. Positive sharp waves
C. Polyphasic motor units
D. Reduced recruitment
E. All of these
A

a

24
Q
Which EMG findings are expected in patients with lower motor neuron lesions of 6 weeks
in duration?
A. Fibrillation potentials
B. Positive sharp waves
C. Polyphasic motor unit potentials
D. Reduced numbers of active motor units
E. All of these
A

d

25
Q

The figure shows the result of a repetitive stimulation study in a patient with weakness.
Stimulation is at 2 Hz.
Which is the correct interpretation?
A. Decrementai response, supportive of the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
B. Decrementai response, supportive of the diagnosis of motor neuron disease
C. Poor potential stability indicating technically inadequate study

A

a

26
Q

What is the main purpose of the fat suppression techniques on MRI?
A. Identification of enhancing lesion in fatty areas
B. Identification of demyelinating lesions
C. Identification of vascular structures in fatty areas
D. Identification of fatty lesions

A

a

27
Q

The brain MRI of a patient with seizures shows an irregular nonhomogenous lesion which
has indistinct margins and no significant edema. Gadolinium administration reveals no
enhancement. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Primary CNS lymphoma
C. Low-grade astrocytoma
D. Metastatic lesion

A

a

28
Q

A 34-year-old woman has an MRI which shows several rounded areas of increased signal
on T2-weighted images in the white matter. Gadolinium results in enhancement of one of
these areas. Which is the most likely conclusion?
A. The patient has multiple sclerosis and the enhancing plaque is an area of active
inflammation
B The patient has multiple sclerosis, but the enhancing lesion represents a coincidental
neoplasm, unrelated to the MS
C. The patient has vasculitis and the area of enhancement is a new area of inflammatory
vasculopathy
D. The patient has multiple metastases, with the most aggressive of these showing
enhancement

A

a

29
Q

A patient with AIDS presents with confusion and is found on MRI to have symmetric
regions of increased signal intensity on T2-weighted imaging. Which is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis
C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
D.HIV encephalitis

A

d

30
Q
Which is the best imaging modality for identifying cavernous angioma?
A. Angiography
B. MRI
C. CT
D. PET
A

b

31
Q

A patient is seen in the ER with the acute onset of hemiparesis and is being evaluated for
possible t-PA administration. You order a CT, but the radiologist offers an emergent MRI
as an alternative. Which is the best choice ?
A. Perform the MRI
B Decline the MRI and perform the CT
C. Allow the patient to remain in tne radiology department until both studies can be
performed
D. Administer the t-PA, then send the patient for the MRI

A

b

32
Q
Which pulse sequence of MRI is best able to identify acute from chronic infarction?
A. T1-weighted imaging
B. T2-weighted imaging
C. Diffusion-weighted imaging
D. FLAIR Imaging
A

c

33
Q

A patient presents with a strong family history of cerebral aneurysms and wants imaging to look
for asvmptomatic aneurysm. Which is the most appropriate method for this patient?
A. CT angiography
B. MRA
C. Transcranial doppler
D. Conventional angiography
E. A or B

A

e

34
Q

A patient with left orbitofrontal infarction, from anterior cerebral artery occlusion, would be
expected to have which of the following clinical presentations?
A. Hemiparesis
B. Aphasia
C. Confabulation and amnesia
D. Alien hand syndrome

A

c

35
Q

A patient presents with nausea, vomiting, right cerebellar ataxia, loss of pain and temperature
sensation on the left side of the body, right Horner’s syndrome. Which vessel is the most likely
site of occlusion?
A. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
C. Superior cerebellar artery
D. Vertebral artery

A

c

36
Q

A 65-year-old woman presents with a TIA and is found on carotid ultrasonography to have no
visible flow in the internal carotid artery on the appropriate side. Which is the next approach?
A. Medical treatment
B. Repeat ultrasound evaluation in 3 months
C. MRA
D. Transcranial Doppler

A

c

37
Q
Which of the following are clinical indications for transcranial doppler ultrasonography?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Acute cerebral infarction
C. Intraoperative monitoring during
carotid eiidarierectomy
D. All of these
A

d

38
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding vertebral ultrasonography?

  1. Vertebral arteries can be assessed in most patients
  2. There are no agreed-upon criteria for ascessment of the extracranial vertebral arteries
  3. Vertebral origins can be assessed in most but not all patients
  4. Vertebral arteries oan be studied for stenosis, but reversal of flow cannot be identified
A

a

39
Q

Carotid ultrasonography shows a peak systolic velocity of the internal carotid artery of 120
cm/sec with an end-diastoiic velocity of 30 cm/sec- ICA/CCA ratio is 1.8. Whioh is the correct
interpretation?
A. No significant stenosis
B. Moderate stenosis
C. Severe stenosis
D. Probable occlusion

A

a

40
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding vascular ultrasonography?
1. B-mode imaging is mainly to identify the anatomy of the vessel walls and lumen
2. Characterization of plaque type is best made on power doppler imaging
3. Color flow imaging is predominantly to identify the flow patterns, velocity, and direction
4. Transcranial doppler can evaluate the vertebral arteries nrogressing to the basilar artery
and posterior cerebral arteries.

A

b

41
Q

What role does PET play in evaluation of dementia?
A. PET has no role in diagnosis of dementia
B. PET shows decreased neuronal activity consistent with dementia, but cannot help to
differentiate causes
C PET can differentiate Alzheimer’s disease from other causes of dementia in 90% of patients
D. PET is a good alternative to MRI and CT for imaging patients with dementia

A

c

42
Q

Which is the effect of seizures on PET scan?
A. PET shows increased metabolism of seizure foci during the intericta! and ictai periods
B. PET shows decreased metabolism of seizure foci during the interictal and ictai periods
C. PET does not aid in the identification of characterization of seizure foci
D. PET shows increased metabolism during a seizure and decreased metabolism in the interictal
period

A

d

43
Q

How can PET be helpful for evaluation of patients with brain tumors?

  1. PET characteristics can help determine the aggressiveness of tumor
  2. PET can help to differentiate radiation necrosis from tumor recurrence
  3. PET can follow the therapeutic response of the tumor
  4. PET can differentiate types of benign
A

a