Chapter 33 Flashcards

1
Q

A person who is exposed to cement:

• experiences immediate pain and inflammation to the area because of the calcium oxide in the cement.
• may not notice a skin burn for hours because cement penetrates through clothing and reacts with sweat.
• often does not experience a burn unless they are exposed to the cement for longer than 2 hours.
• typically only experiences burns to the epidermal layer because calcium oxide is a weak chemical.

A

May not notice a skin burn for hours because cement penetrates through clothing and reacts with sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The onset of which of the following symptoms soon after exposure to radiation is a predictor of poor outcomes?

• Hair loss
• Vomiting
• Tachycardia
• Confusion

A

Vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You are caring for a 41-year-old man who was trapped in his burning house before being rescued by fire fighters. He has full-thickness burns to his head and anterior trunk, and mixed partial- and full-thickness burns to both anterior upper extremities. What percentage of his total body surface area has been burned?

• 27%
• 18%
• 45%
• 36%

A

36%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A burn patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease:

• should only be given high-flow oxygen if signs of hypoxia are grossly present.
• may be triaged as a critically burned patient, even if the burn injury is small.
• often requires prophylactic beta-2 agonist drugs to prevent respiratory arrest.
• is at a higher risk for infection than a patient without any medical problems.

A

May be triaged as a critically burned patient, even if the burn injury is small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The severity of a thermal burn correlates directly with:

• the duration of exposure, the physical size of the patient, and the presence of concomitant traumatic injuries.
• the temperature of the heat source, the amount of heat energy possessed by the object or substance, and the duration of exposure.
• the body’s ability to effectively dissipate significant heat energy and the patient’s general state of health.
• the presence of any underlying medical problems, the duration of exposure, and the temperature of the heat source.

A

The temperature of the heat source, the amount of heat energy possessed by the object or substance, and the duration of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following burn injuries would most likely require transport to a burn specialty center?

• Burns that involve the hands, feet, or genitalia
• Partial-thickness burns to more than 5% of the body
• Any burn that occurs in a child younger than 5 years of age
• Superficial burns to more than 40% of the body

A

Burns that involve the hands, feet, or genitalia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 52-year-old man sustained superficial and partial-thickness burns to his left arm approximately 15 minutes ago when he opened the radiator cap on his car. He is conscious, alert, and in severe pain. His blood pressure is 138/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. He denies any other injuries. Initial management for this patient involves:

• applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevating his arm.
• starting an IV of normal saline and administering 2 mg of morphine.
• administering oxygen and applying an anesthetic cream to the burn.
• applying ice to the burn to provide immediate pain relief.

A

applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevating his arm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The peripheral area surrounding the zone of coagulation, which has decreased blood flow and inflammation, is called the zone of:

• coagulation.
• hyperemia.
• liquefaction.
• stasis.

A

Stasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A superficial burn is:

• characterized by reddened skin with varying degrees of pain.
• painful, but will heal spontaneously, often with scar formation.
• a second-degree burn that is characterized by blister formation.
• usually painless because the nerve endings are not exposed.

A

characterized by reddened skin with varying degrees of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to the rule of nines, an adult with partial- and full-thickness burns to their head, face, and anterior chest has burns to what percentage of their total body surface area?

• 18%
• 36%
• 45%
• 27%

A

18%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following burn injuries or patterns should make you the most suspicious for abuse?

• Burns to the forearm
• Burns with formed shapes
• Splash burns to a leg
• An arc burn to the hand

A

Burns with formed shapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 24-year-old woman was struck by lightning. Bystanders moved the patient to an area of safety but did not provide any other care before your arrival. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. You begin CPR and apply the cardiac monitor, which reveals asystole. After requesting a backup paramedic unit, the most appropriate treatment for this patient involves:

• continuing CPR, protecting her spine while ventilating, reassessing her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes of CPR, and defibrillating if necessary.
• continuing CPR, providing full spinal precautions, intubating her trachea, and ventilating her at a rate of 20 to 24 breaths per minute.
• performing adequate BLS, following standard ACLS protocol, and considering terminating your efforts if asystole persists after 10 minutes.
• instructing your partner to resume one-rescuer CPR, establishing an IV of normal saline, and reassessing her cardiac rhythm in 5 minutes.

A

continuing CPR, protecting her spine while ventilating, reassessing her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes of CPR, and defibrillating if necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The application of ice to partial-thickness burns:

• is not necessary because such burns are painless.
• often negates the need to administer a narcotic.
• offers excellent pain relief and minimizes swelling.
• can exacerbate tissue injury and should be avoided.

A

Can exacerbate tissue injury and should be avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Unlike partial-thickness burns, full-thickness burns:

• are characterized by reddened, moist skin and large fluid-filled blisters.
• destroy the base membrane of the dermis that produces new skin cells.
• often heal spontaneously over a long period of time with massive scarring.
• extend completely through the epidermis and produce severe pain.

A

Destroy the base membrane of the dermis that produces new skin cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient has partial-thickness burns to both lower extremities and blisters have formed. What should you do?

• Administer 2 L of fluid within 45 minutes.
• Administer half the usual dose of IV analgesia.
• Elevate the extremities to reduce edema.
• Carefully rupture the blisters and irrigate the burn.

A

Elevate the extremities to reduce edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chemicals such as Lewisite and phosgene oxime:

• are most commonly found in drain and oven cleaners.
• are vesicant agents that produce cutaneous blisters rapidly.
• damage the body by extracting water from the tissues.
• are strong alkalis that cause liquefaction necrosis.

A

are vesicant agents that produce cutaneous blisters rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Specific treatment for a hydrofluoric acid burn is:

• viscous lidocaine gel.
• calcium chloride.
• magnesium sulfate.
• sodium bicarbonate.

A

Calcium chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The appropriate treatment for most chemical burns is:

• application of a dry, sterile dressing.
• neutralization with an alkaline substance.
• flushing with copious amounts of water.
• application of a moist, sterile dressing.

A

flushing with copious amounts of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Unlike chemical burns, radiation burns:

• may appear hours or days after exposure.
• are typically confined to the epidermis.
• generally extend into the dermal layer.
• are immediately apparent after exposure.

A

may appear hours or days after exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

According to the Lund-Browder chart, one-half of a 5-year-old child’s head accounts for what percentage of the body surface area?

• 8.5%
• 18%
• 6.5%
• 9%

21
Q

Which of the following chemicals causes a painless burn and can result in significant damage before it is identified?

• Potassium hydroxide
• Sulfur mustard
• Phenol
• Sulfuric acid

22
Q

You are transporting a conscious but confused 29-year-old man after he was electrocuted. The patient is on high-flow oxygen, has an IV line of normal saline in place, is on a cardiac monitor, and has his spine fully immobilized. During transport, it is especially important for you to:

• reassess his vital signs every 15 minutes and treat any fractures or dislocations.
• thoroughly assess and clean the entry and exit wounds to prevent an infection.
• remain alert for lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and be prepared to defibrillate.
• administer at least 2 L of normal saline solution to prevent renal failure.

A

remain alert for lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and be prepared to defibrillate.

23
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sodium metal chemical burns is correct?

• They react violently with oil and should only be flushed with sterile water.
• Sodium metal burns should be covered with oil after irrigating with water.
• Do not flush with water as doing so may produce heat and cause an explosion.
• Applying baking soda to the wound effectively neutralizes sodium metals.

A

do not flush with water as doing so may produce heat and cause an explosion

24
Q

Many of the physiologic changes caused by acute radiation syndrome:

• are a direct result of beta particles and are usually life threatening.
• can be reversed if chemotherapy is administered within 24 hours.
• manifest with lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and sudden cardiac arrest.
• occur over time and will not be apparent in the prehospital setting.

A

Occur over time and will not be apparent in the prehospital setting

25
You respond to an industrial plant for a 42-year-old man with a chemical burn. Upon arrival at the scene, you find the patient to be ambulatory. He tells you that he was moving some bags of dry lime when one of the bags broke and spilled lime all over him. After donning the appropriate personal protective equipment, you should: • remove his clothing, carefully brush the lime away from his skin, but avoid flushing with water, as doing so will likely increase burn severity. • avoid brushing any of the lime from his skin, as doing so may cause additional injury, and flush his entire body with water for 30 minutes. • remove his clothing, brush as much of the lime off of him as possible, and flush the affected areas with copious amounts of water. • remove all of his clothing, apply baking powder to neutralize the lime, and begin flushing his body with copious amounts of sterile saline.
remove his clothing, brush as much of the lime off of him as possible, and flush the affected areas with copious amounts of water.
26
The secondary assessment of a severely burned patient is intended to: • provide for a rapid means of assessing the patient for occult injuries. • focus on areas of the body that have sustained the most serious burns. • locate and treat minor injuries after all serious injuries have been treated. • identify other injuries that may have a higher priority for treatment.
Identify other injuries that may have a higher priority for treatment
27
Compared to beta radiation particles, alpha radiation particles: • easily pass through solid materials. • are able to travel much farther in air. • have minimal penetrating energy. • are not dangerous if they are ingested.
Have minimal penetrating energy
28
A partial-thickness burn is considered to be a major burn in a 40-year-old patient if it: • is located to the proximal aspect of an extremity. • involves more than 25% of the body surface area. • is rated as at least a 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. • is located on the anterior chest.
Involves more than 25% of the body surface area
29
Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning: • often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern. • typically experience intractable ventricular fibrillation. • experience full-thickness burns that require debridement. • most commonly experience blast-type injuries.
Often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern
30
The outer zone of an entrance or exit wound caused by a contact electrical burn is: • a charred area of full-thickness burn. • simply caused by local inflammation. • characterized by cold, gray, dry tissue. • the red zone of coagulation necrosis.
The red zone of coagulation necrosis
31
Cardiac arrest following an electrical shock: • may occur secondarily from hypoxia or as a direct result of the shock. • is typically of short duration and is often reversed with 2 minutes of CPR. • is most often caused by an electrical current stronger than 1 ampere. • typically presents as pulseless atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter.
May occur secondarily from hypoxia or as direct result of the shock
32
Which of the following statements regarding the rule of palms is correct? • The rule of palms is most accurate when a patient has experienced burns to less than 20% of their total body surface area. • The patient's palm, excluding the fingers, represents 1% of their total body surface area. • The rule of palms is not an accurate estimator of total body surface area burned in pediatric patients. • The patient's palm, including the fingers, represents 1% of their total body surface area.
The patient's palm, including the fingers, represents 1% of their total body surface area.
33
Flash burns are: • caused by prolonged exposure to intense heat, usually resulting in burns that extend deep into the dermis. • usually relatively minor compared with the potential for trauma from whatever caused the flash. • generally confined to a very small area of the body, but cause extensive damage to the dermis. • a common source of burn injury and are most often the result of hot liquids, such as radiator fluid.
Usually relatively minor compared with the potential for trauma from whatever caused the flash
34
Which of the following statements regarding partial-thickness burns is correct? • Partial-thickness burns typically heal spontaneously without scarring. • Partial-thickness burns are usually extremely painful for the patient. • Partial-thickness burns are difficult to distinguish from superficial burns in the field. • The majority of partial-thickness burns are caused by an open flame.
Partial-thickness burns are usually extremely painful for the patient.
35
Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest: • necessitate immediate intubation and ventilatory support. • require the paramedic to incise the burn to decompress it. • may cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion. • are generally not significant unless the skin is unyielding.
May cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion
36
Assessment of a patient who may have been exposed to radiation begins by: • evaluating airway, breathing, and circulation. • thoroughly decontaminating the patient. • determining if the scene is safe to enter. • quickly moving the patient to a safe area.
determining if the scene is safe to enter.
37
Most lightning-related injuries occur when the victim: • is attempting to escape an oncoming thunderstorm by running. • experiences a direct hit while standing in a large open area. • receives a “splash” effect after lightning strikes a nearby object. • is talking on a phone and a utility pole is struck by lightning.
receives a “splash” effect after lightning strikes a nearby object.
38
You and your partner are transferring a severely burned patient from a community hospital to a burn specialty center. The patient, a 110-pound woman, has partial- and full-thickness burns that cover approximately 55% of her body. She has two large-bore IV lines in place, is intubated, and is on a cardiac monitor. According to the Consensus formula, how much normal saline should she receive in 30 minutes? • 395 mL • 355 mL • 340 mL • 370 mL
340 mL
39
Which type of radiation is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials? • Ionizing • Beta • Alpha • Gamma
Gamma
40
Initial wound excision and biologic closure typically occurs during which time frame after a patient experiences a burn injury? • 6 to 24 hours • 7 days to 6 weeks • 1 to 7 days • 24 to 72 hours
1 to 7 days.
41
Which of the following locations would provide the best protection from a lightning strike? - A car with the windows rolled up - Curled up in a ball in an open area - A spot at least 5 miles away from the storm - An open shed or lean-to
A car with the windows rolled up
42
After an adult victim is struck by lightning and experiences cardiac arrest: - the ECG usually shows an organized cardiac rhythm. - the heart may resume beating spontaneously. - 5 minutes of CPR generally restores a pulse. - perform a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2.
The heart may resume beating spontaneously
43
If a burn patient presents with a hoarse voice and states, “I'm cold,” your most immediate concern should be: - cyanide toxicity. - inhalation injury. - hypothermia. - burn shock
Inhalation injury
44
Which of the following statements regarding carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is correct? - CO results in systemic hypoxia by disintegrating red blood cells. - Never rule out CO poisoning in the absence of cherry red skin. - The most common symptom of CO poisoning is chest pressure. - Hyperbaric therapy is beneficial only if CO levels are above 40%.
Never rule out CO poisoning in the absence of cherry red skin
45
What medication may be administered to a patient with a severe electrical burn in order to facilitate osmotic diuresis? - Albuterol - Furosemide - Calcium - Mannitol
Mannitol
46
Which of the following is a common cause of death from fires? - Pulmonary injury - Integument burns - Concomitant fractures - Cancer
Pulmonary injury
47
The two most common causes of death from an electrical injury are: - asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest. - full-thickness burns and respiratory arrest. - myoglobinuria and diaphragmatic paralysis. - nervous system damage and massive sepsis.
asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest.
48
What medication should be administered if significant tissue damage is suspected following an electrical burn injury? • Furosemide • Albuterol • Calcium gluconate • Sodium bicarbonate
Sodium bicarbonate.
49
Upon initial contact with a severely burned patient, you must: • quickly establish the extent of the burns. • ensure that the patient is not still burning. • cover the patient to prevent hypothermia. • assess airway and breathing adequacy.
Ensure that the patient is not still burning.