Chapter 30 Flashcards

1
Q

Lap belts that are worn alone and too high by a pregnant woman:

  • allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus.
  • will provide adequate protection for the uterus if the air bag properly deploys.
  • will provide equal distribution of forces and prevent forward flexion of the mother.
  • usually do not injure the fetus because the uterus is a highly muscular organ.
A

allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus.

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2
Q

Which of the following is the initial point of bodily impact when an unrestrained passenger takes the “down-and-under” pathway during a frontal collision?

  • Knees
  • Pelvis
  • Femurs
  • Abdomen
A

Knees

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3
Q

A properly worn motorcycle helmet will:

  • eliminate the risk of head trauma.
  • not protect the cervical spine.
  • decrease the risk of a spinal injury.
  • minimize the trauma caused by secondary impacts.
A

not protect the cervical spine.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements regarding front airbags is correct?

  • Small children riding in the front seat are protected when the airbag deploys.
  • Front airbags will activate in side impacts or impacts to the front quarter panel.
  • Airbags will provide protection from both initial and secondary impacts.
  • Without the use of a seat belt, front airbags are insufficient in preventing ejection.
A

Without the use of a seat belt, front airbags are insufficient in preventing ejection

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5
Q

Following a head-on collision of a motorcycle and a truck, the motorcyclist would most likely experience initial injury to the:

  • femurs and tibias.
  • cervical spine.
  • chest and abdomen.
  • wrists and forearms.
A

femurs and tibias.

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6
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of a properly worn seat belt?

  • Minimal risk of whiplash injuries after a rear-end collision
  • Prevention of secondary collision with objects inside the vehicle
  • Distribution of deceleration energy over a smaller surface area
  • Prevention of partial or complete ejection from the vehicle
A

Prevention of partial or complete ejection from the vehicle

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7
Q

A specific attribute of a Level I trauma center is that it:

  • can initiate definitive care for all injured patients.
  • has 24-hour in-house coverage by general surgeons.
  • has rapid access to an off-site anesthesiologist.
  • is involved in an injury prevention program.
A

has 24-hour in-house coverage by general surgeons.

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8
Q

Which of the following is generally affected by pressure changes caused by an explosion?

  • Spleen
  • Kidneys
  • Tympanic membrane
  • Liver
A

Tympanic membrane

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9
Q

Rapid deceleration of a motor vehicle that is traveling at 60 mph:

  • typically generates g forces of up to 10 to 20 g.
  • initially causes whiplash injuries to the patient’s neck.
  • causes the driver’s body to stop moving at the same time.
  • dissipates tremendous forces and can cause major injuries.
A

dissipates tremendous forces and can cause major injuries.

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10
Q

The most significant fall occurs from a height greater than:

  • 1.5 times the patient’s height.
  • 2 times the patient’s height.
  • 5 feet.
  • 15 feet.
A

15 feet

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11
Q

The third phase of a motor vehicle accident involves:

  • deceleration of internal organs.
  • crush injuries to the body.
  • impact by another vehicle.
  • injuries caused by flying debris.
A

Deceleration of internal organs

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12
Q

The peak magnitude of the pressure wave experienced by a person:

  • causes more severe trauma if the person is in an open area during the explosion.
  • lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion.
  • causes secondary and tertiary injuries as a result of the explosion.
  • will cause less severe trauma if the person is standing beside a solid object.
A

lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion.

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13
Q

During a frontal collision, most pneumothoraces occur when:

  • the patient is ejected through the windshield, and their chest collides with a secondary object outside the vehicle.
  • the chest strikes the steering wheel, which fractures one or more ribs and causes a perforation injury to one of the lungs.
  • the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact.
  • the diaphragm rapidly ascends into the chest cavity during impact, causing an increase in intrathoracic pressure.
A

the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact.

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14
Q

When a person falls from a significant height and lands on their feet, axial loading results in:

  • disc injuries to the lower cervical and upper thoracic spine.
  • compression or burst fractures to the lumbar spine.
  • shearing injuries to the liver, spleen, and aorta.
  • crushing injuries to the heels and hip dislocations.
A

Compression or burst fractures to the lumbar spine

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15
Q

During abrupt deceleration:

  • shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur.
  • the neck commonly sustains hyperextension injuries.
  • the skull provides excellent protection for the brain.
  • supporting structures of the aorta keep it attached.
A

Shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur

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16
Q

Which of the following is a factor when considering transport of a trauma patient via helicopter?

  • The need for definitive airway management
  • Distance from the scene to the landing zone
  • The patient’s medical facility preference
  • The patient’s preference to be transported using ground transport
A

Distance from the scene to the landing zone

17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding exit wounds is correct?

  • Despite fragmentation of the projectile, there is usually only one exit wound for each round that is fired.
  • With low-velocity gunshot wounds, the exit wound is always a mirror image of the entrance wound.
  • Compared to entrance wounds, exit wounds are generally much smaller and typically have regular edges.
  • Exit wounds occur when the projectile’s energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body.
A

Exit wounds occur when the projectile’s energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body.

18
Q

The greatest amount of kinetic energy would be created if a 140-pound driver struck a tree while traveling at what speed?

  • 40 mph
  • 50 mph
  • 30 mph
  • 30 mph
19
Q

When summoning an air transport service to transport a critically injured patient, it is most important to:

  • activate the service as soon as possible.
  • determine the flight crew’s credentials.
  • predetermine the destination facility.
  • ensure that the fire department is present.
A

Activate the service as soon as possible

20
Q

The forces applied to the driver during a frontal vehicle collision will differ based on:

  • the patient’s physical size.
  • objects inside the vehicle.
  • the patient’s age.
  • the motor vehicle’s safety features.
A

The motor’s vehicle’s safety features.

21
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an entry wound indicates that the weapon was fired at close range?

  • Indentation of cutaneous tissues
  • Tattoo marks from powder burns
  • Abrasions around the wound
  • Severe bleeding from the wound
A

Tattoo marks from powder burns

22
Q

Unlike blunt trauma, penetrating trauma:

  • involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area.
  • is more likely to be fatal because of the severe external bleeding that accompanies it.
  • often causes damage to a large body surface area, even from a single projectile.
  • is especially common during the primary blast injury following an explosion.
A

Involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area

23
Q

The energy stored in an object, such as a bridge pillar, is which type of energy?

  • Kinetic
  • Potential
  • Barometric
  • Chemical
24
Q

Compared to a handgun, a rifle:

  • fires at a higher velocity.
  • has less powerful ammunition.
  • is less accurate.
  • fires a single projectile.
A

Fires at a higher velocity

25
The extent of trauma a patient sustains is typically related to the: - amount of energy in the object and the mechanism by which the object is delivered to the body. - physical size of the patient and the part of the body that sustains direct impact from an object. - type of object that strikes a patient and the part of the body that sustains the most impact. - size of the object that strikes the body and any secondary injuries that occur if the patient falls.
amount of energy in the object and the mechanism by which the object is delivered to the body.
26
Following a rotational impact, the most severely injured patient(s) will likely be found at the point of: - greatest deceleration. - greatest acceleration. - secondary impact. - least deceleration.
greatest deceleration.
27
Which of the following will be of greatest benefit in helping the paramedic predict the type of injuries that a patient experienced? - Past medical history - Index of suspicion - Mechanism of injury - Age of the patient
Mechanism of injury
28
The second impact that occurs when an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle would most likely result in injuries to the: - head and neck. - hips and knees. - pelvis and chest. - lower extremities.
pelvis and chest.
29
During a lateral impact collision: - the far-side occupant, even if properly restrained, experiences double the amount of force as the driver. - trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact. - the patient's head moves away from the object causing the impact, resulting in stretching injuries. - properly worn seat belts protect the passenger from pelvic trauma at the time of impact.
trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact.
30
If a Level I trauma center is 30 miles away, and a Level II trauma center is 10 miles away, it would be most appropriate to transport a patient with a severe traumatic brain injury: - to the closest hospital for stabilization. - by ground to the Level II trauma center. - via air transport to the Level I trauma center. - by ground to the Level I trauma center.
Via air transport to the Level l trauma center
31
When an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle, lateral and posterior injuries are most common because: Group of answer choices - the patient is thrown and lands on their side or back. - the patient is thrust onto the hood of the vehicle. - the initial impact by the bumper spins the patient to the side. - adults tend to turn to the side or away from the impact.
adults tend to turn to the side or away from the impact.
32
The most reliable indicator that significant energy was dissipated by braking before a motor vehicle collision is: Group of answer choices - the presence of tire skid marks at the scene. - deformity to the driver's brake pedal. - a trail of debris leading to the site of impact. - severe damage to the front rims of the tires.
the presence of tire skid marks at the scene.
33
The most common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the: Group of answer choices vena cava. esophagus. heart. aorta.
Aorta
34
If a person survives the initial trauma from a shotgun wound at close range: - nervous system damage is likely due to the internal dispersal of the pellets. - it is likely that only soft tissue was injured and major organs were spared. - contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection. - they will typically die within 24 hours secondary to liver or renal failure.
contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection.
35
Which of the following mechanisms of injury poses the least threat for significant injury? - Death of an occupant in the same vehicle - Vehicular intrusion of greater than 12 inches - Rear-end collision with restrained driver - Motorcycle crash at greater than 20 mph
Rear-end collision with restrained driver
36
Unlike adults, children who are struck by a motor vehicle are more likely to: - experience injuries to the lower extremities from the initial impact. - be propelled onto the hood of the vehicle during the second impact. - turn away from the oncoming vehicle, resulting in posterior trauma. - be run over by the vehicle as they are propelled to the ground.
be run over by the vehicle as they are propelled to the ground.
37
Which of the following is an example of a quinary blast injury? - Blunt head injury - Full-thickness burn - Radiation exposure - High-pressure wave
Radiation exposure