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2M051A Vol 3 > Chapter 3 Self Test > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Self Test Flashcards

0
Q

(412) 2. What components make up the G&C liquid cooler?

A

Plumbing set, coolant chiller unit, coolant pump assembly, control valve assembly, coolant tank, filter assembly, electronic control amplifier, wiring harness

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1
Q

(412) 1. What is the function of the liquid cooling system?

A

To control the temperature of the missile guidance section

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2
Q

(412) 3. What are the power requirements for the pump assembly?

A

120/208 VAC, 3-phase, and 400-Hz power

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3
Q

(412) 4. What is the maximum flow rate for the control valve?

A

The maximum flow rate (short emergency conditions) is 4 (+/- 0.5) pounds per minute.

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4
Q

(412) 5. How much refrigerated coolant is stored in the tank?

A

About seven gallons

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5
Q

(412) 6. What voltage does the electronic control amplifier use?

A

36-VDC battery power

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6
Q

(412) 7. What amplifiers is the output of the bridge circuit used to drive?

A

ALARM, GROSS TEMP, NO-GO, and CONTROL

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7
Q

(413) 1. What determines the rate of coolant flow through the guidance section?

A

The control valve setting

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8
Q

(413) 2. What guidance section cooling system component completes vaporization of the refrigerant before it enters the compressor?

A

The regenerative heat exchanger’s coils

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9
Q

(413) 3. What happens to the thermistor’s resistance if the guidance section temperature increases?

A

As the MGS temperature changes, the thermistor’s resistance value changes (inversely). [Decreases]

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10
Q

(413) 4. How does the amplifier control the coolant flow rate?

A

It evaluates the resistance change and if necessary, sends an open valve or close valve signal to make the control valve assembly adjust the flow rate.

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11
Q

(413) 5. What type of G&C cooling system checkout are you performing when the MGS is running?

A

Power applied checkout

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12
Q

(413) 6. What should the ambient air temperature be as it is drawn into the G&C chiller?

A

Between 60 degrees and 80 degrees Fahrenheit

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13
Q

(413) 7. What could a low coolant level indicate during the G&C power applied checkout?

A

A leak in the G&C cooling system or the MGS.

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14
Q

(413) 8. What could a high coolant level indicate?

A

The old MGS was purged by MMT.

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15
Q

(413) 9. Why must the switch on the PG remain in the SET ALARM position while thee test set is electrically connected to the G&C liquid cooler?

A

The MGS will shut down

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16
Q

(413) 10. How do you remove MGS power if the GROSS TEMP indicator illuminates?

A

By pressing the G&C shutdown switch on the programmer group (PG)

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17
Q

(413) 11. What do you do with the excess coolant after G&C checkout (power applied or not applied) is complete?

A

The coolant must be labeled appropriately and returned to the missile support base for neutralization and disposition.

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18
Q

(413) 12. What are you checking for when you are configuring the G&C test set to simulate an operating MGS?

A

To see if the guidance section liquid cooler will respond accordingly and adjust flow rates and temperature levels.

19
Q

(413) 13. When do you refer to trouble analysis during G&C (power applied or not applied) checkout?

A

Any time you receive abnormal indications during checkout.

20
Q

(414) 1. What piece of equipment is required for observing GMRs while reading out LF status on the controller-monitor?

A

Fault locating indicator (FLI)

21
Q

(414) 2. What is required prior to taking local control?

A

MCC coordination

22
Q

(414) 3. What is required as a prerequisite in preparing for DCU program loading?

A

Entry into local control mode

23
Q

(414) 4. What is the next step after you establish local control?

A

Follow the procedures and read out all LF and multiplexer status and circle the indications that you observed illuminate on the LF fault record.

24
Q

(414) 5. What piece of equipment is required for AVE startup whenever the guidance-control coupler unit is replaced?

A

The controller-monitor

25
Q

(414) 6. Starting up the AVE primarily consists of what?

A

Applying power to the missile and G&C liquid cooler from thee power supply group, PG, and D-box.

26
Q

(415) 1. What equipment is required for DCU program loading?

A

CTU, controller-monitor, cable set, and an LFLC

27
Q

(416) 2. Where does the WCPS get the data from in order to generate LFLCs?

A

The MGS parameters tape, the operational ground program/operational flight program (OGP/OFP) tape, the flight program constants tape, and the W data.

28
Q

(415) 3. Why is the CTU self-test performed?

A

As a prerequisite to performing DCU program loading at the LF and, when successfully completed, ensures functional adequacy of the CTU for operations.

29
Q

(415) 4. What are you actions when the LFLC has been exposed to extremely cold or hot temperatures?

A

Open the tape cartridge carrying case and expose the MTC to the LF ambient temperature for at least 15 minutes.

30
Q

(415) 5. What is the purpose of conditioning the LFLC tape?

A

To ensure the adequacy of tape cartridge drive belt tension on the tape.

31
Q

(415) 6. What does the CTU do after it reads bits of recorded data on the MTC during DCU program loading?

A

It converts this data to electrical pulses for transmission to the DCU, via the coupler unit.

32
Q

(415) 7. During the fill sequence, what happens when the CTU detects a parity error?

A

This causes the enable write on signal to be reset, the CTU to stop, and the parity or verify (P/V) ERROR indicator on the controller-monitor to illuminate.

33
Q

(415) 8. What events tell the operator that the selected file has been loaded successfully and the next selection may be made?

A

The tape is automatically rewound to beginning of tape (BOT) holes, the COMPLETE indicator on the CTU illuminates and, on the controller-monitor, the PROGRAMMED STOP indicator illuminates.

34
Q

(415) 9. Following successful readout of the computer memory security check (CMSC) number, why does the operator initiate system entry into the compute mode?

A

In order to begin execution of the operational ground program

35
Q

(415) 10. Why are the alignment functions delayed for 35 minutes whenever entry to alignment was not preceded by a file 04 information DCU complete load file?

A

This 35 minute delay ensures a sufficient time period for warm up of the pendulous integrating gyroscope accelerometer (PIGA) before gyro stabilized platform (GSP) slewing and leveling is initiated.

36
Q

(415) 11. What does a battery flag discrete set false indicate during DCU initialization sequence?

A

The battery has already been turned on and the SRAM memory contains stored data.

37
Q

(415) 12. What two alignment mode entries are available during ground initialization?

A

Initial and restart

38
Q

(415) 13. How long does an initial alignment routine take?

A

Approximately one hour and 45 minutes up to two hours and 30 minutes includes 35 minutes for PIGA warm up, if applicable.

39
Q

(415) 14. What is strategic alert-biasing?

A

The mode of operation where in processing operations are performed to ensure launch readiness in a non-hostile environment (seismic, DCU circumvention, and circumvention reset set false).

40
Q

(415) 15. What is strategic alert-PIGA leveling?

A

The mode of operation where in processing operations are performed to ensure launch readiness in a hostile environment seismic, DCU circumvention or circumvention reset set true seismic, or DCU circumvention set true.

41
Q

(415) 16. How many code change operations can be performed at the LF?

A

Three; LF unique (W tape) data in the DCU; Enable code in the command signal decoder-missile (CSD(M)); Code plug (keying variable) in the SDU in the message processor of the LF programmer group. Keying variable changes may be made independently of other code change activities.

42
Q

(415) 17. What does code changing at the LF include?

A

Removing and installing the PG SDU Keying variable, changing the CSD(M) code.

43
Q

(415) 18. Where is the LF keying variable mounted?

A

On the SDU in the message processor (403A4)

44
Q

(415) 19. During each interval of the penetrate, insert, verify, and re-verify cycles, what enabled statuses are sampled?

A

The code device home, armed, 24th bit, and code change

45
Q

(415) 20. Following the CSD(M) code change, what does the maintenance team verify?

A

The verification number with the base code controllers at the missile support base.

2M051A Vol 3 (8 decks)

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