Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

11-2T38v3 w/ 80 OG Sup > Chapter 3 - Normal Operating Procedures > Flashcards

Chapter 3 - Normal Operating Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Can you carry cans of oil or hydraulic fluid in the aircraft?

A

Yes… supisingly you can put them in the WSSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where will objects not be placed during start with the canopies open?

A

On top of the glareshield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normal recovery fuel in the T38?

A

As established locally, or 800 lbs, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum fuel in the T38

A

Declare when it becomes apparant you will land with less than 600 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Emergency fuel in the T38

A

Declare when it becomes apparant you will land with less than 400 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Taxi interval - staggared (day)

A

150 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Taxi interval in trail

A

300 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When can normal taxi spacing intervals be reduced?

A

When holding short of or entering a runway. Use caution to avoid jet blast when canopies are open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Taxi spacing with ice or snow

A

Taxi on centerline with a minimum of 300 ft spacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regardless of runway width, what clearance must be maintained between wingman and element leader for any formation takeoff?

A

At least wingtip clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For a formation takeoff, place wingman on upwind side if crosswind component exceeds ___ knots.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do not takeoff with a RCR less than ___.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For a single ship or interval takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For a formation takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Runway width needed for formation takeoff

A

150 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Takeoff interval between aircraft or elements

A

10 seconds minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Takeoff spacing when joinup will be conducted above the clouds

A

20 seconds minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Day weather criterea for join-up underneath a ceiling

A

1500’ and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flight lead will maintain ___ knots until join up is accomplished unless briefed or directed otherwise

A

300

Standard at SPS is slightly different - see standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Flight lead will not normally exceed __ degrees of bank during a turning join-up

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For a SRJ, #2 will normally join to the __ side while the element will join to the __ side.

A

Left, Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Except for range procedures, min altitude for low altitude maneuvering.

A

500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Min altitude during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering

A

5000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Flight through wingtip vortices should be avoided. If it cannot be, what should you do?

A

Unload immediately to approx 1 G. Use asymmetric G limits if evaluating a jetwash induced over-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Min airspeed for all maneuvering unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows it

A

150 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pilots will conduct a Gx anytime aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ____ Gs during the mission

A

5 (4 for UPT students)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Minimum seperation between aircraft during Gx

A

4000 ft (2T38v3 - General guidance)

6000 ft (Sheppard Standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Primary means of ensuring aircraft deconfliction during Gx

A

Visual lookout and formation contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Conduct the Gx in the following airspace preference (4)

A
  1. Special use airspace
  2. Not in special use airspace but above 10,000
  3. In a MTR or LL training route
  4. Not in special use airspace and below 10,000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pilots will not use rolling maneuvers to maintain or regain formation position below _____.

A

5000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum flight size in IMC

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can you initiate a lead change from non wings level attitude? What if you are in limited visibility conditions?

A

Yes, No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Min altitude for changing lead over land, over water, and in IMC (or at night) unless on radar downwind (3 answers)

A

500ft, 1000ft, 1500ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When a flight member or element calls blind, initial actions for other flight member or element

A
  1. Be directive
  2. Make an informative position call
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Min altitude seperation for deconfliction in double blind scenario

A

500 ft (11-2T38v3)

1000 ft is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What to do in the case there is no timely response to an initial blind call (3 things)

A
  1. Maneuver away from last known position of #1
  2. Alter altitude
  3. Repeat blind call
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chase spacing

A

30-60 degree cone out to 1000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Chase aircraft will stack no lower than lead aircraft below ____.

A

1000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the T38 approach category?

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What to do if there are no published category E minimums on an approach?

A

Use category D minimums if…
1. Straight-in approach is flown
2. Aircraft is flown at final approach airspeed of 165 or less
3. Aircraft is flown at 260 knots true airspeed or less for missed approach (at higher pressure altitudes and temps, 260 knots true airspeed may not be compatible with published missed approach airspeeds and cat D should not be flown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Instrument trail departure: min spacing

A

20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Instrument trail departure: airspeed / power control

A
  1. Accelerate in AB to 250
  2. Accelerate in Mil to 300
  3. Climb at 300 knots setting 600 EGT until reaching cruise airspeed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Instrument trail departure: bank angle in turn

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Instrument trail departure: min vertical separation until visual

A

1000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If formation breakup must be accomplished in IMC, what information should lead transmit

A

Altitude, Airspeed, Heading, Altimeter (make sure also to accomplish a good alpha check)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Max number of aircraft for a formation penetration if weather at base of intended landing is less than overhead traffic pattern minimums

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Formation penetration: when should wingman be placed on the correct side if formation landing is intended

A

Prior to weather penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

VMC Drag: min weather

A

1500’ and 3

49
Q

VMC Drag: What to coordinate for if VMC drag is to be executed under IFR

A

Nonstandard formation

50
Q

VMC Drag: min airspeed for either wing or lead

A

Final approach airspeed

51
Q

VMC Drag: min spacing

A

3000 ft

52
Q

VMC Drag: definition of latest drag point

A

Adequate time for wingman to establish required separation and then for the flight lead to slow to final approach airspeed prior to 3 nm from the runway. Normally accomplished prior to FAF or glideslope intercept for instrument final approaches

53
Q

VMC Drag: what should wingman do if uncertain about spacing

A

Go around or execute the missed approach, notify ATC, comply with local procedures

54
Q

Climbs or descents through icing conditions more severe than ____ are prohibited

A

light rime

55
Q

T or F. The T38 can fly in areas of known or reported icing

A

False

56
Q

G and bank limitations in high or hilly terrain

A

Positive G and 120 degrees of bank max

57
Q

Do not stack lower than lead below ___.

A

1000 ft AGL

58
Q

Min airspeed for low level navigation

A

300 KTS

59
Q

During low altitude training, maintain a minimum of ___ above the highest terrain within ____ of the aircraft

A

500 ft, 1/2 nm

60
Q

During low altitude training, pilots will set the altitude warning function to alert the pilot at no less than _____ percent of planned altitude during low-level operations

A

90%

61
Q

What should be the reaction in low-level environment to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies

A

Climb to MSA or RAA

62
Q

Reaction in low-level environment to birdstrike / aircraft loses canopy

A

Immediately select MIL or MAX on both engines and climb away from the ground

63
Q

Weather minimums for visual low-level training

A

1500’ and 3

3000’ and 5 for VR routes

64
Q

Night taxi spaxing

A

300 ft, taxi on centerline

65
Q

T or F. Landing/taxi light will normally be used during all night taxi ops

A

True, unless it might interfere with the vision of another pilot

66
Q

How to initiate brake release / gear retraction for night formation takeoff?

A

Radio

67
Q

Desired touchdown point for a VFR approach

A

150 - 1000 feet (AFMAN, what does the 251 say about this?)

68
Q

Min low approach altitude for chase aircraft in emergency

A

300 ft

69
Q

Min weather for formation approach

A

500’ and 1.5 miles vis

70
Q

Max crosswind component: dry runway (solo UPT stud)

A

15 knots (including gusts)

71
Q

Max crosswind component: wet runway (solo UPT stud)

A

10 knots (including gusts)

72
Q

Min runway length with crosswind greater than 15 knots and no suitable barrier, for 60% and 100% flaps touch and go’s

A

10,000

73
Q

Do not perform ____ on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds ____ knots

A

no-flap touch-and-gos, 15 knots

74
Q

AETC: The speed at which the aircraft can experience an instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff in the remaining runway

A

Decision speed

75
Q

AETC: The maximum speed to which the aircraft is able to accelerate with both engines operating in MAX, and either: Abort with Both Engines Operating (BEO) or abort with an Engine Failure (EF)

A

Refusal speed

76
Q

AETC: Defined as the speed at which main gear lifts off the runway

A

Takeoff Speed (TOS)

77
Q

AETC: Pilots will ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to which Declared Distance

A

Landing Distance Available (LDA)

78
Q

AETC: Prior to performing a rolling takeoff, the pilot must consider TOLD with a runway length _____ less than the available runway.

A

300 ft

79
Q

AETC: If performing a rolling takeoff, if using Declared Distances, subtract ____ ft from both ASDA and TORA calculations as applicable.

A

300 ft

80
Q

AETC: Single ship rolling takeoffs are authorized only _____.

A

during daylight hours

81
Q

AETC: Which type of arresting system is the only one suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod?

A

BAK-15

82
Q

AETC: Which type of arresting system is suitable only for clean aircraft?

A

MA-1A

83
Q

AETC: Minimum runway length required for operations

A

8000 ft (OG/CC can waive this to 7000)

84
Q

AETC: Required wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position

A

50 ft

85
Q

AETC: Min altitude for stalls or slow flight

A

8000 ft AGL

86
Q

AETC: Max altitude for stalls or slow flight (and min power setting)

A

FL200, 80%

87
Q

AETC: Max altitude and weather requirements for practice unusual attitude recoveries

A

FL240 and VMC

88
Q

AETC: Do not fly formation above what altitude

A

FL350

89
Q

AETC: Do not fly above this altitude except in case of emergency

A

FL390

90
Q

AETC: It is prohibited to practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ____ fuel.

A

2500 lbs

91
Q

AETC: UFT pilots will accomplish a G-awareness exercise when maneuvers in excess of ___ Gs are anticipated

A

4

92
Q

AETC: Low altitude training should commence no earlier than ___ after sunrise (___ in mountaneous terrain)

A

30 minutes, 1 hour

93
Q

AETC: Plan to exit the low altitude structure no later than ___ prior to sunset (___ in mountaneous terrain)

A

30 minutes, 1 hour

94
Q

AETC: Max airspeed for UFT low level training

A

420 knots

95
Q

AETC: Min altitude for flying VFR point-to-point navigation missions

A

3000 ft AGL

96
Q

AETC: All night landings require ___

A

operational glidepath guidance (precision approach or visual glidepath guidance)

97
Q

AETC: All descents below MDA on a night nonprecision approach require ____

A

an operational visual approach system

98
Q

AETC: For parallel runway configurations that do not allow for ____ to ____ ft of lateral spacing, local procedures can dictate spacing to a minimum of ___ ft of lateral spacing

A

4000, 6000, 2000

99
Q

AETC: Max crosswind for single ship touch and go’s for a dry runway

A

25 knots

100
Q

AETC: Extended daylight definition. For local area training only, what daylight operations can be conducted during this time.

A

15 minutes before official sunrise - 15 minutes after official sunset. Daylight traffic pattern, and MOA operation.

101
Q

AETC: What maneuveres may be performed during extended daylight?

A

Everything (all maneuvers normally accomplished during normal daylight hours) including solo syllabus sorties

102
Q

AETC: Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ knots. Why?

A

35 knots. Hazard posed to crew members in case of ejection

103
Q

AETC: Overwater wind/wave restriction for ejection considerations

A

10 ft waves, surface winds > 25 knots

104
Q

AETC: Min weather for extended trail or aerobatics

A

3nm vis, clear of clouds, discernible horizon

105
Q

80 OG: Tire restriction for main gear tires on out-and-back or cross country missions - Michelin tires

A

No cords are showing

106
Q

80 OG: Tire restriction for main gear tires on out-and-back or cross country missions - Goodyear tires

A

Ensure no angled cords after the zero degree cords are showing

107
Q

80 OG: The canopy jettison pin will not be removed until…

A

clear of any covered parking area

108
Q

80 OG: Pilots will ensure ___ prior to arming the ejection seat via the SAFE/ARMED handle

A

both canopies are down and locked

109
Q

80 OG: If both cockpits are occupied, what should be verbally confirmed prior to engine run up?

A

ISS in briefed position

110
Q

80 OG: When the ambient temperture is less than ____ or the density altitude is _____ or below, turn on anti-ice prior to engine takeoff run-up and smoothly advance the throttle to MAX AB. Turn anti-ice off no earlier than ___ and no later than ____.

A

40 F (4 C), -1000, deselection of AB, the first level-off check

111
Q

80 OG: For 3 and 4 ship formations, what will the last aircraft squawk until rejoined to standard formation?

A

4700 TA

112
Q

80 OG: For a trail departure, when can lead direct the formation to switch to departure frequency?

A

When all aircraft are airborn or certain the barrier is no longer needed

113
Q

80 OG: Departure speed / power for lead on a trail departure

A

300 KTS and 600 EGT in the climbout until rejoined (even above 10,000 ft MSL)

114
Q

80 OG: Min altitude level-off block for 3-ship

A

2000’

115
Q

80 OG: Min altitude level-off block for a 4-ship

A

3000’

116
Q

80 OG: Normally, initiate VMC drag NLT ____ from the rwy

A

8 miles

117
Q

80 OG: For VMC drag, lead will maintain ____ KCAS until ____ miles from the runway, then slow to final approach airspeed

A

180, 3

118
Q

80 OG: When directed to drag, wingman will set what transponder code, and drag to what distance range.

A

0377, call “C/S, saddled” once 3000-6000 foot spacing is established

11-2T38v3 w/ 80 OG Sup (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions