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FlightStar > Chapter 3 FlightStar Ops Manual (21-40) (5/29/2023) > Flashcards

Chapter 3 FlightStar Ops Manual (21-40) (5/29/2023) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

TFL

A

Takeoff Field Length

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2
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

TFL definition

A

Is the greatest of the BFL and 115% of the all-engines takeoff distance.

The horizontal distance along the takeoff path from the start of the takeoff point to the point at which the aircraft is 35 ft above the runway surface.

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3
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

BFL

A

Balanced Field Length

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4
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

BFL definition

A

The runway length (or runway plus clearway and/or stopway) where, for the takeoff weight, the engine-out accelerate-go distance equals the accelerate-stop distance

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5
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

If the runway length is __________ feet or longer than the computed ________, the crew will brief _____ as the abort speed.

A

1000, TFL, V1

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6
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

If the runway length is less than__________ feet long than the computed ________, the crew will brief _____ as the abort speed.

A

1000, TFL, 80 knots

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7
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

Runway less than 1000 longer than computed TFL, above 80 knots but prior to V1, the takeoff will only be aborted for the following reasons: (5 items)

A
  • Fire warning
  • Engine failure
  • Thrust reverser deployment
  • Loss of directional control
  • Uncommanded pitch trim movement
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8
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

Aborted takeoffs are always a ____________________________ (two words)

A

Critical maneuver

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9
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

No abort may be initiated after ________ has been called

A

V1

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10
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

Prior to V1, who may call an abort?

A

Either crewmember

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11
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

On an abort, which three things will the PF do?

A
  • Apply brakes
  • Retard throttle
  • Extend thrust reversers
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12
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

Who alerts ATC of an aborted takeoff?

A

Pilot Monitoring

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13
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

At V1 or above, the problem is taken _______ ______ _______ (3 words)

A

into the air

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14
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

No action is taken until ______ AGL

A

400 (or whatever terrain clearance altitude has been decided on)

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15
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

What do the following correspond to: DU1, DU2, DU3, DU4

A

PFD (left seat), EICAS, MFD, PFD (right seat)

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16
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

What is V1?

A

The maximum speed at which a rejected takeoff can be initiated in the event of an emergency

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17
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

What is V2?

A

The speed at which the aircraft may safely be climbed with one engine inoperative

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18
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

What is Vr?

A

Rotation speed

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19
Q
  1. Jet Abort Procedures

What is the significance of V2 + 25?

A

Flaps 8 retraction speed

20
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

SIC Flying Procedure (First 25 hours) (two items)

A
  • Less than 10 hours in type, flies from the right seat on deadhead legs only
  • 10 or more hours in type, flies from right seat, alternating legs
21
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

Flying from the right seat is at the discretion of the _____________

A

Captain

22
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

Right seat takeoffs at the discretion of the captain, must be above what weather minimums?

A
  • Runway visibility- 1SM
  • Runway length- Must allow for V1 abort speed
23
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

Right seat landings are at the discretion of the _________

A

PIC

24
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

The pilot in the ___________ seat of the aircraft shall _____________________________________

A

left, accomplish all normal taxiing

25
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

On landing, the pilot in the ___________ seat will state “__________________” as the aircraft is slowed to taxi speed

A

left, “I have control”

26
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

Transfer of control when taxiing will be made in what two conditions?

A
  • At a full stop
  • When the aircraft is coasting
27
Q
  1. Right Seat Takeoff and Landing Procedures

After IOE, the intention is for both pilots to get __________ flight time

A

equal

28
Q
  1. Leg Procedures

Two pilot: PIC and SIC

A
  • PIC will brief the leg arrangement
  • SIC will fly from the right seat
29
Q
  1. Leg Procedures

Two pilot: PIC and Co-captain

A
  • PIC will brief the leg arrangement
  • PF will fly from the left seat
30
Q
  1. Procedures for Use of Aircraft Lights

Aircraft positions lights will be illuminated any time what?

A

Powered is supplied to the aircraft (except the Lear 45)

31
Q
  1. Procedures for Use of Aircraft Lights

The taxi lights will be illuminated any time the aircraft is _____ _________ (two words)

A

in motion (Real world, you turn off the taxi lights as you get onto the ramp

32
Q
  1. Procedures for Use of Aircraft Lights

In the air, taxi lights on with ________________ clearance. Landing lights on with ______________ clearance.

A

Approach
Landing

33
Q
  1. Procedures for Use of Aircraft Lights

Recog light is on during what times?

A

Taking the runway to 10,000 feet
10,000 feet to clearing the runway

34
Q
  1. Procedures for Use of Aircraft Lights

When cleared into position, what lights do you leave off?

A

You leave the landing lights in the taxi position until you are cleared for takeoff

35
Q
  1. Airspeed Bug Settings - Part 25 Aircraft

In the Lear 40/45 the speed bug should be set to what speed?

A

V2 + 25

36
Q
  1. Transition Altitude Altimeter Setting Procedure

When should you set the altimeter during climb or descent through 18,000?

A

Within 1,000 feet of 18,0000

37
Q
  1. Procedure for Use of Altitude Alerter

The pilot confirming an altimeter setting or an altitude should use what verbiage?

A

“I see (Altimeter setting)”
“I see (Altitude)”

38
Q
  1. Procedure for Use of Altitude Alerter

Sterile cockpit procedures apply within ____________ of the level off altitude.

A

1000 feet

39
Q
  1. Guidance (Autopilot) Panel Protocol

Who always makes altitude selections, whether the AP is on or not?

A

The Pilot Monitoring

40
Q
  1. Transfer of the Controls Between Right and Left Seat Pilots

How do you transfer controls of the aircraft?

A

“I have control”
“You have control”

41
Q
  1. Stabilized Approach

When must an approach be stabilized by? IMC? VMC?

A

IMC- 1,000 feet above minimums
VMC- 500 feet above minimums

42
Q
  1. Stabilized Approach

What are key elements that dictate that an approach is stable? (4 items)

A
  • Plane is in the landing configuration
  • Speed is between Vref +30 and Vref +10
  • Sink rate no greater than 1,000 fpm
  • Instrument approach within 1 dot vertically and laterally
43
Q
  1. Runway Aiming Point

The landing should occur in the first _____ of the runway.

A

1/3

44
Q
  1. Procedure for Use of Thrust Reverser

Once the TR have been used, what is no longer an option?

A

A go-around

45
Q
  1. Procedure for Use of Thrust Reverser

In what order should you use the equipment on the plane to decelerate?

A
  • Brakes
    then
  • Thrust Reversers
46
Q
  1. Climbs and Descents

When you are climbing or descending why should you limit your FPM to 1,000?

A

To help eliminate false TCAS alerts

47
Q
  1. Communication Radio

What is the primary radio in the Lear 45?

A

Radio 2

FlightStar (7 decks)

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