Chapter 3: Drug Regulation and Control Flashcards

0
Q

Established that manufacturers, pharmacists, importers, and physicians prescribing narcotics should be licensed and required to pay a tax.

A

1914 Harrison Tax Act

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1
Q

Prohibited interstate commerce in adulterated or misbranded food, drinks, and drugs. Government preapproval of drugs is required.

A

Food and Drug Act of 1906

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2
Q

this came into effect because of fatal poisoning from liquid sulfanilamide, it required new drugs to be shown to be safe before marketing

A

1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) Act

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3
Q

This law defines what drugs require a prescription by a licensed practitioner and requires them to include “RX only” on the label

Also known as legend drugs

A

1951 Durham- Humphrey Amendment

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4
Q

Requires drug manufacturers to provide proof of both safety AND effectiveness before marketing the drug.

A

1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment

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5
Q

Requires all consumer-products in interstate commerce to be honestly and informatively labeled.

A

1966 Fair Packaging and Labeling Act

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6
Q

Requires childproof packaging on all controlled and most prescription drugs dispensed by pharmacies.

A

1970 Poison Prevention Packaging Act

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7
Q

The act that classifies five levels of drugs, controlled substances, that have potential for abuse and therefore we restricts their distribution.

Completely replaced Harrison Act

A

1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

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8
Q

The drug enforcement agency was created and placed under the supervision of the Department of Justice. Control substances are placed in one of five schedules based on a potential for abuse and accepted medical use in the United States.

A

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

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9
Q

Requires premarket approval for safety and effectiveness of life-sustaining and life-supporting medical devices.

A

1976 Medical Device Amendment

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10
Q

Provides incentives to promote research, approval, and marketing of drugs needed for the treatment of rare diseases

A

1983 Orphan Drug Act

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11
Q

This act allowed for both the extension of drug patent terms and quicker introduction of lower-cost generic drugs.

A

1984 Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act (Hatch-Waxman)

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12
Q

Requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients regarding medications.

A

1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA 90)

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13
Q

Restricts distribution of PRESCRIPTION DRUGS to legitimate commercial channels and requires drug wholesalers to be licensed by the states.

A

1987 Prescription Drug Marketing Act

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14
Q

This act was passed to “address the abuse of steroids by athletes, and, especially, youngsters and teenagers.”

A

1990 Anabolic Steroid Control Act

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15
Q

The scope of health information that may and may not be shared among healthcare providers without patient consent and provided for a broad and stringent regulations to protect patients right to privacy.

A

1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

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16
Q

All drugs have pediatric dosing and safety information on their labels if the drug has potential use for pediatric patients.

A

The pediatric labeling rule established 1994

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17
Q

What is the purpose of phase 1 testing

A

Safety

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18
Q

What is the purpose of phase 2 testing

A

Short-term safety but mainly effectiveness

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19
Q

What is the purpose of phase 3 testing

A

Safety, dosage, and effectiveness

20
Q

During the trial phase, what is a proposed new drug called

A

Investigational New Drug (IND)

21
Q

How long is a drug patent in effect for

A

17 years from the date of the drug’s discovery

22
Q

What does OTC stand for

A

Over-the-counter

23
Q

What are OTC drugs

A

Drugs which do not require a prescription

24
Q

Sets daily and monthly restrictions on the amount of ephedrine or pseudoephedrine that can be sold to an individual

A

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act

25
Q

What is the restriction for the combat methamphetamine epidemic act

A

3.6 g per day and 7.5 g per month

26
Q

What is required of a patient before purchasing ephedrine or pseudoephedrine

What is required of retailers

A

Present photo identification

To keep personal information about the purchasers for at least two years after each purchase

27
Q

How many control schedules are there for controlled substances

A

Five

28
Q

Each drug has a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. It may not be prescribed. Heroin, various opium derivatives, and hallucinogenic substances are included on the schedule.

A

Schedule I

29
Q

Each drug has a high potential for abuse and may lead to physical or psychological dependence, but also has a currently accepted medical use in the United States. Amphetamines, opium, cocaine, methadone, and various opiates are included on the schedule.

A

Schedule II

30
Q

is a currently accepted medical use in the US, but abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Anabolic steroids and various compounds containing limited quantities of narcotic substances such as codeine are included on the schedule.

A

Schedule III

31
Q

Low potential for abuse, there is a current accepted medical use in the US, but abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence. Compounds containing limited amount of narcotic such as codeine are included in this group.

A

Schedule V

32
Q

Low potential for abuse. there is a current accepted medical use in the US, but abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Phenobarbital, the sedative chloral hydrate, and the anesthetic methohexital are included in this group.

A

Schedule IV

33
Q

How long are schedule II records kept

A

Seven years

34
Q

How long are schedules III, IV, & V kept

A

Two years

35
Q

Where are schedule II drugs stored

A

In a locked, tamper-proof narcotics cabinet

36
Q

Where are schedule III, IV, & V drugs stored

A

storage shelves

37
Q

What is an injunction

A

When the FDA prevents the manufacturer from distributing the drug

38
Q

How many classes of recalls are there

A

Three

39
Q

Where there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death.

A

Class I Recall

40
Q

Where a product may cause temporary but reversible adverse effects, or in which there is little likelihood of serious adverse effects.

A

Class II Recall

41
Q

Where a product is not likely to cause adverse effects

A

Class III Recall

42
Q

Who is the leading enforcement agency at the federal level for regulations concerning drug products

A

Food and drug administration

FDA

43
Q

Who controls the distribution of drugs

A

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

44
Q

Which OTC medications are kept behind the counter even if they do not require a prescription

A

Medications containing ephedrine and pseudoephedrine; exempt narcotics; and emergency contraceptives.

45
Q

What is ASHP stand for and who do the represent

A

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

The 30,000 member Association for pharmacist practicing in hospitals, HMOs, long-term care facilities, home care agencies, and other healthcare systems. It is an accrediting organization for pharmacy residency and pharmacy technician training Program.

46
Q

What does USP stand for and who do they set standards for

A

United States Pharmacopoeia

A voluntary non-for profit organization that set standards for the manufacture and distribution of drugs related products in the United States. These standards are directly referred to by federal and state laws.

47
Q

What does TJC (JCAHO) stand for And who are they.

A

The Joint Commission (Joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations)

A non-profit independent organization that establishes standards and monitors compliance for nearly 20,000 healthcare programs in the United States, Including hospitals, healthcare networks,HMOs, and nursing homes, among others.

48
Q

What does ASCP stand for And what do they do

A

The American Society for consultant pharmacists

Set standards for practice for pharmacists who provide medication distribution and consulting services to nursing homes.