Chapter 29 Flashcards
Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Ovarian ligament
d) Body of uterus
e) Vagina
b) Fallopian tube
Which of the following is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract?
a) Acrosomal reaction
b) Maturation
c) Fertilization
d) Capacitation
e) Polyspermy
d) Capacitation
The fusion of the male pronucleus and the female pronucleus results in which developmental stage?
a) Female pronucleus
b) Male pronucleus
c) Zygote
d) Blastomeres
e) Morula
c) Zygote
Which of the following is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG?
a) Blastocyte
b) Blastosphere
c) Trophoblast
d) Blastocyst cavity
e) Uterine cavity
c) Trophoblast
Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis?
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua parietalis
d) Lamina propria
e) Adventitia
a) Decidua basalis
Which of the following develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid?
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Yolk sac
c) Exocoelomic membrane
d) Amnion
e) Lacunae
d) Amnion
Which of the following will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus?
a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
b) Amnion
c) Amnionic fluid
d) Embryonic disc
e) Endoderm
a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
Each somite may differentiate into a
a) Sertoli cell
b) Dermatome
c) Ovary
d) Myogenic cells
e) Ductus deferens
b) Dermatome
Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Umbilical cord
d) Placenta
e) Capillary beds
c) Umbilical cord
How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
d) 5
Which of the following is an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo?
a) Carcinogen
b) Toxin
c) Nicotine
d) Radiation
e) Teratogen
e) Teratogen
What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities?
a) Sonogram
b) Amniocentesis
c) CVS
d) AFP test
e) CBC
b) Amniocentesis
CVS is taking cells from where?
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Placenta
d) Umbilical cord
e) Uterus
b) Chorion
Which hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus?
a) GnRH
b) hCG
c) CRH
d) AFP
e) ATP
c) CRH
During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%
c) 30%
Labor cannot take place until all of which hormone’s effects are diminished?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Relaxin
e) Inhibin
b) Progesterone
Which of the following is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix?
a) Stage of dilation
b) Stage of expulsion
c) Placental stage
d) Gestation
e) Effacement
a) Stage of dilation
Involution is
a) When the placenta is expelled
b) When the umbilical cord is cut
c) When the uterus decreases in size
d) When the cervix dilates
e) None of these choices
c) When the uterus decreases in size
What connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in infants?
a) Ductus venosus
b) Ductus arteriosus
c) Anteriosum
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
e) Superior vena cava
a) Ductus venosus
Which of the following is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts?
a) Prolactin
b) PIH
c) PRH
d) Oxytocin
e) GnRH
d) Oxytocin
Which of the following is a permanent change in an allele?
a) Mutation
b) Phenotype
c) Genotype
d) Dominant
e) Recessive
a) Mutation
When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:
a) Mutation
b) Translocation
c) Genomic imprinting
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Codominance
c) Genomic imprinting
An example of incomplete dominance is
a) ABO blood groups
b) Sickle-cell disease
c) Angelman Syndrome
d) Prader-Willi Syndrome
e) PKU
b) Sickle-cell disease
If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?
a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O
e) All of these choices
e) All of these choices
If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?
a) B
b) O
c) AB
d) B or O
e) B, O or AB
e) B, O or AB
Chromosome #15 is considered
a) A sex chromosome
b) An autosome
c) The SRY chromosome
d) A linked gene
e) A transposon
b) An autosome
A Barr body
a) Is an inactivated X chromosome
b) Cannot be stained
c) Are transcribed and translated
d) Is seen in males
e) Is only found in humans
a) Is an inactivated X chromosome
Which one represents the morula stage?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
Which one represents the blastocyst stage?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
e) E
What does diagram “A” represent?
a) Cleavage of embryo
b) Cleavage of zygote
c) Cleavage of morula
d) Cleavage of blastocyst
e) Cleavage of fetus
b) Cleavage of zygote
What is line “A” pointing to?
a) Endometrial gland
b) Trophoblast
c) Embryoblast
d) Blastocyst
e) Dermatome
b) Trophoblast
What stage happens 3–4 days after fertilization?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
What stage happens 6 days after fertilization?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
e) E
Which structure was formerly called the blastocyst cavity?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
d) F
This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
Where is the amniotic cavity?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
a) E
Which cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) F
e) G
b) B
What is line “G” pointing to?
a) Chorion
b) Chorionic villi
c) Sinusoid
d) Extraembryonic mesoderm
e) None of these choices
e) None of these choices
What is line “G” pointing to?
a) Chorionic villi
b) Amnion
c) Umbilical vein
d) Umbilical artery
e) Amnionic capillary bed
a) Chorionic villi
Where are the fetal blood vessels?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
c) E
What is line “F” pointing to?
a) Umbilical arteries
b) Umbilical vein
c) Fetal blood vessels
d) Maternal endometrial arteriole
e) Chorionic villi
b) Umbilical vein
Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
The primary germ layers are the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm. The endoderm ultimately develops into tissues such as epithelial linings and associated glands in the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems. The mesoderm becomes connective tissues, muscle tissues and the dermis. The ectoderm yields the epidermis, the nervous system and some additional epithelial membranes.
Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
The position of the fetus and placenta is identified via ultrasound and palpation, and the skin is prepared with antiseptic and local anesthetic. A hypodermic needle is inserted through the abdominal wall and uterus to withdraw 10 mL of amniotic fluid from the amniotic cavity. The fluid and cells are examined and biochemically tested for abnormal proteins and chromosome abnormalities that may signal fetal problems and congenital defects.
Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Fetal CRH secretion increases, which causes estrogen to rise as fetal ACTH triggers an increase in cortisol and DHEA. Placenta converts DHEA to estrogen. In turn, estrogen increases oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle fibers and makes them form gap junctions. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction, and relaxin dilates the cervix and loosens the pubic symphysis. Estrogen also increases prostaglandins to digest collagen in the cervix. Oxytocin, cervix, and the hypothalamus maintain a positive feedback loop to maintain labor.
Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Genotype is the actual DNA sequence or genetic makeup of an individual. Teratogens (agents that cause mutations) might damage the DNA and change the genotype. For instance, the DNA in an embryo exposed to ionizing radiation might be damaged, resulting in genes that malfunction. Phenotype is the physical expression of the genes. Height, hair color, and even enzyme activity are phenotypes. If the genotype is changed by the environment, the phenotype may also be changed. A single base change in DNA is responsible for the sickle cell phenotype. Phenotype is dependent on the environment in a variety of ways. One example is that a child might have the genotype “tall”. If the child doesn’t receive adequate nutrition, though, he still might not be as tall as his genes would ordinarily allow.
Red-green color blindness is a recessive, X-linked trait represented as Xc. (Normal color vision is represented as XC.) If a daughter has red-green color blindness, what must the genotypes of her parents be?
The daughter can only have red-green color blindness if she received two copies of Xc chromosomes. Since her father only has one X chromosome, his genotype must be XcY. The other Xc chromosome had to come from her mother. If her mother has normal color vision, the mother’s genotype is XCXc. However, if the mother is also color blind, the mother’s genotype must be XcXc.
Which condition listed is a malpresentation in which the fetal buttocks or lower limbs present into the maternal pelvis?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
d) breech presentation
Which condition listed is a developmental abnormality due to mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period of time?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Deformation
Clubfeet is an example of which condition listed?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Deformation
Which condition listed is also called morning sickness?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
a) Emesis gravidarum
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, usually due to trisomy XXY?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged, sterile males with undeveloped testes, scant body hair, and enlarged breasts?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
Which condition listed is an infectious disease of childbirth resulting from an infection originating in the birth canal and affecting the mother’s endometrium?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Puerperal fever
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Puerperal fever
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Lethal gene
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Metafemale syndrome
Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
c) Epigenesis
Which of the terms below includes all structures that develop from a zygote: the embryo, the embryonic placenta and its associated membranes?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Karyotype
a) Conceptus
Which of the terms below describes the beginning or first discernable indication of the development of an organ or structure?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
b) Primordium
Which of the terms below describes the chromosomal characteristic of an individual presented as a systematic arrangement of pairs of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
d) Karyotype
What is the term used to describe the age of an embryo or fetus calculated from the presumed first day of the last normal menstrual period?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Fertilization age
d) Gestational age
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives polydactyly. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Brachydactyly
c) Normal digits
d) Syndactylism
e) Straight thumb
c) Normal digits
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives syndactylism. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Brachydactyly
c) Normal digits
d) Polydactyly
e) Straight thumb
c) Normal digits
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives Huntington’s disease. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Normal digits
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Straight thumb
c) Normal nervous system
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives normal skin pigmentation. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Albinism
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Cystic fibrosis
b) Albinism
Which hormone causes release of milk into the mammary ducts via the milk ejection reflex?
a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
e) Aldosterone
b) Oxytocin
Which of the following is a breast-feeding benefit for infants?
a) Beneficial cells
b) Beneficial molecules
c) Decreased incidence of diseases later in life
d) Enhancement of intellectual and neurological development
e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits
e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits
Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone?
a) Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy
b) Help prepare mammary glands for lactation
c) Establish the timing of birth
d) Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
e) All of these are functions of CRH
c) Establish the timing of birth
Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?
a) AFP
b) CVS
c) Amniocentesis
d) All of these
e) None of these
a) AFP
When are the three primary germ layers established during pregnancy?
a) First week of development
b) Second week of development
c) Third week of development
d) Fourth week of development
e) Second month of development
c) Third week of development
Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?
a) Cartilage
b) Dermis of the skin
c) Kidneys and ureters
d) Internal and external ear
e) Gametes
e) Gametes
Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Gonads
c) Epithelium of the oral cavity
d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx
e) Arachnoid mater
d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx
Which of the following structures is NOT produced from the mesoderm?
a) Melanocytes
b) All skeletal muscle
c) All cardiac muscle
d) Blood vessels
e) Lymphatic tissue
a) Melanocytes
Which of the following are major potential teratogens that affect embryonic development?
a) Alcohol
b) Cigarette smoke
c) Various prescription drugs
d) Irradiation
e) All of these
e) All of these
