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A&P2 > Chapter 23 and 24 > Flashcards

Chapter 23 and 24 Flashcards

1
Q

What does GTPAL stand for?

A

Gravidity, term, preterm, abortion and living

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2
Q

What does complete dominance mean?

A

Dominant trait completely masks the recessive trait

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3
Q

What does incomplete dominance mean?

A

Dominant trait doesn’t completely mask the recessive trait but instead slightly reveals it

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4
Q

What does codominance mean?

A

2 dominant traits can both reveal themselves

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5
Q

What type of dominance is shown in this example, red [CrCr] + white [CwCw] flower = pink [CrCw] flower?

A

incomplete dominance

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6
Q

What type of dominance is shown in the example, Brown cow [CbCb] + White cow [CwCw] = A brown and white spotted cow?

A

codominance

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7
Q

What is Naegele rule used for?

A

Predicting a due date

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8
Q

How to use Naegele rule to predict due date?

A

Take LMP and add 7 days, and minus 3 months.

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9
Q

What would the due date be using Naegele rule, LMP 07/21/2022?

A

April 28, 2023

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10
Q

What are punnett squares used for?

A

to predict percentage of offspring with certain alleles

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11
Q

Which chromosomes are considered autosomal?

A

1-22 paired chromosomes

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12
Q

What is a type of autosomal dominant disorder?

A

Huntingtons

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13
Q

What is a autosomal dominant disorder?

A

Offspring will inherit the disorder even if only one allele is inherited because it is dominant

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14
Q

What is a type of autosomal recessive disorder?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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15
Q

How would a autosomal recessive disorder be inherited?

A

Both parents will pass on the gene but most of the time symptoms are not present

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16
Q

What are 2 types of aneuploidy?

A

Euploid and Aneuploid

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17
Q

What does euploid mean?

A

normal # of chromosomes

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18
Q

What does aneuploid mean?

A

chromosomes are either missing or an extra

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19
Q

What are the 2 types of aneuploid?

A

monosomy and trisomy

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20
Q

What is an example of monosomy?

A

Turner’s syndrome (XO) sex chromosome disorder causing webbed neck feature

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21
Q

What is an example of trisomy?

A

Edwards: (18th chromosome)
Pataus: (13th chromosome)
Downs: ( 21st chromosome)

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22
Q

Where do sex chromosome disorders take place?

A

23rd chromosome set

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23
Q

What is another name for superman syndrome?

A

Jacob’s syndorme (XYY) - extra maleness

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24
Q

What is the name for disorder causing XXY?

A

Kleinfelters

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25
Q

What is the name for the disorder causing XXX?

A

superwoman

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26
Q

What is turner’s syndrome?

A

XO, female missing an x chromosome and causing webbed neck features

27
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Have entire extra set of chromosomes (69 chromosomes)

28
Q

What is the importance of the corpus luteum?

A

provides progesterone and some estrogen to help the endometrium to prepare for pregnancy

29
Q

What are the layers of gastrulation?

A

ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm

30
Q

What does the ectoderm form?

A

Nervous system, some special sensory organs, epidermis, hair, nails, skin glands, linings of mouth and anal canal

31
Q

What does the mesoderm form?

A

Muscle tissue, bone tissue, blood, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, internal reproductive organs, kidneys and epithelial lining of body cavities

32
Q

What does the endoderm form?

A

internal organs- pancreas, gallbladder, linings of digestive tract, respiratory tract, urinary bladder and urethra

33
Q

What are teratogens?

A

factors causing malformation during granulation stage

34
Q

How long is the pre-embryonic stage?

A

fertilization to 2 weeks

35
Q

What occurs in the pre-embryonic stage?

A

Zygote forms, cleavage stage: blastomere cells divide, morula forms and moves to the uterus, blastocyst attach to the endometrium. Produces hCG which maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy until the placenta forms and takes over hormone production

36
Q

How long is the embryonic stage?

A

3 weeks to 8 weeks

37
Q

How long is the fetal stage?

A

9 weeks to birth

38
Q

How many umbilical veins and arteries are there?

A

1 umbilical vein and 2 umbilical arteries

39
Q

Who helps bypass the liver in fetal circulation?

A

Ductus Venosus

40
Q

Where does the ductus arteriosus by pass?

A

By passes the lungs from the pulmonary trunk

41
Q

Who helps by pass the right ventricle?

A

Foramen ovale

42
Q

What organ is the first to develop in a fetus?

A

Heart

43
Q

What are the 4 stages of birth?

A

1st stage: Baby gets in position with the head down
2nd stage: Amniotic sac ruptures. cervix becomes thin and stretches. uterine and vagina stretching start positive feedback with contractions. Oxytocin is being released
3rd stage: contractions help push the baby out
4th stage: placenta is delivered

44
Q

How long is the neonatal stage?

A

birth to 4 weeks

45
Q

how long is the infancy stage?

A

5 weeks to the 1st year

46
Q

how long is the childhood stage?

A

1 year to before puberty

47
Q

how long is the adolescence stage?

A

Puberty to adulthood (20s)

48
Q

How long is adulthood?

A

20s to death

49
Q

What is senescence?

A

process of growing old, cell division declines

50
Q

What are the 2 dying processes?

A

preactive and active

51
Q

What is preactive dying?

A

May take up to 3 months

52
Q

What is active dying?

A

Showing actual signs of dying.

53
Q

What is growth?

A

increase in size (increase in cells)

54
Q

What is development?

A

Getting to one stage from another. (changes in life)

55
Q

What are the 2 stages of development?

A

Prenatal and postnatal

56
Q

What does the acrosomal cap do?

A

Helps sperm break down the corona radiata and zona pellucida to fertilize

57
Q

How does implantation occur?

A

attachment of blastocyst to uterine lining

58
Q

What are genetics?

A

inheritance of characteristics

59
Q

What are genes?

A

Specific proteins of DNA sequence

60
Q

What is a genome?

A

Instructions for a complete set of a genetics (characterics)

61
Q

What is a exome?

A

Protein coding in genome

62
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

“blueprint” of chromosomes

63
Q

What is a genotype?

A

Combination of alleles for particular genes

64
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

Physical appearance of a trait

A&P2 (4 decks)

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