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UHD Exam 5 > Chapter 21 > Flashcards

Chapter 21 Flashcards

1
Q

osteoblasts

A

osteoid, make bone

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2
Q

osteoclasts

A

break down bone

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3
Q

osteocytes

A

cell trapped in bone

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4
Q

endochondral ossification

A
  • lay down cartilage (chondrocytes)
  • laying down of bone
  • ossification at epiphyseal plate
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5
Q

intramembranous ossification

A
  • no cartilage phase occurs
  • typically occurs in flat bones
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6
Q

bone mineral density

A
  • amount of mineral per cm/bone
  • indicator of fracture risk
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7
Q

factors influencing bone mineral density

A
  • diet
  • physical activity
  • hormones (calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, estrogen)
  • ethnicity (caucasian/asian)
  • age
  • sex (females)
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8
Q

what is the most frequent affliction of bone?

A

fracture

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9
Q

what causes a fracture?

A
  • trauma
  • pathologic (cancer and osteoporosis)
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10
Q

osteopenia

A

generalized loss of bone

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11
Q

what causes osteopenia?

A

osteoporosis and osteomalacia

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12
Q

what is the most common malignancy of bone?

A

metastatic cancer

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13
Q

what is the most common metastatic cancer in adults?

A

multiple myeloma

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14
Q

what is the most common metastatic cancer in children?

A

osteosarcoma and ewing sarcoma

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15
Q

most common symptoms associated with bone..

A
  • pain
  • decreased mobility
  • deformity
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16
Q

symptoms associated with arthritis..

A
  • joint stiffness and decreased mobility
  • pain and inflammation
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17
Q

diagnostic modalities for bone abnormalities

A

x rays and CT scans

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18
Q

serum tests for bone abnormalities may include..

A
  • calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase
  • erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  • rheumatoid factor and uric acid levels
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19
Q

other tests for bone abnormalities

A
  • cultures to diagnose arthritis and osteomyelitis
  • biopsy to confirm infection or identify bone tumor
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20
Q

achondroplasia is the leading cause of..

A

dwarfism

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21
Q

what gene is affected in achondroplasia?

A

fibroblast growth factor 3 receptor (FGFR3)
- autosomal dominant

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22
Q

what does achondroplasia affect?

A
  • faulty 1 bone formation
  • impaired growth of extremities and formation of skull bones
  • causes dwarfism with disproportionately short limbs
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23
Q

ostogenesis imperfecta is also known as what?

A

brittle bone disease (thin and delicate bones easily broken)

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24
Q

the mutation in genes in ostogenesis imperfecta results in what?

A

insufficient collagen formation
- autosomal dominant

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25
Q

what are characteristics of ostogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • increase susceptibility to bone fractures (also in utero)
  • eight types
  • malformation of fingers and toes
  • spinal curvature
  • brittle teeth
  • blue sclera
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26
Q

what is the most common congenital disorder of the legs?

A

congenital clubfoot (talipes)

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27
Q

congenital clubfoot

A
  • not painful
  • curvature of the feet inwards toward the body
  • multifactorial inheritance
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28
Q

treatment of congenital clubfoot

A

manipulation and casts

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29
Q

fracture definition

A

any disruption in continuity of bone

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30
Q

where does the pain from fractures come from?

A

tearing of periosteum

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31
Q

simple fracture

A

bone broken in only two pieces

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32
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone shattered into many pieces

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33
Q

compound fracture

A

overlying skin is broken with potential for infection

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34
Q

pathologic fracture

A

fracture through a diseased area in the bone

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35
Q

greenstick

A

before bones fuse together at puberty, bendy

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36
Q

what needs to happen in order for fractures to heal?

A
  • broken fragments must be close to each other
  • fracture must be stabilized
37
Q

healing process of fractures

A
  • proliferation of osteoblasts from fracture margins and vascular channels from periosteum
  • immature bone and cartilage gradually remodel into mature bone
38
Q

osteomyelitis

A

bacterial infection of bone and marrow

39
Q

organisms gain access to bone via..

A
  • spread of infection from somewhere else
  • following trauma or surgery to bone itself
40
Q

manifestation of osteomyelitis

A

fever, local pain and tenderness

41
Q

diagnosis of osteomyelitis

A

x ray

42
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis

A

antibiotics and possible surgery

43
Q

complications of osteomyelitis

A
  • spread of infection (endocarditis and sepsis)
  • amputation
44
Q

osteoporosis

A

multifactorial disease characterized by absolute reduction of total bone mass

45
Q

is osteoporosis age related?

A

yes, 1/3 of population over 85 have it

46
Q

signs and symptoms of osteoporosis

A
  • disease itself has no symptoms
  • increased risk of fractures (mortality, loss of independent living, decreased mobility)
47
Q

causes of osteoporosis

A
  • primary (intrinsic to bone itself)
  • secondary (cortisol excess, increase PTH)
48
Q

osteoporosis risk factors

A
  • age
  • ethnicity
  • genetics (vitamin D receptor)
  • skeletal frame size
  • decreased levels of estrogen and testosterone
  • decreased activity level
  • excess intake of phosphorus, alcohol, nicotine
  • inadequate levels of vitamin D, Ca2+, K+, or Mg2+
49
Q

when is a persons peak bone mass?

A

25-30

50
Q

clinical manifestations of osteoporosis

A
  • vertebral fractures
  • lumbar lordosis and kyphoscoliosis
  • pulmonary embolism may result from overt fractures of the femoral neck, pelvis or spine
51
Q

diagnosis of osteoporosis

A
  • plain radiographs don’t detect disease until 30-40% of bone mass is lost
  • dual energy x ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
52
Q

treatment of osteoporosis

A

medication
- inhibition of osteoclasts
- estrogen mimetic
- synthetic PTH

53
Q

what is a precursor to osteoporosis?

A

osteopenia

54
Q

osteomalacia

A

adults

55
Q

rickets

A

children

56
Q

osteomalacia and rickets

A

softening of bone

57
Q

causes of osteomalacia and rickets

A

vitamin D deficiency

58
Q

complications of osteomalacia and rickets

A
  • deformity
  • increased fracture risk
59
Q

scoliosis

A

abnormal lateral and rotational curvature of spine

60
Q

kyphosis

A

abnormal forward bending of upper spine

61
Q

potential causes of scoliosis and kyphosis

A
  • arthritis
  • congenital
  • osteoporosis
  • idiopathic
62
Q

complications of scoliosis and kyphosis

A
  • impairment of activity
  • breathing problems
  • back pain
63
Q

most common neoplasms of bone

A

metastatic tumors from prostate, breasts, other organs

64
Q

hematopoeitic cancers of the bone account for what percentage?

A

40%, myeloma and leukemia

65
Q

bone tumor groups

A
  • bone
  • cartilage
  • fibrous
  • miscellaneous
66
Q

osteoma

A

benign cysts and tumors, resembles normal bone, symptomatic, often in facial bones, no malignant changes

67
Q

osteosarcoma

A

malignant tumor of bone-forming cell, most malignant tumor of bone in children (70%), ends of long bones, metastases is common

68
Q

symptoms of osteosarcoma

A
  • bone pain
  • progressive enlarging mass
  • pathologic fractures
69
Q

is osteosarcoma more common in males or females?

A

males

70
Q

arthritis is degeneration of what joints?

A

synovial joints

71
Q

most common symptoms associated with arthritis

A
  • joint stiffness and decreased mobility
  • pain and inflammation
72
Q

tests for arthritis

A

arthroscopy to visualize joint space

73
Q

osteoarthritis

A

degenerative joint disease, most common joint disease, affects weight-bearing big joints, small joints of hands and feet

74
Q

osteoarthritis is also known as..

A

“wear and tear” disease of old age

75
Q

primary osteoarthritis

A

cause unknown or multifactorial

76
Q

secondary osteoarthritis

A

related to another disease

77
Q

etiology of osteoarthritis

A
  • cartilage becomes thin
  • bone surfaces rub against each other
  • little inflammation until advanced stage
78
Q

risk factors of osteoarthritis

A
  • increased age
  • joint trauma, long-term mechanical stress
  • endocrine disorders
  • drugs
  • obesity
79
Q

treatment of osteoarthritis

A

replace joints

80
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

systemic autoimmune disease affecting connective tissues throughout the body, especially the joints (small)

81
Q

what does rheumatoid arthritis produce?

A

chronic inflammation and thickening of synovial membrane

82
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis often associated with?

A

rheumatoid factor

83
Q

is rheumatoid arthritis age associated?

A

no

84
Q

clinical course of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • extremely variable
  • begins with malaise, fatigue and generalized musculoskeletal pain and then joint pain
  • small points are usually affected first
  • involved joints are swollen, warm, painful and stiff on arising or following inactivity
85
Q

rheumatoid arthritis treatment

A

immunosuppressants

86
Q

gout

A

disorder of purine metabolism, disrupts the bodys control of uric acid production or excretion

87
Q

where do crystals deposit when a person has gout?

A
  • 50% in big toe joint
  • heel, ankle, instep of foot, knee, wrist, or elbow
88
Q

gouty arthritis

A

crystals occur in the synovial fluid causing inflammation

89
Q

contributing factors of gout

A
  • age
  • male sex
  • obesity
  • high intake of alcohol, red meat
  • genetic predisposition

UHD Exam 5 (5 decks)

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