Chapter 2 Self Test Flashcards
(211) 2. List the items that can be tested or checked out using the ESTS.
ALCM/CALCM; B-52H munitions-related LRUs; decoder/receiver; NucSLU; B-52H CSRL-empty/loaded missile check; empty nuclear bomb check; B-52H empty/loaded pylon check
(211) 1. What is the purpose of the ESTS AN/GSM-263?
To allow for a rapid and automatic method of testing complex systems and their components, and provide the means for verifying the operational readiness of components undergoing testing.
(212) 1. Where is the ESTS computer located?
In the main rack
(212) 2. State the purpose of the isolation ground plate.
To provide single-point grounding for the ESTS as well as any adapters, the UUT, and required support equipment.
(212) 3. List the facility input power requirements of the UUT power control rack.
120/208-VAC; 60-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 60 amperes per phase; 115/200-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 30 amperes per phase; and on AN/GSM-263A models, 230/400-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 15-amperes per phase
(212) 4. Which ESTS unit provides the interface between the operator and the ESTS?
The CRT display station
(212) 5. List the three types of printouts available from the printer.
As run, logged data, list source
(212) 6. Why is commercial equipment used within the ESTS?
During the design and development of the ESTS, commercial equipment that met ESTS requirements was used in lieu of designing new assemblies.
(213) Which ESTS systems use 1A3 computer data?
The digital system and the monitor and interrupt system
(213) 2. Why is the digital system vital to ESTS operations?
So the computer can communicate with the various analog systems
(213) 3. What are the two sections of the switching system?
Measurement input switching and double-pole double throw (DPDT) switching
(213) 4. How are signals from the analog stimuli system output to the UUT?
Via the 1A16 patchboard receiver
(213) 5. Why does the monitor and interrupt system receive iputs from other ESTS assemblies?
To monitor voltages and currents throughout the entire ESTS system
(213) 6. What are the two main parts of the ESTS software system?
Self-test and UUT
(213) 7. What are the two separate types of cooling air systems used within the ESTS?
A blower-operated system using ambient air and a closed-loop system of air-conditioning units.
(214) 1. What controls and programs the operation of the ADTS?
The 1A3 computer
(214) 2. What’s the purpose of the 3A1 power control drawer?
To control the application or removal of AC input power to the assemblies within the ADTS.
(214) 3. What is the 3A7 EMI filter used for?
To filter out any 60-Hz input power irregularities and prevent EMI propagation within the ADTS.
(214) 4. What is the purpose of the ADTC?
It’s a precise, stable pressure control system designed to accurately simulate and measure pneumatic pressures associated with a cruise missile in flight.
(214) 5. What’s the purpose of the 3A3 blower?
It circulates room ambient air to provide for 3A5 vacuum pump cooling.
(214) 6. What is the purpose of the 3A4 air dryer module?
To dry and remove contaminates from the pressurized air supplied to the pneumatic paths of the 3A2 ADTC.
(215) 1. What are the major assemblies of the MRATA?
The active loop drawer A1; passive loop drawer A2; power supply assemblies A3, A6, A7; blower A4; and power control drawer A5
(215) 2. What major MRATA assembly can simulate an altitude rate of change for pulsed-type altimeters?
Active loop drawer A1
(215) 3. What does the A2 passive loop drawer provide?
Manual or programmable simulated fixed altitudes, frequency-modulated/continuous-wave type altimeter rate control, and RF signal self-test
(215) 4. How many fixed DC output power supplies does each power supply assembly (A3, A6, or A7) contain?
Three
(215) 5. What does the power control drawer A5 provide?
Provides fusing, control, and distribution of the AC and DC power within the MRATA.
(216) 1. What do the MXU-690/E electronics components cooling equipment do?
Filters, regulates, and monitors airflow to numerous missile systems, LRUs, launchers, and pylons during functional checkout, fault isolation or bench checkout.
(216) 2. How many cooling air circuits does the CCU contain?
Three- INE, section 41, and clip test cooling air circuits
(216) 3. What is the facility air pressure requirement for CCU input air?
95 (+/- 25) psig
(216) 4. What does the CCU intermediate pressure control do?
It further regulates cooling air to the INE and Section 41 cooling air circuits.
(216) 5. What indicates the flow of air within the INE cooling air circuit?
Flowmeter FM1
(216) 6. What is the purpose of the section 41 cooling air circuit?
To cool components located in the nose cap of the ALCM.
(217) 1. What type of ESTS programming is provided by the patchboards?
Hardwire
(217) 2. Why are the antenna hood assemblies shaped differently?
They’re shaped to match the contour of the cruise missile antennas.
(217) 3. What is the temperature probe assembly used for on the ALCM?
It gives the EST the capability to monitor the air temperature at the ALCM’s ERTT
(217) 4. Using figure 2-20, determine the minimum bending radius of a cable with a 1.75-inch OD?
8 x 1.75= 14 inches
(218) 1. Why is the ESTS powered up before missile hookup for Level 1 testing?
To allow time for the ESTS to warm up
(218) 2. Why are you cautioned not to apply ESTS power when the MRATA MAIN POWER switch is set to ON?
The MRATA could be damaged
(218) 3. Why are safety restraints installed on cruise missiles?
To restrain the control surfaces and/or access covers in the event of accidental actuation.
(219) 1. What are the two parts to the cruise missile checkout program?
Level I and Level II
(219) 2. When can the ADCU declassify option be selected?
After ESTS initialization
(219) 3. List two of the five type of faults that can occur during Level I testing.
ESTS faults; patchboard faults; Level II (Level II run required); replace shop replaceable units (SRU) (fault isolated to component); Test failure (requires analytical troubleshooting)
(219) 4. What happens when a Level I fault does occur?
The CRT display shows action to take
(219) 5. What must be loaded into the missile computer before it is returned to service?
The ADCU operational flight load
(219) 6. What happens when an SRU is replaced?
The Level I selected module or the Level II test is repeated to verify repair
(220) 1. What are the purposes of diagrams?
Display system components, aid in comprehending system operation, and aid in the troubleshooting of electrical systems.
(220) 2. What is one of the greatest advantages of using graphic symbols in diagrams?
They are easier to draw, and one shape represents all versions of a component.
(220) 3. What are diagram legends used for?
By diagram authors to include information too large to be in incorporated into the picture without detracting.
(220) 4. What is the most important key to reading and understand wiring diagrams?
An ability to read symbols
(221) 2. What are the two forms of wiring diagrams?
Wire bundles (cables) or individual wire runs between connector plugs or jacks
(222) 1. If a problem cannot be discovered by utilizing your basic skills to troubleshoot a fault, what item do you next reference?
Technical data references
(222) 2. Where do you find the definition of memory dump contents when analyzing an INE memory dump test?
In a table within the applicable TO that contains WORDS and OFS memory addresses.
(222) 3. When troubleshooting SIT/MIT failures and the FIRT words show multiple faults, what is required to determine the original fault?
The Master Fault message
(222) 4. During LPT/LLT fault analysis, what must you do once you notice the fault is not identified within the provided technical data tables?
Cease further troubleshooting procedures in the 8-1 and perform Level I testing.
