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2M071 Vol 2 > Chapter 2 Self Test > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Self Test Flashcards

0
Q

(211) 2. List the items that can be tested or checked out using the ESTS.

A

ALCM/CALCM; B-52H munitions-related LRUs; decoder/receiver; NucSLU; B-52H CSRL-empty/loaded missile check; empty nuclear bomb check; B-52H empty/loaded pylon check

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1
Q

(211) 1. What is the purpose of the ESTS AN/GSM-263?

A

To allow for a rapid and automatic method of testing complex systems and their components, and provide the means for verifying the operational readiness of components undergoing testing.

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2
Q

(212) 1. Where is the ESTS computer located?

A

In the main rack

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3
Q

(212) 2. State the purpose of the isolation ground plate.

A

To provide single-point grounding for the ESTS as well as any adapters, the UUT, and required support equipment.

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4
Q

(212) 3. List the facility input power requirements of the UUT power control rack.

A

120/208-VAC; 60-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 60 amperes per phase; 115/200-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 30 amperes per phase; and on AN/GSM-263A models, 230/400-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 15-amperes per phase

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5
Q

(212) 4. Which ESTS unit provides the interface between the operator and the ESTS?

A

The CRT display station

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6
Q

(212) 5. List the three types of printouts available from the printer.

A

As run, logged data, list source

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7
Q

(212) 6. Why is commercial equipment used within the ESTS?

A

During the design and development of the ESTS, commercial equipment that met ESTS requirements was used in lieu of designing new assemblies.

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8
Q

(213) Which ESTS systems use 1A3 computer data?

A

The digital system and the monitor and interrupt system

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9
Q

(213) 2. Why is the digital system vital to ESTS operations?

A

So the computer can communicate with the various analog systems

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10
Q

(213) 3. What are the two sections of the switching system?

A

Measurement input switching and double-pole double throw (DPDT) switching

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11
Q

(213) 4. How are signals from the analog stimuli system output to the UUT?

A

Via the 1A16 patchboard receiver

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12
Q

(213) 5. Why does the monitor and interrupt system receive iputs from other ESTS assemblies?

A

To monitor voltages and currents throughout the entire ESTS system

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13
Q

(213) 6. What are the two main parts of the ESTS software system?

A

Self-test and UUT

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14
Q

(213) 7. What are the two separate types of cooling air systems used within the ESTS?

A

A blower-operated system using ambient air and a closed-loop system of air-conditioning units.

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15
Q

(214) 1. What controls and programs the operation of the ADTS?

A

The 1A3 computer

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16
Q

(214) 2. What’s the purpose of the 3A1 power control drawer?

A

To control the application or removal of AC input power to the assemblies within the ADTS.

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17
Q

(214) 3. What is the 3A7 EMI filter used for?

A

To filter out any 60-Hz input power irregularities and prevent EMI propagation within the ADTS.

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18
Q

(214) 4. What is the purpose of the ADTC?

A

It’s a precise, stable pressure control system designed to accurately simulate and measure pneumatic pressures associated with a cruise missile in flight.

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19
Q

(214) 5. What’s the purpose of the 3A3 blower?

A

It circulates room ambient air to provide for 3A5 vacuum pump cooling.

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20
Q

(214) 6. What is the purpose of the 3A4 air dryer module?

A

To dry and remove contaminates from the pressurized air supplied to the pneumatic paths of the 3A2 ADTC.

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21
Q

(215) 1. What are the major assemblies of the MRATA?

A

The active loop drawer A1; passive loop drawer A2; power supply assemblies A3, A6, A7; blower A4; and power control drawer A5

22
Q

(215) 2. What major MRATA assembly can simulate an altitude rate of change for pulsed-type altimeters?

A

Active loop drawer A1

23
Q

(215) 3. What does the A2 passive loop drawer provide?

A

Manual or programmable simulated fixed altitudes, frequency-modulated/continuous-wave type altimeter rate control, and RF signal self-test

24
Q

(215) 4. How many fixed DC output power supplies does each power supply assembly (A3, A6, or A7) contain?

A

Three

25
Q

(215) 5. What does the power control drawer A5 provide?

A

Provides fusing, control, and distribution of the AC and DC power within the MRATA.

26
Q

(216) 1. What do the MXU-690/E electronics components cooling equipment do?

A

Filters, regulates, and monitors airflow to numerous missile systems, LRUs, launchers, and pylons during functional checkout, fault isolation or bench checkout.

27
Q

(216) 2. How many cooling air circuits does the CCU contain?

A

Three- INE, section 41, and clip test cooling air circuits

28
Q

(216) 3. What is the facility air pressure requirement for CCU input air?

A

95 (+/- 25) psig

29
Q

(216) 4. What does the CCU intermediate pressure control do?

A

It further regulates cooling air to the INE and Section 41 cooling air circuits.

30
Q

(216) 5. What indicates the flow of air within the INE cooling air circuit?

A

Flowmeter FM1

31
Q

(216) 6. What is the purpose of the section 41 cooling air circuit?

A

To cool components located in the nose cap of the ALCM.

32
Q

(217) 1. What type of ESTS programming is provided by the patchboards?

A

Hardwire

33
Q

(217) 2. Why are the antenna hood assemblies shaped differently?

A

They’re shaped to match the contour of the cruise missile antennas.

34
Q

(217) 3. What is the temperature probe assembly used for on the ALCM?

A

It gives the EST the capability to monitor the air temperature at the ALCM’s ERTT

35
Q

(217) 4. Using figure 2-20, determine the minimum bending radius of a cable with a 1.75-inch OD?

A

8 x 1.75= 14 inches

36
Q

(218) 1. Why is the ESTS powered up before missile hookup for Level 1 testing?

A

To allow time for the ESTS to warm up

37
Q

(218) 2. Why are you cautioned not to apply ESTS power when the MRATA MAIN POWER switch is set to ON?

A

The MRATA could be damaged

38
Q

(218) 3. Why are safety restraints installed on cruise missiles?

A

To restrain the control surfaces and/or access covers in the event of accidental actuation.

39
Q

(219) 1. What are the two parts to the cruise missile checkout program?

A

Level I and Level II

40
Q

(219) 2. When can the ADCU declassify option be selected?

A

After ESTS initialization

41
Q

(219) 3. List two of the five type of faults that can occur during Level I testing.

A

ESTS faults; patchboard faults; Level II (Level II run required); replace shop replaceable units (SRU) (fault isolated to component); Test failure (requires analytical troubleshooting)

42
Q

(219) 4. What happens when a Level I fault does occur?

A

The CRT display shows action to take

43
Q

(219) 5. What must be loaded into the missile computer before it is returned to service?

A

The ADCU operational flight load

44
Q

(219) 6. What happens when an SRU is replaced?

A

The Level I selected module or the Level II test is repeated to verify repair

45
Q

(220) 1. What are the purposes of diagrams?

A

Display system components, aid in comprehending system operation, and aid in the troubleshooting of electrical systems.

46
Q

(220) 2. What is one of the greatest advantages of using graphic symbols in diagrams?

A

They are easier to draw, and one shape represents all versions of a component.

47
Q

(220) 3. What are diagram legends used for?

A

By diagram authors to include information too large to be in incorporated into the picture without detracting.

48
Q

(220) 4. What is the most important key to reading and understand wiring diagrams?

A

An ability to read symbols

49
Q

(221) 2. What are the two forms of wiring diagrams?

A

Wire bundles (cables) or individual wire runs between connector plugs or jacks

50
Q

(222) 1. If a problem cannot be discovered by utilizing your basic skills to troubleshoot a fault, what item do you next reference?

A

Technical data references

51
Q

(222) 2. Where do you find the definition of memory dump contents when analyzing an INE memory dump test?

A

In a table within the applicable TO that contains WORDS and OFS memory addresses.

52
Q

(222) 3. When troubleshooting SIT/MIT failures and the FIRT words show multiple faults, what is required to determine the original fault?

A

The Master Fault message

53
Q

(222) 4. During LPT/LLT fault analysis, what must you do once you notice the fault is not identified within the provided technical data tables?

A

Cease further troubleshooting procedures in the 8-1 and perform Level I testing.

2M071 Vol 2 (6 decks)

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