Chapter 1 Self Test Flashcards
(201) 2. What type of battery is used in the ALCM?
Thermal battery
(201) 1. What is the purpose of the ALCM electrical power system?
To supply power to the missile components via the pulse load (PL), constant load (CL), and main busses during all phases of operation.
(201) 3. Describe how the battery output voltage is generated.
The burning firetrack melts the electrolyte, which reacts with the cell plates to generate 28-VDC PL power.
(201) 4. How is an expended battery identified?
The battery case is coded with a temperature-sensitive paint. A black color indicates an expended battery.
(201) 5. What keeps the generator/regulator cool during free-flight?
Ram air
(201) 6. What condition must the generator be in during the engine startup sequence?
“unloaded”
(201) 7. What is the function of the J-box?
To receive carrier power or air vehicle power, isolate that power, and distribute it to the missile equipment.
(201) 8. The UEA serves what function or purpose?
To provide electrical interface to the pylon/launcher (or ESTS during testing); distribution of power and signals to other components; separation of signal categories; and termination for cable shielding.
(201) 9. What purpose does the rotary switch serve after aircraft power is applied to the missile?
Electrical isolation between the power source and EEDs and warhead until launch.
(201) 10. What must be done to open the rotary switch contacts?
By inserting the detent pin into the switch
(201) 11. During levels I and II checkout, through what connector is main bus power supplied?
Through an ESTS/missile connection at the generator/voltage regulator located in the aft section of the missile.
(201) 12. Where is the AC power from the carrier aircraft primarily used in the missile?
By the INE and instrumentation kit heaters
(201) 13. Why is 28-VDC power from the carrier HYDTRs supplied to the missile during launch countdown?
For testing of the flight control actuators and fuel pump
(202) 1. What is the purpose of the SAF system?
To provide positive control over the warhead.
(202) 2. The operation of the rotary switch centers around what SAF function?
The power source isolation from the warhead.
(202) 3. What purpose does the UEA serve in the SAF system?
Provides power distribution, separation of signal categories, and shielding termination for EMP/EMI purposes.
(202) 4. How is the WAD safed?
Electrically by the aircraft or manually by inserting the safing pin.
(202) 5. What is significant about the positioning of the impact fuze in the nose cap assembly?
Due to the positioning of the impact fuze assembly in the nose cap assembly, it ensures the missile is only functional through angles of impact with the ground of 15-90 degrees.
(202) 6. What role does the INE play in the SAF system?
By sequencing the arming and fuzing commands, enable signals, and activate commands.
(202) 7. What is the purpose of the ESD words?
To ensure the proper sequencing of events takes place during missile free-flight before initiating the warhead arming commands.
(202) 8. How many events make up an ESD word?
A parent word plus 15 events
(202) 9. When do the SAFE/ARM switch contacts first close in the arming device?
The first time the arm enable command is first applied and remains closed throughout the remainder of the flight.
(202) 10. Why is an ALCM warhead arming maneuver required and how often does this event take place?
To ensure missile free-flight is established; twice.
(202) 11. What type of turns make up the arming maneuver?
Controlled “S” turns
(202) 12. How does the airburst terminal maneuver differ from the ground burst?
The INE commands the missile to climb prior to detonation in airburst where as the INE commands the missile to dive for ground burst.
(203) 1. What is the function of the UEA mechanical isolation valve?
Directs air within the missile depending on whether or not the valve is activated.
(203) 2. How does the turbo-compressor cool forward ECS air?
By expansion through the turbine section of the air-cycle machine.
(203) 3. What purpose is served by the check valve located in the turbo-compressor (air-cycle machine)?
Isolates the engine and aft ECS from the forward ECS during ground checkout and captive carry. Serves as a seal to prevent contamination or overpressurization of the aft ECS.
(203) 4. What is the purpose of the turbine bypass valve?
Ensures proper cooling of the INE
(203) 5. When does the forward ECS reach its maximum temperature?
During missile warm up only
(203) 6. Where does the forward ECS cooling air originate during missile free-flight?
The number 2 engine compressor bleed port
(203) 7. During free-flight, where does heated forward ECS air exit the missile?
Boattail annulus
(203) 8. What units are cooled by the aft ECS during engine free-light?
Generator/regulator and engine
(203) 9. Name the units that make up the aft ECS.
The engine inlet and air inlet temperature sensor-tube extension
(203) 10. What type of air is used for the aft ECS?
Ram air ducted from the engine inlet
(203) 11. What is passive cooling in terms of the ALCM missile?
Conduction or transfer of heat from one surface to another
(203) 12. What is the purpose of the engine desiccant system?
To hermetically seal the engine and provide a moisture-free environment.
(203) 13. Why is a plug provided with the engine inlet seal with the engine inlet seal?
To seal the ECS ram air inlet for ground and captive-carry phases of operation.
(203) 14. What seals the gap between the engine tailpipe and the desiccant assembly?
Desiccant seal
(203) 15. Why must one take care when handling the engine desiccant seal?
To prevent damage to the thin protective coating.
(203) 16. How is the desiccant assembly deployed at launch?
The INE fires dual-initiators in the expanding tube shearing the desiccant assembly pins, thus releasing the inner ring from the outer ring. Once the engine starts, it “blows” the desiccant assembly and inner right from the missile.
(204) 1. What is the main purpose of the FCAT system?
To provide fuel to the engine
(204) 2. How is the fuel tank pressurized?
By ducting engine low-pressure bleed air to TANK 1 through a bleed air-check valve and by a squib-operated air-supply valve.
(204) 3. What fuel cell is filled last during fueling?
TANK 1
(204) 4. Which fuel tank forms the payload bay or picklefork assembly?
TANK 1
(204) 5. What is the probability of fuel movement as fuel quantity decreases in the fuel cells?
Fuel movement increases drastically
(204) 6. What is the purpose of the negative “g” sumps?
To keep fuel around the screens during negative “g” maneuvers.
(204) 7. Why is magnetic coupling used between the pump and pump motor?
It eliminates the need for a dynamic seal, and, as a result, eliminates the possibility of fuel leakage from the pump assembly.
(204) 8. Why is an AC-type pump motor preferred over a DC-type motor?
It improves reliability and eliminates problems associated with DC brush-type motors.
(204) 9. What is the function of the fuel pump electronic unit?
It is nothing more than an inverter that converts 28-VDC missile power to 24-VAC, two-phase, 490-Hz power.
(204) 10. What is the function of the dual bleed-air check valve?
Ensures one-way flow of pressurizing engine bleed-air into the fuel tank.
(204) 11. How is the air supply/service valve used during ground fueling operations?
It provides a connection for ground service venting and purging.
(204) 12. Why are all fuel servicing valves capped?
To prevent contamination and to provide a second seal to eliminate leakage during storage.
(204) 13. What is fuel tank ullage?
The amount a tank lacks being full
(204) 14. What valve has its squib initiator installed only prior to a test launch?
Fuel supply/range safety/service valve
(204) 15. Why are the engine high-pressure and low-pressure spools rotated in opposite directions?
To minimize gyroscopic and shaft vibration effects
(204) 16. What units are driven off the engine gearbox drives?
The engine lube and scavenge pump, fuel controller, ignition exciter alternator, and generator.
(204) 17. Which engine mounts are adjustable?
Right and aft
(204) 18. What must be done to the rubber O-ring installed between the engine and inlet duct each time the engine is removed?
It must be removed and replaced
(204) 19. What unit uses the output from the ram-air temperature sensor?
Engine fuel controller
(204) 20. What type of fuel pump is contained in the fuel controller?
Two stage, high-pressure
(204) 21. How many fuel filters are contained in the engine fuel system? Which ones are contained within the fuel controller?
Three; the primary and secondary
(204) 22. What is the purpose of the filter bypass valve?
In the event a filter becomes clogged, the filter bypass valve unseats when the pressure across the valve drops 10 psi and allows fuel to continue to flow.
(204) 23. What functions are performed by the fuel controller?
Governs engine speed; controls engine acceleration and corresponding fuel flow and shuts off fuel flow to the engine.
(204) 24. What is the purpose of the fuel accumulator?
Compensates for fuel expansion due to changes in temperature.
(204) 25. How are the gears in the gearbox housing lubricated?
Oil from the compressor cavity drains back to the accessory gearbox to lubricate those gears.
(204) 26. What is the purpose of the deaeration baffle?
Separates air from oil
(204) 27. What are the advantages to having a generator as an integral part of the ignition system?
This gives the igniters independence from the missile electrical system, resulting in greater system reliability, and no switching is required.
(205) 1. What is the function of the GMFC?
It processes the flight control information from the INE, adds to this the signals from the FDT, and outputs throttle and elevon signals to the actuator controller.
(205) 2. Why are silicon bipolar transient suppressors used on input and output circuits?
EMP protection
(205) 3. What GMFC power is supplied by the carrier aircraft during captive carry?
28 VDC
(205) 4. What two purposes does the test command serve as launch countdown begins?
It checks the GMFC for proper operation prior to launch and it energized K1 in the EMI filter assembly.
(205) 5. How are the INE clock pulses used in the GMFC AC power supply?
To generate 7.07-volts root mean square (VRMS), 3,908-Hz output for rate-gyro pick off excitation.
(205) 6. How is digital data transferred from the INE to the GMFC electronics?
Serially
(205) 8. How is the BITE used in the GMFC?
To monitor 11 flight control system functions during ALCM test command and send this information to the INE.
(205) 9. What information is provided by the three rate gyros?
Angular acceleration, in degrees per second, in the X, Y, and Z axes
(205) 10. What missile data is derived from the accelerometer?
Linear acceleration in Gs, in the Z axis
(205) 11. In what form is the output of the accelerometer received by the flight controller?
DC voltage
(205) 12. What is the function in operation of the actuator controller?
Combines the correction signal from the flight controller with the position feedback from the elevon EMLAs and applies power to the actuator-driven motors until the flight controller is reduced to zero.
(205) 13. What is the purpose of the EMLAs?
To move the elevons in response to flight control command signals from the INE.
(205) 14. Why does each linear actuator have a high 348:1 gear ratio?
To give it the required elevon torque and is capable of moving the elevons at a speed of 150 degrees deflection per second.
(205) 15. What methods of aerosurface deployment are used during launch?
Inertia for the engine inlet and ballistic actuators for the flight control surfaces.
(205) 16. How is complete deployment of the engine inlet assured?
A lanyard, connected to the engine inlet with a D-ring assembly at one end and to the aircraft pylon/launcher at the other end.
(205) 17. How is piston speed controlled in the linear explosive actuator?
A flow-limiting orifice that limits low of the liquid from the piston chamber, and, thus, regulates the deployment time.
(205) 18. What is the purpose of the actuator latch pin?
To allow the actuator’s telescoping shaft to be released from the piston, and permit a person to manually move the deployment mechanism through the deployment arc.
(205) 19. How are the control surfaces locked into place?
By overcentering the linkage
(205) 20. Why do the INE refresh rates (updates) to the FCS vary?
Depending on the criticality of the missile’s response to erroneous command and gains.
(205) 21. What happens when the INE goes into a nuclear event circumvention and restart mode?
It updates the data at the end of the detected nuclear event.
(205) 22. What is the main reason elevons are deployed first during launch?
They are movable and can control the missile’s flight attitude.
(206) 1. What is the overall purpose of the INE?
To provide centralized control of all A/V functions, including all timing, control and flight instructions to the A/V and its payload.
(206) 2. What are the major units that make up the INE?
A missile computer, an inertial reference unit (IRU), better known as the platform; and a power conditioning unit (PCU)
(206) 3. Why does the platform contain four gimbals instead of three?
To prevent gimbal lock
(206) 4. How are the velocity signals from the platform accelerometers used by the computer?
Velocity changes are sensed by the platform accelerometers and signals are sent to the computer, where missile position and steering commands are calculated.
(206) 5. What maintains heater power to the platform gyros after launch?
An AC power supply (a 400-Hz inverter) in the INE PCU
(206) 6. What is the purpose of the RAD card?
To protect the computer from gamma radiation.
(206) 7. How many of the registers in the computer general register file are used as accumulators?
14
(206) 8. The N2-to-air heat exchanger and N2 circulation fan are primarily used to cool what INE unit?
Inertial reference unit (IRU)
(206) 9. What is the purpose of the heat pipes contained in the INE?
To cool the INE cage
(206) 10. What function does the ADE serve in the overall operation of the navigation system?
It provides the INE with electrical analog signals representing static pressure, differential pressure, and free-stream air total temperature. This information is used by the missile computer for calculations of attitude, Mach number (speed), and dynamic pressure.
(206) 11. Which of the two outputs from the pitot-static probe represents barometric pressure?
Static air pressure
(206) 12. What are the two types of sensing ports on the pitot-static probe?
Pitot and static
(206) 13. Why is there a heater built into the pitot-static probe?
To de-ice the pitot probe
(206) 14. What is the purpose of the PST?
It converts the pitot-static probe pressures received from the pitot-static probe to analog signal equivalents.
(206) 15. What is the function of the ERTT?
It measures free-stream air total temperature. The ERTT converts this temperature to an electrical analog equivalent, which is sent to the INE.
(206) 16. What is the purpose of the CMRA element?
First, it measures absolute clearance of the missile above ground level (AGL). It also provides the INE with a ground-track image during terrain-contour matching (TERCOM) navigation.
(206) 17. What type of transmitter/receiver is used in the CMRA?
C-band, high resolution, pulse-type
(206) 18. What is the usable range of the CMRA?
10 feet to 5,000 feet
(206) 19. What does the CMRA’s range computer subassembly do?
Measures time difference between the time-zero pulse and the leading edge of the returned video pulse.
(206) 20. What comprises the radiating portions of the CMRA transmit and receive antennas?
A 3-by-3 array of microstrip radiators
(206) 21. What is the purpose of the GRIU/P?
It provides an additional navigation source for the missile computer by monitoring the earth satellite constellation and determines the spatial position of the missile.
(207) 1. The TERCOM technique of navigation is based on what principle?
The topography of a given area of the earth’s surface is unique and an elevation profile line of sufficient length across the area is also unique.
(207) 2. What happens to the size of the fix-point areas as missile navigation accuracy increases with distance, time and position fixes?
The fix-point areas decrease in size since crosstrack and downtrack navigation uncertainties decrease.
(207) 3. What happens to the probability of a false fix as the uniqueness of the terrain in the fix-point area decreases?
Increases
(207) 4. What is the final step in TERCOM data preparation?
The digitizing of the selected fix-point area.
(207) 5. During TERCOM data acquisition, how is the sensed altitude measured?
With the missile’s radar altimeter
(207) 6. What is the reference altitude as used in TERCOM data acquisition?
A combination of barometric altitude (static pressure output from the missile’s ADE) and vertical acceleration (normal accelerometer output from the FDT).
(207) 7. What is skew error?
Occurs when the missile’s ground track does not coincide with one of the TERCOM reference matrix columns, but crosses two or more of the columns as the missile flies over the matrix area.
(207) 8. What basic actions are accomplished during the data correlation step of TERCOM navigation?
These errors are the difference between the planned ground track and the actual position of the missile at the time the fix was made. At the completion of the navigation update, the position errors are corrected by sending course correction commands to the FCS.
(208) 1. What does the USAF provide you with that assists you while performing maintenance?
Technical orders (TO)
(208) 2. Why are nuclear weapons considered to be a critical natural resource?
Because of their cost, destructive power, and importance to national security
(208) 3. What is not authorized to do within a nuclear weapons training atmosphere?
Nuclear weapons shall not be used for training or troubleshooting.
(209) 1. How is positive identification determined when checking out equipment?
By utilizing all possible identification elements on the piece of equipment.
(209) 2. Prior to beginning a task that includes nuclear certified equipment, what musts you do?
All data on the MNCL must match that of the identification marking in order to properly verify the certification of the item to be used.
(210) 1. What two things must be done prior to performing a missile fuel prime?
Use technical data and accomplish a missile safe status check.
(210) 2. Why is it important that the APPU fills the fuel lines with fluid?
To ensure efficient start of the engine after launch. It also ensures that the system is pressurized for high altitude engine start.
(210) 3. In terms of the missile fuel set, what ensures no leaks or spills while performing fueling operations?
The closed piping system
(210) 4. What improves fuel flow during defueling operations?
The 4 degree nose up position for defueling.
