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Jeppesen Private Pilot > Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Fuselage

A

Houses cabin and/or cockpit which contains seats for occupants and the controls for the airplane. May also provide room for cargo.

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2
Q

Open truss structure

A

Visible struts and wire-braced wings.

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3
Q

Stressed Skin

A

Material covering fuselage

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4
Q

Monocoque

A

Uses skin to support almost all imposed loads. Can’t tolerate any dents or deformations to surface.

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5
Q

Semi-monocoque

A

Uses a subframe riveted to the airplane’s skin to maintain the shape of the airplane and increase its strength.

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6
Q

Monoplane

A

Single set of wings.

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7
Q

Biplane

A

Plane with two sets of wings.

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8
Q

Ailerons

A

Extend from midpoint to tip of wing. Cause plane to turn.

Ex. Left turn= left aileron up, right down

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9
Q

Flaps

A

Extend from fuselage to middle of plane. When flaps are extended they increase lift force. Used for take off and landing.

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10
Q

Empennage

A

Consists of vertical and horizontal stabilizer.

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11
Q

Rudder

A

Attached to back of vertical stabilizer. Moves nose left or right.

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12
Q

Elevator

A

On horizontal stabilizer. Moves nose up and down.

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13
Q

Stabilator

A

One-piece horizontal stabilizer. Used in lieu of an elevator.

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14
Q

Trim Tab

A

Used to help minimize your workload by aerodynamically helping you move a control surface, or maintain surface in desired position.

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15
Q

Anti-servo tab

A

Gives stabilator a control “feel” similar to what you would feel with elevator. May over control plane so be careful.

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16
Q

Main Wheels

A

Located on either side of fuselage.

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17
Q

Conventional Landing Gear

A

Rear-mounted landing gear.

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18
Q

Tailwheel

A

Same as conventional landing gear

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19
Q

Nose wheel

A

Third wheel at nose of plane.

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20
Q

Tricycle Gear

A

Nosewheel

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21
Q

Fixed gear

A

Fixed landing gear. Simplistic, low cost, and lighter.

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22
Q

Retractable gear

A

Streamlines the airplane. Increased weight and cost.

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23
Q

Oleo Strut

A

Uses a piston enclosed in a cylinder with oil and compressed air to absorb the bumps and jolts encountered during landing and taxiing operations.

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24
Q

Disc Brakes

A

Used on typical training airplane.

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25
Q

Differential Braking

A

Applying varying amounts of pressure on rudder pedal, used to steer plane on ground while taxiing.

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26
Q

Power plant

A

Engine and propeller.

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27
Q

Engine

A
  • Provides power to propeller
  • generate electrical power
  • create a vacuum source for some flight instruments
  • provide heat source for pilot and passengers
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28
Q

Firewall

A

Protects occupants and serves as mounting point for engine.

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29
Q

Cowling

A
  • Encloses engine compartment
  • streamlines airplane
  • helps cool the engine by conducting air around cylinders
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30
Q

Pilot’s Operating Handbook

A

Provides pertinent information about make and model of plane.

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31
Q

Airplane Flight Manual

A

In 1979 FAA mandated that approved manual specifically assigned to individual plane and can be accessed by pilot during all flight operations. POH can be AFM.

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32
Q

Pilot’s Information Manual (PIM)

A

Contains the same info as POH/AFM except for precise weight and balance data and optional equipment specific to a particular airplane. Useful study tool.

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33
Q

Turbine Engine

A

Costly but extremely powerful.

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34
Q

Reciprocating Engine

A

Converts chemical energy to mechanical energy occurs within cylinders. Fuel/air mixture is compressed and ignited.

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35
Q

Four-Stroke Operating Cycle

A
  1. ) Intake
  2. ) Compression
  3. ) Power
  4. ) Exhuast

Each cylinder of engine operates on different stroke to provide continuous power.

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36
Q

Induction System

A

Bring outside air into engine, mix it with fuel, and deliver it to the cylinders.

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37
Q

Throttle

A

Controls engine speed by regulating how much fuel and air mixture that flows into cylinders.

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38
Q

Mixture control

A

Controls fuel/air ratio.

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39
Q

Intake Port

A

Where outside air enters induction system. Usually at front of engine compartment.

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40
Q

Carburetor

A

Mixes incoming air with fuel and delivers it to combustion chamber.

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41
Q

Operating Principle Float-Type Carburetor

A

Based on pressure difference at venturi throat and air inlet.

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42
Q

What do you do to fuel mixture as you climb higher?

A

Lean it to prevent engine roughness.

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43
Q

What do you do to fuel mixture as you descend from higher altitude?

A

Enrich it to prevent high engine temps.

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44
Q

What is the best way to maintain proper fuel mixture?

A

Monitor engine temp and enrich or lean as necessary.

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45
Q

Carburetor Ice

A

Occurs due to effect of fuel vaporization and decreasing air in Venturi.

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46
Q

What temp and humidity is carburetor ice more likely to occur at? What temp and humidity can icing happen at?

A

<21 C (70 F), 80% relative humidity

Even @ 38 C (100F) 50% humidity

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47
Q

First indication of carburetor icing in fixed pitch propeller?

A

Will be decrease in engine RPM, followed by engine roughness and possible fuel starvation.

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48
Q

Indication of carburetor icing in constant-speed propeller

A

Reflected by shifts in manifold pressure.

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49
Q

When is carburetor icing most dangerous?

A

When using reduced power like during descent.

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50
Q

Carburetor Heat

A

Routes air across a heat source before entering carburetor.

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51
Q

Using carburetor heat causes a decrease in engine power. Why?

A

The incoming air into the carburetor is warmer and therefore less dense. This enriches the mixture.

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52
Q

What will happen if there is carburetor ice on a fixed pitch propeller and you use carburetor heat?

A

Initially there will be a decrease in rpm followed by a gradual increase in rpm as ice melts.

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53
Q

What will happen if you use carburetor heat when there is no ice present?

A

Rpm’s will decrease slightly then remain constant.

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54
Q

True/False: You should use full carburetor heat whenever you reduce engine rpm below normal operating range for your airplane, or when you suspect carburetor ice.

A

True

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55
Q

True/False: normally you do use carburetor heat continuously when full power is required.

A

False. Carburetor heat drops engine performance and you wouldn’t want to do that when full power is required.

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56
Q

5 benefits of fuel injection system

A
  1. ) Lower fuel consumption
  2. ) Increased horsepower
  3. ) Lower operating temperatures
  4. ) Longer engine life
  5. ) Relatively no induction icing
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57
Q

4 components to fuel injection system

A
  1. ) fuel pump
  2. ) fuel control unit
  3. ) fuel manifold valve
  4. ) fuel discharge nozzles
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58
Q

2 disadvantages to fuel injection system

A
  1. ) increased sensitivity to fuel contaminants

2. ) more complex starting procedures, especially when engine is hot

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59
Q

Why does engine performance decrease with higher altitudes?

A

Less dense air. Therefore less fuel/air getting to cylinders and therefore less performance.

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60
Q

Supercharger

A

Compressed incoming air using a pump driven by engine. Some engine power is used for pump so max power output isn’t achieved.

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61
Q

Turbocharger

A

Pressurizes incoming air using a mechanism driven by exhaust gases. Therefore it’s more efficient than supercharger, because it’s not stealing power from engine.

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62
Q

True/False: In some airplanes the turbocharger supplies air for cabin pressurization in addition to compressed air for engine induction system.

A

True.

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63
Q

Afterburning

A

Introduction of raw fuel to exhaust gases where it is ignited.

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64
Q

How does afterburning increase thrust?

A

The increased temperature and velocity of gases exiting tailpipe increase thrust by 10-120%!

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65
Q

What is the ignition system?

A

Provides spark that ignites fuel/air mixture in cylinders.

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66
Q

What makes up the ignition system?

A

Magnetos, spark plugs, interconnecting wires, and ignition switch.

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67
Q

What is a magneto?

A

A self-contained engine driven unit that supplies electrical current to spark plugs.

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68
Q

True/False: the magnetos are on the airplanes electrical system too.

A

False. The magnetos are completely independent of the electrical system. They use a permanent magnet to generate current as the crankshaft rotates.

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69
Q

How many spark plugs does a cylinder have? What benefits does this provide?

A
  1. It increases safety and reliability. It also improves combustion with a slightly higher power output.
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70
Q

Ignition switch

A

Controls operation of magnetos. Left, right, or both on switch.

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71
Q

How can you identify a malfunctioning ignition system in your pretakeoff check?

A

by observing the decrease in rpm that occurs when you first move ignition switch from BOTH to RIGHT and then from BOTH to LEFT. Consult POH for permissible decrease in rpm.

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72
Q

Why is it so important to turn the ignition switch to OFF following engine shutdown?

A

Even with battery and master switch off the engine can fire and turn over if you leave ignition switch ON and the propeller moves.

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73
Q

How can loose or broken wires in ignition system cause problems?

A

If ignition switch ground wire is disconnected the magneto may continue to fire. If this occurs the only way to fix it is to move mixture lever to idle cutoff position.

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74
Q

Detonation

A

Uncontrolled, explosive ignition of fuel/air mixture within cylinder’s combustion chamber.

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75
Q

What are the problems associated with detonation?

A

Excessive temperatures and pressures which, if not corrected, can quickly lead to failure of piston, cylinder, or valves. Can also cause overheating, roughness, or loss of power.

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76
Q

When can detonation happen?

A

Anytime you allow engine to overheat or if you use a lower than recommended fuel grade.

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77
Q

When is potential for engine overheating is greatest?

A

Takeoff with engine very near maximum allowable temperature, operation at high rpm and low air speed, and extended operations above 75% power with an extremely lean mixture.

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78
Q

What do you do if detonation is suspected?

A

Retard throttle and climb at slower rate.

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79
Q

Preignition

A

Fuel/air mixture is ignited in advance of normal timed ignition.

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80
Q

What causes preignition?

A

Residual hot spot in cylinder such as small carbon deposit on spark plug, a cracked spark plug, or almost any damage around combustion chamber.

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81
Q

If detonation or preignition occur (it’ll be difficult to tell between the two) what should you do?

A

Retard throttle, enrich fuel mixture, and/or lowering nose attitude.

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82
Q

Fuel-pump system

A

Usually found on low-wing airplanes where fuel tanks are located below engine.

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83
Q

Auxiliary fuel pump

A

Used in engine start up and as back up.

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84
Q

Fuel pressure gauge

A

Helpful in detecting fuel pump malfunctions.

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85
Q

Vapor lock

A

A condition caused by running fuel tank dry and allowing air to get into fuel system.

When this situation develops it may be difficult of impossible to restart engine.

86
Q

Gravity-feed system

A

Fuel flows by gravity from fuel tank to engine.

87
Q

What are most gravity-feed systems equipped with to help during startup?

A

A primer. It is a manually operated pump.

88
Q

Fuel tanks

A

Hold fuel in the wing. Duh.

89
Q

What helps prevent a vacuum from forming and restricting fuel from leaving tank?

A

A vent in fuel tank that keeps pressure the same inside the tank as outside it.

90
Q

Fuel-quantity gauges

A

Tell you how much fuel you have. Duh.

91
Q

Fuel selector valve

A

Select from what tanks you take fuel from.

92
Q

Fuel strainer

A

Removes moisture and other sediments that might be in system before it reaches carburetor.

93
Q

How often do you drain fuel strainer?

A

Before each flight.

94
Q

If you notice moisture in fuel tanks how long should you drain them?

A

Until you no longer see evidence of contamination.

95
Q

Why is moisture in fuel dangerous?

A

In cold weather it can freeze and block fuel lines.

In warm weather it can flow into carburetor and stop engine.

96
Q

What can you do after last flight of day to help prevent moisture buildup?

A

Ensure airplane’s fuel tanks are topped off.

It’ll prevent moisture in air that is in fuel tanks from condensing down into fuel.

97
Q

What is the first thing you do during a refueling operation?

A

Ground the airplane and bond airplane to fueling equipment.

98
Q

True/false: Don’t allow the fueling nozzle to go far into fuel tank port.

A

True. It can damage the tank.

99
Q

What can using lower than recommended fuel grade do to your engine?

A

Can cause cylinder head and engine temperatures to exceed normal operating limits.

100
Q

What does the oil system do for the airplane?

A
  1. ) Lubrication of engine’s moving parts
  2. ) Cooling of engine by reducing friction and removing heat from cylinders
  3. ) Improves engine efficiency by providing a seal between cylinder walls and piston.
  4. ) Carries away contaminants and catches them in filter.
101
Q

Dry-sump system

A

Oil is contained in separate tank and circulated through engine by pumps.

102
Q

Wet-sump system

A

Oil is carried in sump which is integral part of engine.

103
Q

Oil pressure gauge.

A

Provides direct indication of oil system operation.

104
Q

What might below or above-normal oil pressure indicate?

A

Below-normal pressure May indicate pump isn’t putting out enough pressure. Above-normal could indicate clogged line.

105
Q

How long after starting engine do you have in warm weather for oil pressure to begin to rise?

A

30 seconds

106
Q

How long after starting engine do you have in cold weather for oil pressure to begin to rise?

A

60 seconds

107
Q

Oil temperature gauge

A

Shows oil temp. Duh. May take several minutes to show any change at all.

108
Q

How often should you check oil temp?

A

Periodically

109
Q

What May high oil temp indicate?

A
  • Plugged oil line
  • Low oil quantity
  • Defective temp gauge
110
Q

How is the engine primarily cooled for remaining heat that oil doesn’t remove?

A

Air-cooling

111
Q

When does air cooling become less effective?

A
  • During takeoffs
  • go arounds
  • any other flight maneuver that combines low airspeed with high power
112
Q

Cowl Flaps

A

Create larger path for air to escape from engine compartment, increasing cooling airflow.

113
Q

Cylinder Head Temperature Gauge

A

Gives direct temperature of one of the cylinder heads.

114
Q

Other than adjusting cowling flap position what are 4 other ways to reduce engine temp?

A
  • enriching mixture
  • reducing rate of climb
  • increasing airspeed
  • when conditions permit, reduce power setting
115
Q

Two other functions of exhaust system other than venting burned gases overboard?

A
  • heat cabin

- defrost windshield

116
Q

Climb Propeller

A

Low blade angle

117
Q

Cruise Propeller

A

High blade angle

118
Q

Why is broader or lengthened propeller blades possibly limiting performance?

A

Broader=less efficiency

Lengthening=limited by ground clearance and by blade tip speed. If blade tip nears speed of sound it will waste a lot of energy around transonic speed.

119
Q

What is an alternate solution to improving propeller performance for more power?

A
  • increase number of blades

- employ two propellers per engine spinning opposite of each other

120
Q

Fixed-Pitch Propeller

A

Blade angle is fixed and chosen based on what is best for primary function of plane.

121
Q

Constant-speed Propeller

A

Variable-pitch propeller. Throttle controls engine output (indicated on manifold pressure gauge) and propeller control regulates engine rpm.

122
Q

Propeller control

A

Used to change pitch of propeller blades.

123
Q

With a constant-speed propeller you should avoid ___ rpm settings with ___ manifold pressure to prevent internal engine stress.

A

Low, high

124
Q

How can engine noise be reduced?

A
  • exhaust mufflers
125
Q

How can Propeller noise be reduced?

A
  • increase number of blades

- allowing propeller to turn at slower speed

126
Q

Electrical energy is supplied by a ___ or ___ volt direct-current system?

A

14 or 28

127
Q

Alternator

A

Provides current for electrical system.

128
Q

Advantages of alternators over generators?

A
  • light weight
  • lower maintenance
  • uniform output
129
Q

DC goes from alternator to what?

A

Bus bar

130
Q

Should you make sure bus bar is on or off when starting airplane?

A

Off

131
Q

Ammeter

A

Monitors electrical current

132
Q

Loadmeter

A

Shows load placed on alternator

133
Q

A charging ammeter (needle on plus) is or is not normal following an engine start?

A

Is normal. Since the battery power lost in starting is being replaced.

134
Q

Master switch

A

Controls entire electrical system.

135
Q

Will the magnetos work without the electrical system? How about the engine starter?

A

The magnetos will work independent of electrical system. The engine starter however will not.

136
Q

Pitot-static instruments

A

Rely on air pressure differences to measure speed and altitude.

137
Q

What three instruments use static air pressure?

A

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, vertical speed indicator.

138
Q

What instrument uses pitot pressure?

A

Airspeed indicator.

139
Q

What is pitot pressure?

A

Combination of static pressure plus that generated as aircraft moves through air.

140
Q

How much atmospheric pressure is typically exerted at sea level?

A

14.7 pounds per square inch.

141
Q

International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)

A

At sea level 29.92 in. Hg. (1013.2 millibars), 15 degrees Celsius (59F)

142
Q

Standard temp lapse rate

A

2 degrees C (3.5 F) for each 1000 ft.

143
Q

Standard Lapse Rates

A

Help calculate temp and pressure at various altitudes.

144
Q

Standard pressure lapse rate

A

1.00 in. Hg for each 1000 ft.

145
Q

Pitot tube

A

Usually mounted on wing or nose section, so opening is exposed to relative wind. Supplies ram pressure.

146
Q

Static port

A

Where static air pressure is supplied from. Normally flush mounted on side of fuselage.

147
Q

Airspeed Indicator

A

Only instrument that uses static and pitot pressures.

148
Q

V-Speeds

A

Upper and lower limits of colored arcs correspond to some air speed limitations.

149
Q

V_NE (Red Line)

A

Never exceed speed

150
Q

Yellow arc

A

Caution range. May fly within this range only in smooth air and with caution.

151
Q

V_NO

A

Upper limit of green arc. Maximum structural cruising speed. Don’t exceed unless in smooth air.

152
Q

Green arc

A

Normal operating range of airplane.

153
Q

V_FE

A

Upper limit of white arc. Max speed with flaps extended.

154
Q

White arc

A

Flap operating range. Lower limit represents full flap stall speed and upper provides max flap speed.

155
Q

V_S1

A

Lower limit of green arc. Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified configuration. For small airplanes this is power-off stall speed at maximum takeoff weight in the clean configuration. (Gear up and flaps up)

156
Q

V_S0

A

Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration. In small airplanes this is power-off stall speed at maximum landing weight in landing configuration (gear and flaps down)

157
Q

V_A

A

Max speed at which you can apply full and abrupt control movement without possibility of causing structural damage. Also represents max speed for turbulent flight conditions. MAKE SURE TO REFERENCE WEIGHT WITH INDICATED SPEEDS.

158
Q

V_LE

A

Max speed with landing gear extended.

159
Q

V_LO

A

Max speed that you can raise or lower landing gear.

160
Q

Type of airspeed that is on airspeed indicator

A

Indicated airspeed

161
Q

Does the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a specific configuration change as altitude increases?

A

No

162
Q

What does the shortest, middle-sized, and longest pointers on altimeter indicate?

A

Short=tens of thousands
Middle= thousands
Long=hundreds of feet

163
Q

Indicated altitude

A

Altitude measured by altimeter

164
Q

Pressure altitude

A

Vertical distance above theoretical plane where atmospheric pressure is equal to 29.92 in. Hg.

165
Q

Standard datum line

A

Theoretical pressure line where pressure is equal to 29.92 in. Hg

166
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure combined with temperature to compute theoretical value.

167
Q

Calibrated altitude

A

Indicated altitude corrected to compensate for instrument error.

168
Q

True Altitude

A

Actual height above MSL (mean sea level)

169
Q

Absolute altitude

A

Actual height above Earth’s surface over which plane is flying over. Also referred to “height above ground level” (AGL)

170
Q

If you go from high to low pressure and don’t adjust altimeter will altitude read high or low?

A

High

171
Q

When going from low to high pressure and don’t adjust altimeter will your altimeter indicate high or low?

A

Low

172
Q

Vertical Speed Indicator

A

Displays a rate of climb or descent in feet per minute.

173
Q

Trend information

A

Immediate indication of an increase or decrease in the airplane’s rate of climb or descent.

174
Q

Rate information

A

Stabilized rate of change

175
Q

What happens to airspeed if pitot tube is blocked but drain hole remains open?

A

Airspeed indicator will slowly drop to zero.

176
Q

What happens if pitot tube and drain hole are plugged and you go higher in altitude?

A

Airspeed goes up because differential between pitot tube and static gets greater. (Static pressure gets lower with higher elevation)

177
Q

What happens if pitot tube and drain hole are plugged and you descend in altitude?

A

Airspeed drops. Because difference between pitot pressure and static pressure is less. (Static pressure gets higher as altitude gets lower)

178
Q

What happens if pitot tube is clear and static port is obstructed and you go higher than the obstruction altitude?

A

Slower when higher than altitude where obstructed.

179
Q

What happens when pitot tube is free and static port is obstructed and you go lower than the obstructed altitude?

A

Airspeed is faster than normal.

180
Q

What happens to altimeter when static port is clogged?

A

Altitude will freeze where it was when obstruction happened.

181
Q

What happens to vertical speed indicator when static port becomes obstructed?

A

It will drop to zero.

182
Q

Rigidity in space

A

Principle that a wheel with a heavily weighted rim spun rapidly will remain in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning.

183
Q

Precession

A

Tilting or turning of a gyro in response to pressure.

184
Q

Vacuum system

A

Powers attitude and heading indicators.

185
Q

Turn coordinator

A

Provide indication of turn direction and quality as well as backup source of bank information in event of attitude indicator failure.

186
Q

Standard-rate turn

A

Aligning the wings on turn coordinator with turn index. At this rate you will turn 3 degrees per second. Therefore you can complete a circle in 2 minutes.

187
Q

Inclinometer

A

Used to depict airplane yaw, or side-to-side movement of nose.

188
Q

If ball is not centered in inclinometer how do you center it?

A

Use rudder pedals. “Step on the ball”

189
Q

Slip

A

Rate of turn is too slow for angle of bank. Ball moves inside of turn.

190
Q

Skid

A

Rate of turn is too great for angle of bank. Ball moves outside of turn.

191
Q

You can also vary angle of bank to help restore coordinated turn for slip or skid. How?

A

For slip: decrease bank and/or increase rate of turn.

For skid: increase bank and/or decrease rate of turn.

192
Q

Attitude indicator

A

Senses roll and pitch, or up and down movement of nose.

193
Q

When do you set miniature airplane level with horizon bar on your attitude indicator?

A

Prior to flight

194
Q

Heading indicator or directional gyro (DG)

A

Displays heading based on 360 degree azimuth.

195
Q

If the heading indicator doesn’t have an automatic north-seeking system how do you set north?

A

Align it with magnetic compass prior to flight.

196
Q

At what time intervals do you check the heading indicator and magnetic compass match?

A

15 minutes intervals during flight. Make sure you’re straight and level.

197
Q

Variation

A

Angular difference between true and magnetic poles at a given point.

198
Q

Deviation

A

Compass error which occurs due to disturbances from magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories within the airplane itself.

199
Q

What can you do to help correct for deviation?

A

Make correction cards.

200
Q

Magnetic dip

A

Downward pull that is greatest near poles and diminishes as you approach equator.

201
Q

How is magnetic dip corrected?

A

Manufacturer places a small weight on the side nearest the equator for the hemisphere the plane is mostly going to be flying in.

202
Q

Acceleration error

A

Error that occurs as you accelerate on an easterly or westerly heading. Due to weight on compass needle.

203
Q

As you accelerate which way will compass turn?

A

Compass weight on south end lags and turns compass north.

204
Q

As you decelerate which way will compass turn?

A

Weight moves slightly ahead and turns compass more south.

205
Q

ANDS

A

Accelerate north, decelerate south

206
Q

Turning error

A

Directly related to magnetic dip. The greater the dip the greater the turning error. Most pronounced when turning from south or north headings.

207
Q

When you begin a turn from a north heading which way will compass turn?

A

Compass initially indicates turn in opposite direction. When turn is established begins to turn in correct direction but lags behind actual heading. Lag decreases as turn continues, then disappears when reach east or west heading.

208
Q

When turning from east or west to north what does turn error do?

A

No error as you begin turn. As you approach north compass increasingly lags behind actual heading.

209
Q

When turning from heading of south to east or west what does turn error do?

A

Compass initially indicates turn in proper direction but leads the airplane’s actual heading. Cancels out as plane reaches east or west.

210
Q

Turning from east or west to south does what turn error?

A

Compass moves correctly at start of turn, but increasingly leads the actual heading as plane gets more south.

211
Q

How much is the lead or lag for turn error?

A

Approximately equal to latitude of airplane.

Jeppesen Private Pilot (5 decks)

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