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Parasitology - Vic > chapter 17 - > Flashcards

chapter 17 - Flashcards

1
Q

Laboratory tests may not identify parasites if?

A

The parasite burden is low
The female is not actively producing eggs
There is no detectable stages that can be observed

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2
Q

Feces should be _______ and should not be older than _____ hours.

A

Fresh, 24 hours

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3
Q

Refrigerate feces to prevent ___ from _____, ___ from ___, or ____ from _____.

A

eggs - larvating
oocysts - sporulating
larva - changing

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4
Q

When taking a fecal sample from a group, ___ pooled sample per group is used.

A

one

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5
Q

Where should laboratory results get recorded?

A

In patient’s medical record and in central laboratory result or log book

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6
Q

What is the central log book used for?

A

a backup to make sure tests are run, if the results are not in the book or patients record, they did not get run

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7
Q

What about the feces should be recorded in the central laboratory record book, as well as the animal’s medical record?

A 
color (black - digested) (red - blood)
consistency
presence of blood
gross parasites
presence of mucus
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8
Q

What should parasites be identified by?

A

genus and species so the vet can use proper control and treatment measures

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9
Q

Aged feces may contain what?

A

pseudoparasites picked up from the environment or nonparasitic larvae from flies that have grown after defecation occurred

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10
Q

What type of microscopes are used for proper identification of a parasite’s larvae, eggs and oocysts?

A

compound microscope with 4X, 10X, and 40X objectives

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11
Q

Microscopes with calibrated eyepieces should be calibrated for what?

A

each objective for accurately measuring parasite larvae, ova, or oocysts

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12
Q

What is the calibration used for?

A

to measure the hatch marks on the ocular micrometer int he eyepiece.

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13
Q

When is the calibration done on the objective?

A

it is done at each objective power recorded and affixed to the microscope for future reference

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14
Q

What is the simplest method of microscopic fecal examination for parasites?

A

the direct smear

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15
Q

What is the direct smear?

A

a good diagnostic test for viewing the motile forms of protozoans that might be destroyed by other methods

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16
Q

Fecal concentration methods are preferred for identifying parasites and oocysts in the feces because?

A

Larger volumes of feces are used making it more likely the developmental stages will be seen if present in the feces

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17
Q

Fecal floatation solutions with a specific gravity of 1.2 to 1.25 are used to?

A

“float” parasite ova, cysts, and larvae while the fecal material sinks to the bottom of the container

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18
Q

The fecal solutions of choice?

A

are sheather’s sugar solution, sodium nitrate solution, sodium nitrate solution and zinc sulfate solution.

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19
Q

What does it depend on as to how many different types of eggs, larvae, and cysts are able to be floated?

A

the specific gravity of the solution

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20
Q

What is fecal centrifugation is?

A

the method of choice for fecal flotation to float a higher concentration of ova, cysts, and larvae, and cysts are able to be floated

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21
Q

When is fecal sedimentation test used?

A

it is more commonly used to test for trematodes eggs, which are heavier than other parasite eggs and thus do not float well

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22
Q

What does qualitative procedures tell you?

A

whether parasite ova or cysts are present in the fecal sample

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23
Q

What does quantitative procedures do?

A

provide the number of ova or cysts in one gram of feces

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24
Q

What are quantitative procedures used for?

A

they are used more often in research facilities than in the vet clinic

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25
Q

What do Giardia trophozoites do in a fecal smear?

A

they swim in a jerky motion

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26
Q

What can be used to stain protozoan cysts on a direct smear?

A

modified D’Antoni’s iodine or Lugol’s iodine

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27
Q

What does cystoisospora species have when sporulated?

A

two sporocysts

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28
Q

What does Eimeria species have when sporulated?

A

four sporocysts

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29
Q

Cultured and identification of Nematode larvae are often referred to?

A

state or private diagnostic laboratories

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30
Q

Can parasites be preserved and stored for future analysis?

A

yes, the preservation technique will depend on the type of parasite

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31
Q

Nematodes are preserved differently than Cestodes or Trematodes. T or F

A

True

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32
Q

How should parasitologic samples be sent through the US postal service or other private carriers?

A

should be preserved in 70% ethyl alcohol or 10% formalin and properly packaged so the contents do not leak

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33
Q

What details should a fecal or parasite sample have on it when it is sent to reference laboratories?

A

practitioner’s name, client’s name, animal name or number, gender, age and species with as much history as possible for accurate analysis

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34
Q

The cellophane tape preparation is used to?

A

detect the eggs of pinworms and a number of ectoparasites (pinworms are parasites of herbivores but never carnivores)

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35
Q

When testing dogs or cats for occult blood in the stool, the patient should be fed ____?

A

a meat free diet for 24 to 48 hours prior to collection of the stool sample

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36
Q

What is dirofilaria immitis?

A

the mot important blood parasite in N. America

37
Q

When using an anticoagulant sample tube like EDTA, you should make sure that you collect at least a ___ sample of whole blood for proper mixture of the anticoagulant

A

1 ml

38
Q

Why should you make sure that you collect 1 ml of whole blood when using an anticoagulant sample tube like EDTA?

A

to prevent unexpected cell distortions that can occur with too much anticoagulant and not enough blood sample

39
Q

The direct blood smear is?

A

a good quick scanning technique but should not be relied upon if the sample does not reveal parasites since only a very small sample is being used

40
Q

What does a direct blood smear reveal and what does about the blood smear is hard to differentiate?

A

it reveals microfilariae, but it is hard to differentiate the genus and the species

41
Q

A thin blood smear cannot be used accurate differentiation of ____ _____ and ____ ____.

A

dirofilaria immitis and acanthocheilonema reconditum

42
Q

What can be used to properly differentiate between dirofilaria immitis and acanthocheilonema reconditum?

A

the buffy coat technique and modified Knott’s technique

43
Q

What is used for differentiation of dirofilaria immitis and acanthocheilonema reconditum?

A

THE MORPHOLOGICAL FEATURES

44
Q

What is the commercial filter test?

A

a good techniques for detecting microfilariae in the blood but not reliable for differentiation of microfilaria species

45
Q

With the monthly heartworm preventatives being used, the animals are ____ since the preventative kill the microfilariae.

A

amicroilaremic

46
Q

What can be used to find lung worms?

A

Routine fecal flotation techniques and Baermann technique

47
Q

Correct fecal sample submission?

A

– feces should be submitted in a sealed glass or plastic container, clearly marked with the time and date of collection, species of animal, animal’s name, owner’s name, and any other information relevant to the case

48
Q

Accession number?

A

– a number given to a sample so that they are process in the order in which they are received and to aid on thorough recordkeeping

49
Q

“Pooled fecal samples” from herds?

A

– feces collected from a pen without the specific animal or origin being known

50
Q

Central record book?

A

– where laboratory results are recorded – used as a backup to make sure tests are run

51
Q

Gross examination of feces?

A

– the physical appearance of feces (color, consistency, presence of blood, gross parasites and presence of blood

52
Q

Calcareous bodies/calcareous corpuscles?

A

– microscopic calcium deposits unique to the tissues of cestodes (tapeworms)

53
Q

Field?

A

– each circular area of the slide seen through the coverslip

54
Q

Pattern of movement?

A

– how the slide is moved so that the field follows either of the patterns of arrows

55
Q

Calibration of the compound microscope?

A

– calibration is used to measure the hatch marks on the ocular micrometer in the eyepiece. This is done for each individual objective (lenses) – only needed to be done once for the life of the microscope

56
Q

Stage micrometer?

A

– a microscope slide etched with a 2-mm line marked in 0.0l-mm divisions = 0.001 mm - which is used to calibrate the compound microscope objectives

57
Q

Ocular micrometer?

A

– eyepiece is a glass disc that fits into and remains in one of the microscope eyepieces. This glass disc is etched with 30 hatch marks (may vary) spaced at equal intervals

58
Q

Direct fecal smear?

A

– the simplest method of microscopic fecal examination for parasites – consisting of a small amount of feces placed directly on the microscope slide – allows viewing of motile forms of protozoans that might be destroyed by other methods

59
Q

Concentration methods?

A

– a way of concentrating parasitic material from a larger fecal sample into a smaller volume – 2 types are fecal flotation and fecal sedimentation

60
Q

Fecal flotation?

A

– a procedure which is based on differences in specific gravity of parasite eggs, cysts, and larvae and that of fecal debris

61
Q

Specific gravity?

A

– refers to the weight of an object (i.e. parasite egg) compared with the weight of an equal volume of pure water

62
Q

Flotation media?

A

– consists of sugar of various salts added to water to increase its specific gravity – if solution has a specific gravity of 1.2 to 1.25 it will be greater than the eggs or cysts which can then float

63
Q

Sheather’s solution?

A

– sugar – less efficient than sodium nitrate solution because it floats fewer eggs and is messy to work with, although sugar is inexpensive and does not distort roundworm eggs and floats an adequate percentage of the eggs

64
Q

Sodium nitrate solution?

A

– the most efficient flotation solution, but it forms crystals and distorts the eggs after a time

65
Q

Zinc sulfate solution?

A
  • similar in efficiency to sugar solution – Giardia are best concentrate with this solution
66
Q

Magnesium sulfate solution?

A

– Epson salt – also forms crystals on the microscope slide, it is an inexpensive solution, is easily prepared and readily available

67
Q

Saturated sodium chloride solution?

A

– the least desirable flotation solution – main disadvantage is that it corrodes expensive laboratory equipment such as compound microscopes and centrifuges – it forms crystals on the microscope slide and severely distorts the eggs

68
Q

Simple flotation?

A

– the second most common parasitologic test after the direct smear – a small amount of feces 2g to 5g, the feces is then placed in to a container (i.e., fecalizer) and after other steps the result is that the eggs will float to the top on to the slipcover which can then be seen under a microscope

69
Q

Centrifugal flotation?

A

– move efficiently recovers parasite eggs and cysts and requires less time than the simple flotation procedure – however it requires a centifuge

70
Q

Fecal sedimentation?

A

– rarely used for routine fecal analysis – more commonly used to test for trematode eggs, which are heavier than other parasite eggs and thus do not float as well

71
Q

Qualitative fecal procedures?

A

– procedures that reveal the presence or absence of parasite ova or cysts

72
Q

Quantitative fecal procedures?

A
  • indicate the number of eggs or cysts present in each gram(g) of feces. The results of these procedures are rough, or approximate, indication of the number of adult parasites present within the host (the severity of the infection)
73
Q

Modified Wisconsin technique?

A

– estimates the number of parasite eggs or cysts per gram of feces, - used the most often

74
Q

Modified D’Antoni’s iodine?

A

– a stain solution used to preserve and stain intestinal protozoa – In a direct smear, this stain does not preserve the protozoa but does highlight any protozoa in the smear

75
Q

Fecal culture?

A

– used in diagnostic parasitology to differentiate parasites whose eggs and cysts cannot be distinguished by examination of a fresh fecal sample – the feces containing stronglyle egg (for example) are allowed to incubate at room temp. for several days while the larvae hatch from the eggs – the newly hatched can then be identified

76
Q

Sporulation?

A

– a process of development that takes place within the oocyst – once sporulation occurs, coccidian of the genus Eimeria can be easily distinguished from those of the genus Cystoisospora

77
Q

Cellophane tape preparation?

A

is used to detect the eggs of pinworms and a number of ectoparasties.

78
Q

Baermann technique?

A

– used to recover the larvae of roundworms from feces, soil, or animal tissues – this method takes advantage of the fact that warm water stimulates nematode larvae in a sample to move about. Once the larvae move out of the sample they relax in the warm water and sink to the bottom of the container.

79
Q

Occult blood?

A

– blood present in small amounts in the feces

80
Q

Direct blood smear?

A

– is the simplest blood parasite detection procedure is by direct microscopic examination of whole blood

81
Q

Feathered edge thin blood smear?

A

– a region of the area of the smear farthest from the original drop of blood should be the thinnest part of the smear

82
Q

Buffy coat preparation?

A

– a concentration technique for detection of microfilariae in blood samples (the buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells located between the red blood cells and the clear plasma formed by the centrifugation of whole blood

83
Q

Modified Knott’s technique?

A

Modified Knott’s technique – a fairly rapid method that detects microfilariae and allows for differentiation between the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis and Acanthocheilonema reconditum

84
Q

Tracheal washes?

A

– a technique for collecting a sample of bronchial exudate for histological and microbiological examination.

85
Q

Urine sedimentation?

A

– primary method of examining urine for parasites is by microscopic examination of the sediment

86
Q

Skin scrapings?

A

– one of the most common diagnostic tools used in evaluating animals with dermatologic problems

87
Q

Ear smear procedure?

A

– used to diagnose parasites of the ear
Obtain sample – place 2 or 3 drops of mineral oil on the slide and an equal amount of ear debris, mix the ear debris and mineral oil – remove large pieces of debris, cover with cover slip, examine under microscope

88
Q

Preputial washes?

A

– washing of the penis

Parasitology - Vic (8 decks)

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