Chapter 15: Gene Mutations, DNA Repair, and Transposition Flashcards
Generally speaking, which of the following mutations would most severely affect the protein coded for by a gene?
- a base substitution at the beginning of the gene
- a base substitution at the end of the gene
- a frameshift deletion at the beginning of the gene
- a frameshift deletion at the end of the gene
a frameshift deletion at the beginning of the gene
A frameshift mutation at the beginning of a gene would affect every codon after the point where the mutation occurred. During protein synthesis, incorrect amino acids would be inserted from the point where the frameshift mutation occurred on; the resulting protein would most probably be nonfunctional. For this reason, a frameshift mutation at the beginning of a gene is generally the most severe type of mutation.
What is a mutation?
Mastering Genetics
Any change in the base sequence constitutes a mutation.
A base substitution mutation can occur if the DNA polymerase inserts the wrong nucleotide base as it synthesizes a new strand of DNA. A frameshift mutation can occur if the DNA polymerase leaves out a nucleotide or adds an extra nucleotide to the sequence.
Certain forms of cancer occur because of mutations in DNA sequences that are located in so-called mutational hotspots. These hotspots are locations in the DNA sequence where mutations occur more often than in other places.
Point mutations in DNA sequences can profoundly affect protein synthesis, or they can have no effect at all.
Point mutations can be beneficial to an organism but are more commonly neutral or harmful.
True or False?
Tautomers of nucleotide bases are isomers that differ from each other in the location of one hydrogen atom in the molecule.
True
Nucleotide tautomers differ only in the bonding location of one hydrogen atom.
Which nucleotide will base‑pair with the enol form of 5‑bromouracil?
Guanine
The enol form of 5‑bromouracil forms a base pair with guanine.
Which of the following events could result in a frameshift mutation?
Base deletion
A base deletion would shorten the DNA sequence and change the reading frame of the mRNA.
What fluctuates in the fluctuation test of Luria and Delbruck?
The number of resistant cells from different independent cultures
Although the cultures were treated identically, random mutations gave random fluctuating numbers of resistant bacteria. The numbers fluctuated because the random mutations arose at different times in the different cultures and the resulting cells had varying amounts of time to grow and increase in number.
A point mutation occurs such that a codon is changed from AGA to AGC.
Which term describes this mutation?
Transversion mutation
Transversions involve the substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine or vice versa. In this case, the substitution involved a change from the purine adenine to the pyrimidine cytosine.
Nutritional mutations can be defined as ________.
those mutations that do not allow an organism to grow on minimal medium but do allow growth on complete medium
A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins is likely to be which of the following?
frameshift
In general, mutation rates in humans occur in the range of
____ .
per gamete per generation
Why are X rays more potent mutagens than UV radiation?
X rays are of higher energy and shorter wavelength than UV light. They have greater penetrating ability and can create more disruption of DNA.
Change cytosine to uracil and adenine to hypoxanthine by converting an amine group to a keto group
Deaminating Agents
Add a methyl or ethyl group to the amino or keto groups of nucleotides, changing base-pair affinities.
Alkylating Agents
Are incorporated as thymine and adenine, but base pair with guanine and cytosine, respectively.
Include such substances as 2-Amino Purine and 5-Bromouracil
Base Analogs
What is a spontaneous mutation?
Mutations that occur as a result of natural biological and/or chemical processes are considered spontaneous.
In general, mutation rates in humans occur in the range of
10^-6 to 10^-5 mutations per gamete per generation
Mutations that arise in nature, from no particular artificial agent, are called ________.
spontaneous mutations
A mutation that occurs naturally, without exposure to a known mutagen, is called a(n) ________ mutation.
spontaneous mutation
Apurinic sites (AP sites) involve a spontaneous loss of a(n)________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule.
purine
Which of the following statements about deamination is true?
Deamination is induced by nitrous acid.
The main effect of nitrous acid is to increase the rate of deamination.
What are the consequences of having pyrimidine dimers in DNA?
These dimers distort the DNA structure and result in errors during DNA replication.
True or False?
Thymine dimers can be repaired by Photoreactivation Repair or Nucleotide Excision Repair.
True
Both Photoreactivation Repair and Nucleotide Excision Repair will target UV-induced pyrimidine dimers in DNA.
Which of the following statements regarding Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER) and Base Excision Repair (BER) is true?
Both NER and BER involve the removal of one or more damaged bases by a nuclease.
In both NER and BER a nuclease will target damaged or distorted regions of DNA.
In terms of its involvement in mutagenesis, 5BU is best described as _______.
a base analog that can cause either A-T > G-C or G-C > A-T transitions
In its common form, 5BU can pair with adenine and in its rare form it can pair with guanine.
For 5BU to cause a transition mutation, which of the following must occur?
DNA with incorporated 5BU must replicate.
5BU must undergo a form change, but that is not sufficient to cause transition. The form change must be followed by replication.
True or False?
In its rare form, 5BU pairs with guanine.
True
In its more common form, 5BU will pair with adenine. In its rare form, it pairs with guanine.
Which of the following name two mutagens that would be classified as base analogs?
5-bromouracil and 2-aminopurine
Which enzyme is responsible for proofreading during replication?
DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase performs proofreading functions during replication using its 3’ to 5’ exonuclease capability.
All EXCEPT which of the following are good model organisms for genetic studies?
Humans
Humans do not have any of the characteristics of a good model organism for experimental genetic studies.
All of the following are good model organisms for genetic studies:
E. coli
Mus musculus
Drosophila melanogaster
True or False?
Loss-of-function mutations that eliminate the function of a gene product are also known as null mutations or gene knockouts.
True
True or False?
When treating an organism with a mutagen, although it is possible that homozygous mutations will occur, it is more likely that most new mutations will be heterozygous or hemizygous.
True
True or False?
A missense mutation causes premature chain (protein) termination.
False
Which enzyme is responsible for proofreading during replication?
DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase performs proofreading functions during replication using its 3′ to 5′ exonuclease capability.
True or False?
Bacteria can distinguish between a newly replicated DNA strand and the original template strand because the newly replicated strand is methylated, whereas the original template strand is not.
False
Methylation occurs shortly after replication, so the original template strand is methylated and the newly replicated DNA strand is not.
Which repair system uses the RecA and LexA proteins?
SOS repair
RecA and LexA are active during the SOS response.
Which of the following statements about mismatch repair is false?
It recognizes methylated cytosine.
Mismatch repair recognizes methylated adenine at the sequence GATC, which contains all 4 bases and is a palindrome.
The following statements about mismatch repair are TRUE…
It determines which base in a mismatch is the incorrect one.
It requires the action of a methylase.
It depends on the fact that parental strand DNA is more heavily methylated.
The purpose of the Ames Test is to _______.
test the mutagenic effects of chemicals
The Ames test detects whether a given chemical can cause a reversion mutation in his- bacteria.
In the Ames Test, the appearance of his+ revertants in the presence of a non-mutagenic control compound indicates that _______.
some of the reversion mutations are not caused by the mutagen being tested
His+ revertants on the control plate are the result of spontaneous mutation.
True or False?
Many chemicals are more mutagenic after being processed in the liver.
True
Many potential mutagens are poorly mutagenic until passing through the liver.
True or False?
All compounds that have been found to be mutagenic in the Ames test are also carcinogenic.
False
The Ames test is used as a preliminary screening tool. Not all compounds that give a positive Ames test are carcinogenic.
Why are liver extracts used in the Ames test?
Liver enzymes may activate some innocuous compounds, making them mutagenic.
Some compounds are innocuous until they are activated metabolically by liver enzymes.
Which bacteria grow on the agar plate if the Ames test is positive?
his+ prototrophs
The bacteria used in the Ames test to evaluate mutagenicity are his− auxotrophs. If the Ames test is positive, these bacteria have reverted back to wild type and are his+ prototrophs
Why are spontaneous mutations rare?
They are relatively rare in comparison to induced mutations that are more directed to the physical or chemical properties of DNA.
Assuming one mutational event in a gene, on average, which of the following mutagens or mutational conditions would be expected to cause the most damage to a protein synthesized by such a mutagenized gene: 5-bromouracil, 2-amino purine, ethylmethane sulfonate, or frameshift?
frameshift