Chapter 14 - Landing Gear Flashcards

1
Q

When the manual extension access door is open:

A

manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fittings located in the wheel well ring opening of each main gear wheel well:

A

are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which pressure does the hydraulic brake pressure indicator indicate?

A

A maximum pressure of 3500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Both normal and alternate brake systems provide:

A

skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a landing is made with RTO selected (AUTO BRAKE select switch is not cycled through
OFF):

A

no automatic braking action occurs and the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates two seconds after touchdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:

A

prior to decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:

A

a. moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the down detent position.
b. advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first two seconds after
touchdown for landing.
c. applying manual brakes.
d. all of the answers are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:

A

six sensors, two on each landing gear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for nose wheel steering?

A

System A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:

A

the system A hydraulic pumps must be placed OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is not part of the braking system?

A

the nose wheel brakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

A

a. all of the answers are correct.
b. Wheel speed less than 60 knots.
c. Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.
d. The AUTO BRAKE switch positioned to RTO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?

A

A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?

A

The extend limit speed of 270 knots/.82M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrake in RTO?

A

Maximum braking pressure is applied when thrust levers are retarded to idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake when
both normal and alternate braking pressure is lost.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hydraulic pressure from System B supplies a volume of hydraulic fluid required to raise the landing gear at a normal rate when:

A

a. the landing lever is positioned up.
b. either main landing gear is not up and locked.
c. when airborne and the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value (i.e. engine number
1 fails),
d. all of the answers are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Alternate brake system provides antiskid protection:

A

to wheel pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Operational airspeed for climb in conditions of severe turbulence is:

A

280 KIAS /.76M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The maximum demonstrated takeoff and landing crosswind is ___ knots.

A

33 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The maximum cabin differential pressure (relief valves) is:

A

9.1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fuel System limitation for temperature using Jet A, Jet A1, or JP-5 is:

A

max temp: 49 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Operation with assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted with

A

inoperative anti-skid

24
Q

Do not deploy the Speedbrakes in flight at radio altitudes less than:

A

1000 feet

25
Q

When using the Alternate Flaps Master switch during loss of system B hydraulic failure the
maximum speed is:

A

230 knots

26
Q

During loss of both engine driven generations, and main tank fuel pumps inoperative, thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur at what altitude?

A

30,000 ft or above

27
Q

During Rapid depressurisation checklist recall, the passenger oxygen switch is activated
when:

A

cabin altitude is 14,000 feet or is expected to exceed 14,000 feet

28
Q

Maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland
operations:

A

a. Headwind 25 kts
b. Tailwind 10 kts
c. Crosswind 20 kts
d. All of the answers are correct.

29
Q

What is the maximum airspeed limit with a WINDOW OVERHEAT?

A

250 knots below 10,000 feet.

30
Q

Maximum Flap Extension Altitude is:

A

20,000 feet.

31
Q

Wheel base distance between main landing gear is:(-600/-700/-800/-900):

A

18.8 feet (5.7m)

32
Q

Minimum width of pavement for 180 degree turn is:(- 800):

A

77.1 feet (23.5 m)

33
Q

Minimum wing tip radius for 180 degree turn is:(- 800):

A

71.6 feet (21.8m)

34
Q

The purpose of the minimum equipment list is to allow the operator to:

A

operate the aircraft in various non-standard configurations approved by the FAA or appropriate regulatory agency

35
Q

Items for which the FAA feels special procedures are necessary are identified by an (M) and/or an (O). Items in the minimum equipment list proceeded by an (O) indicates?

A

normal flight crew procedures modified or supplemented to account for the inoperative item.

36
Q

NWS and rudder pedals can provide up to ___ and ___ degrees of steering respectively.

A

78, 7

37
Q

What do the red lines indicate on the nose gear doors?

A

Maximum turning point under tow.

38
Q

NWS uses ___ system pressure.

A

A

39
Q

After takeoff, If the #1 engine RPM falls below 56% N2:

A

The LGTU will transfer from system A to system B to raise the gear.

40
Q

Should hydraulic pressure fail:

A

The gear remains locked down mechanically.

41
Q

In order for the gear to be considered down and locked:

A

One light either on the center panel or overhead panel is required to be illuminated.

42
Q

Hydraulic gear retraction is disabled when:

A

The manual gear extension cover door is open.

43
Q

Brake pressure is applied from one of two sources:

A

Brake metering valve or the autobrake control module, whichever has the higher pressure.

44
Q

The anti-skid system provides which four types of protection?

A
  • locked wheel
  • touchdown
  • skid
  • hydroplane
45
Q

Accumulator pressure is used to:

A

Operate the brakes in the event of both a system A and system B failure.

46
Q

The antiskid system is deactivated when:

A

The parking brake is set.

47
Q

The anti-skid INOP will illuminate if:

A
  • a fault is detected in the anti-skid system
  • a fault is detected in the parking brake system
48
Q

The autobrake system is not available when:

A

Alternate brakes are active.

49
Q

Which information is required by the anti-skid system to control amount of braking action?

A

Wheel speed.

50
Q

Autobrake mode selection =

A

Total deceleration, which = reverse thrust + braking.

51
Q

MAX autobrake setting is less than:

A

Full manual braking

52
Q

RTO can only be selected when:

A
  1. The aircraft is on the ground.
  2. Wheel speed less than 60kts
  3. Thrust levers must be at idle
  4. Anti-skid and autobrake system operational
  5. Autobrakes set to RTO
53
Q

The illumination of the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light when RTO is selected indicates:

A

The system is running a self test.

54
Q

The RTO function of the AUTOBRAKES does not initiate when:

A

An RTO is initiated at less than 90kts

55
Q

Antiskid operation is not available when:

A

Autobrakes are not selected

56
Q

The autobrakes are disarmed by:

A
  1. Moving the speedbrake handle to the down position.
  2. Advancing either or both thrust levers after touchdown.
  3. Applying manual brakes
  4. Moving AUTOBRAKES switch to OFF.