Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacy Pre-Registration 20/21 > Chapter 14, 15, 16: Vaccines, Anaesthesia, Poisoning COPY > Flashcards

Chapter 14, 15, 16: Vaccines, Anaesthesia, Poisoning COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies of human origin are termed as what?

A

Immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of human immunoglobulin?

A

Normal

Disease- specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normal immunoglobulin is available from regional Public health labs for the control and outbreak of what 3 conditions?

For any other indications, where should the immunoglobulins be purchased from?

A

Hepatitis A
Measles
Rubella

All other indications- purchased from the manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease-specific immunoglobulin would you not be able to get from public health labs?

A

Tetanus - get this from manufacturer, hospital pharmacies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false:

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin required by transplant centres should be obtained commercially

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is normal immunoglobulin administered for protection of conditions?

A

Intramuscular injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is normal immunoglobulin?

A

Non-specific

Has antibodies for conditions such as measles, mumps, rubella, Hepatitis A and other viruses that would affect the general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After how long of an injection of normal immunoglobulin are you protected?

A

Immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normal immunglobulin for protection is administered via IM. For what indication would you give it IV?

A

Replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is immunoglobulin recommended for Hep A protection in travellers?

A

No

Hep A vaccine by itself is recommended for individuals visiting high risk areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Public Health England recommends normal immunoglobulin in addition to Hep A vaccine in which individuals?

A
  • If in close contact with Hep A positive people
  • > 60 years
  • Chronic liver disease/Hep B or C positive
  • HIV infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In non-immune patients who have had exposure to measles can be given the MMR vaccine, although this is not suitable for prophylaxis as the effect is too slow.

In what patient groups would this be inappropriate for, and what should be given instead?

A

IM normal immunoglobulin for the following patient groups:

Non-immune pregnant women (if clinically appropriate- it will not prevent infection but may prevent clinical attack)
Infants under 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false:

After a pregnant woman is exposed to rubella, it is recommended they have IM immunoglobulin to prevent infection

A

No

It is not recommended and it does not prevent infection in non-immune patients. However, it may reduce the risk of a clinical attack so may reduce the risk to the foetus

It should only be used if termination of pregnancy is not possible, and should be given as soon after the exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk of rubella transmission in pregnant women to the foetus is greatest in the first how many weeks of gestation?

A

Great risk in the first 11 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Females of childbearing age should avoid getting pregnant until how long after getting the MMR vaccine?

A

At least 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false:

Pregnant women should have the MMR vaccine

A

False

Live vaccines should not be administered routinely to pregnant women because of the theoretical risk of fetal infection but where there is a significant risk of exposure to disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a patient requires rabies prophylaxis after a bite, where should the rabies immunglobulin be administered?

A

Bite should be washed with soapy water

All of the dose should be injected around the site of the wound; if this is difficult or the wound has completely healed it can be given in the thigh (remote from the site used for vaccination).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a patient is bitten in a high risk rabies area, what should happen?

A

Bite should be washed with soapy water

Specific rabies immunoglobulin should be injected into site of wound when possible (if not, thigh)

Rabies vaccine should also be given IM at a different site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you manage tetanus prone wounds?

A

Tetanus immunoglobulin should be used
Wound cleansing
Antibacterial prophylaxis if appropriate (Ben Pen, co-amox, or metronidazole)
Tetanus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you treat established cases of tetanus?

A

Tetanus immunoglobulin
Metronidazole
Wound cleansing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is recommended in what patient groups?

A

Increased risk of severe infection in those who have few/no antibodies to the virus:
Neonates, pregnant women, immunosuppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In immunocompromised patients on long term antiviral prophylaxis, if they are exposed to the virus, what is the recommendation regarding their antiviral prophylaxis?

A

Increase the dose temporarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Immunosuppressed patients receiving regular intravenous immunoglobulin replacement therapy only require varicella-zoster immunoglobulin if the most recent dose was administered more than how many weeks before exposure?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the anti-D (Rho) immunoglobulin used for?

A

In rhesus-negative pregnant women to prevent sensitisation if e.g. gives birth to a rhesus-positive baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is the MMR vaccine live or inactivated?

A

Live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is the BCG vaccine live or inactivated?

A

Live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Is the influenza vaccine live or inactivated?

A

Inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Are live or inactivated vaccines more likely to require booster injections?

A

Inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Vaccination in HIV depends on their immunity status, however there are 3 vaccines that should always be avoided. What are these?

A

BCG
Typhoid
Yellow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What vaccines are recommended in asplenic patients?

A

Influenza
Pneumococcal
Haemophilus influenza type B with meningococcal type C
Meniningococcal (B and ACWY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

From what age is the influenza vaccine recommended in adults?

A

65 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

From what age is the pneumococcal vaccine recommended in adults?

A

65 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

From what age is the varicella-zoster vaccine recommended in adults?

A

70 years

At 80 years, they are no longer eligible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is the cholera vaccine given?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long does the diphtheria vaccine last?

A

10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A Hep A booster dose is given how long after the initial dose?

A

6-12 months after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Primary immunisation of Hep B requires how many doses?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HPV vaccination is how many doses if the first dose is given before 15 years of age?

What time frame?

A

2

Second dose to be given 6-24 months after the initial one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HPV vaccination is how many doses if the first dose is given after 15 years of age?

Within what time frame?

A

3

All in the space of a 12 month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the ideal months for influenza vaccination?

A

Between September and early November

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or false:

People with diabetes are recommended to get the flu vaccine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or false:

Morbidly obese patients are recommended to get the flu vaccine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the MMR vaccination regimen in children?

A

2 doses

1st dose at 1 year of age

2nd dose at 3 years 4 months (before starting school)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Menningococcal vaccination is not recommended after what age?

A

25 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pertussis vaccine is prophylaxis against what condition?

A

Whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What book can you refer to if you need advice of immunisation against infectious diseases?

A

Green Book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is the rabies vaccine indicated in pregnancy?

A

Yes if there is substantial risk of exposure to rabies and rapid access to post-exposure prophylaxis is likely to be limited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The rotavirus vaccine is given via what formulation?

A

Oral suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

For tetanus prone wounds, what antibacterial prophylaxis options are there/

A

Ben Pen, co-amox or metronidazole

50
Q

Typhoid vaccine comes in what 2 formulations?

A

Oral capsule

IM injection

51
Q

How long does the typhoid vaccine last for?

However, how often should you have a booster if typhoid risk continues?

A

Lasts for 10 years

Booster every 3 years if risk continues

52
Q

How long does the yellow fever vaccine last?

A

10 years is the accepted time period

However probably lasts for life

53
Q

In areas where sanitation is poor, good food hygiene is important to prevent what 4 conditions?

A

Hepatitis A
Typhoid
Cholera
Other diarrhoea diseases

54
Q

What website can healthcare professionals and travellers go on to find the latest information on immunisation whilst travelling?

A

Nathnac

55
Q

What is the MHRA warning regarding vaccines?

A

Reports of death in neonates receiving live vaccines following exposure to TNF-a

56
Q

IM vaccines should not be given to what group of patients?

What is the alternative route of administration that should be done in these patients?

A

Those with bleeding disorders e.g. thrombocytopenia, haemophilia

Deep subcut is an alternative

57
Q

What is the advice regarding a patient needing MMR and yellow fever vaccine?

A

MMR vaccine should not be administered on the same day as yellow fever vaccine; there should be a 4-week minimum interval between the vaccines

58
Q

What is the advice regarding a patient needing MMR and varicella-zoster vaccine?

A

MMR and varicella-zoster vaccine can be given on the same day or separated by a 4-week minimum interval.

59
Q

What is the green book advice regarding immunisation in children born to mothers receiving immunosuppressant biological therapy?

A

Live vaccines should be delayed until 6 months of age

So not eligible to receive rotavirus then

60
Q

What is the advice regarding pregnant women receiving live vaccines?

A

Should not happen due to risk of foetal infection

Should not travel to high risk areas but if this is not possible, the vaccine must be given as the benefit outweighs the risk

61
Q

What is the risk of patients with adrenal atrophy (resulting from long-term corticosteroids) undergoing surgery?
How is this avoided?

A

Fall in blood pressure unless corticosteroid cover is provided during anaesthesia and in the immediate post-op period

62
Q

What do you need to consider in patients undergoing surgery who are on MAOIs?

A

Interactions with drugs used in surgery e.g. pethidine

63
Q

TCAs don’t need to be stopped for surgery, but what is the risk associated with these during the surgical period?

A

Risk of arrhythmias and hypotension

NB - there may be dangerous interactions with vasodilator drugs

64
Q

When should lithium be stopped before major surgery?

A

24 hours before

65
Q

For minor surgery, how are patients on lithium managed?

A

Continue lithium at normal dose but monitor fluid and electrolytes

66
Q

Why would potassium sparing diuretics need to be stopped before surgery?

A

Hyperkalaemia may develop if renal perfusion is impaired or if there is tissue damage

67
Q

How are patients on potassium sparing diuretics managed for surgery?

A

Stop it the morning of surgery

68
Q

How are patients on ACEi and ARBs managed for surgery?

Why?

A

Discontinue 24 hours before surgery

Severe hypotension can occur after induction of anaesthesia

69
Q

Aspiration of gastric contents can be a complication of anaesthesia, especially in cases like emergency surgery. This can also be the case in patients with GORD / delayed gastric emptying.

What is done to prevent this?

A

Prophylaxis against acid aspiration - H2 antagonist orally 1-2 hours before surgery

70
Q

What do you need to ensure in patients receiving neuromuscular blocking drugs (relaxes diaphragm, abdomen, vocal cords) during surgery?

A

Should always have their respiration assisted/controlled until the drug has been inactivated or antagonised

71
Q

What is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs?

A

Anticholinesterases - neostigmine

72
Q

When adrenaline is being administered with a local anaesthetic, should a low or high concentration of adrenaline be used?

A

Low concentration (no more than 1 in 200,000) - total dose should not exceed 500 micrograms

73
Q

Do local anaesthetics cause dilation or constriction of blood vessels?

A

Dilation

74
Q

Why is adrenaline added to local anasethetic?

What is the risk?

A

Diminishes local blood flow, slowing the rate of absorption and thereby prolonging the anaesthetic effect.

The risk is ischaemic necrosis so should not be given in digits (toes and fingers) or appendages

75
Q

Local anaesthetic with adrenaline can help prolong the anaesthetic by decreasing blood flow around the area. In what patient groups would you not want to give this with adrenaline?

A

In patients with severe hypertension or unstable cardiac rhythm

76
Q

What is used in lidocaine toxicity?

A

Intralipid

77
Q

What is used for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A

Flumazenil

78
Q

What is used for digoxin toxicity?

A

Digoxin-specific antibody

79
Q

What is used for heparin toxicity?

A

Protamine sulphate

80
Q

What is used for opioid toxicity?

A

Naloxone

81
Q

What is used for paracetamol toxicity?

A

Acetylcysteine

82
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding the use of acetylcysteine?

A

Reminder for possible need to continue treatment even after the recommended 3 dose regimen over 21 hours

This is on an individual patient case-by-case basis

83
Q

What two places can you find information on poisoning?

A

Toxbase

UK National Poisons Information Service

84
Q

Within how much time of poisoning should activated charcoal ideally be taken?

A

Within 1 hour

85
Q

Activated charcoal should not be used in the poisoning of what substances?

A

Petroleum distillates, corrosive substances, alcohols, malathion, cyanides and metal salts including iron and lithium salts

86
Q

What is the treatment of choice for severe aspirin poisoning?

A

Haemodialysis

87
Q

In opioid poisoning, are the patient’s pupils pinpoint or dilated?

A

Pinpoint

88
Q

What is the disadvantage of naloxone administration in opioid poisoning?

A

Has a shorter duration of action of many opioids so may require repeated doses

Can however be given via continuous infusion

89
Q

When would you consider the use of activated charcoal in paracetamol overdose?

A

If paracetamol in excess of 150 mg/kg is thought to have been ingested within the previous hour.

90
Q

In what situations would you give acetylcysteine in paracetamol overdose?

A
  • If on the treatment line on the paracetamol overdose graph
  • Who present 8–24 hours after taking an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol
  • Staggered overdose if ingested more than 150mg/kg, if patient’s risk of toxicity is uncertain
  • Patients with features of hepatic injury, jaundice
91
Q

When is a paracetamol overdose classed as staggered?

A

If they have taken a toxic dose over more than 1 hour

92
Q

The paracetamol treatment graph is unrelieable in what kind of overdose?

A

Staggered

93
Q

What is the dosing regimen for acetylcysteine in paracetamol overdose?

A

1st infusion for 1 hour 150mg/kg

2nd infusion for 4 hours 50mg/kg

3rd infusion for 16 hours 100mg/kg

94
Q

Does TCA overdose result in dilated or pinpoint pupils?

A

Dilated

95
Q

What is used to treat bradycardia in acute overdose of beta blockers?

A

Atropine

96
Q

Therapeutic lithium concentrations are usually within what range?

A

0.4–1 mmol/litre

97
Q

What lithium level is associated with serious toxicity?

A

> 2

May need treatment with haemodialysis

98
Q

Oxygen should be administered to patients with what types of poisoning?

A

Cyanide

Carbon monoxide

99
Q

What is used for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning?

A

Fomepizole

Ethanol

100
Q

All these side effects are linked to suxamethonium except:

  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Myopathies
  • Hypertension
A

Hypertension

It is used as part of general anaesthesia and causes hypotension

101
Q

Sodium thiosulphate is used for what type of poisoning?

A

Cyanide

102
Q

For a child born in the UK, what 4 vaccines should they have at 8 weeks?

A

1st 6 in 1 vaccine
1st Rotavirus
1st Pneumococcal
1st Men B

103
Q

For a child born in the UK, what 2 vaccines should they have at 12 weeks?

A

2nd 6 in 1 vaccine

2nd Rotavirus

104
Q

For a child born in the UK, what 3 vaccines should they have at 16 weeks?

A

3rd 6 in 1 vaccine
2nd Men B
2nd pneumococcal

105
Q

For a child born in the UK, what 2 vaccines and 2 boosters should they have at 12 months?

A

Hib and Men C
1st MMR

Booster pneumococcal and booster Men B

106
Q

Under the NHS child vaccination programme, what age should healthy children get the flu vaccine and how is this given?

A

Flu vaccine given via nasal spray

From the age of 2 to 9 (pre-school to Year 5)

107
Q

For a child born in the UK, what 1 vaccines and 1 booster should they have 13-18 years?

A

3 in 1 booster (diphtheria, tetanus, polio)

Men ACWY

108
Q

What does the 6 in 1 vaccine protect against?

A

Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), polio, haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) and hepatitis B

109
Q

True or false: Some flu vaccines contain egg so you need to be careful if the patient has an egg allergy

A

True

110
Q

Can you continue glaucoma medication during surgery?

A

Yes

111
Q

When administering live vaccines, why should the alcohol/disinfectant be allowed to dry before administering?

A

As it may inactivate the vaccine

112
Q

What is the only childhood vaccine where paracetamol is recommended as part as the routine immunisation schedule?

A

Men B

Dose 1 — 2.5 mL (60 mg) as soon as possible after vaccination.
Dose 2 — 2.5 mL (60 mg) 4–6 hours after the first dose.
Dose 3 — 2.5 mL (60 mg) 4–6 hours after the second dose

Other than this, parents should not routinely give their children paracetamol to prevent fever

113
Q

What is the most widely used IV anaesthetic and why?

A

Propofol

Associated with rapid recovery and less hangover effect than other intravenous anaesthetics.

114
Q

What is an advantage of etomidate over propofol in anaesthesia?

A

Causes less hypotension

115
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of etomidate for anaesthesia?

A

Rapid recovery without a hangover effect
Causes less hypotension

However can cause muscle movements but this can be minimised by opioid/benzodiazepine before induction

116
Q

Is ketamine used in anaesthesia?

What are the disadvantages?

A

Rarely in adults

It is used mainly for paediatric anaesthesia, particularly when repeated administration is required (such as for serial burns dressings)

The main disadvantage of ketamine is the high incidence of hallucinations, nightmares, and other transient psychotic effects; these can be reduced by a benzodiazepine such as diazepam or midazolam.

117
Q

For inhaled anaesthetics, to prevent hypoxia, the inspired gas mixture must contain what % oxygen at all times?

A

Minimum of 25% oxygen

Higher concentrations of oxygen (greater than 30%) are usually required during inhalational anaesthesia when nitrous oxide is being administered.

118
Q

The “flurane” anaesthetics are what formulation?

A

Volatile liquid

119
Q

What is a rare but serious side effect of anaesthesia?

What are the symptoms?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

Rapid rise in temperature, increased muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and acidosis.

120
Q

What type of anaesthetics carry the highest risk of malignant hyperthermia?

A 
Volatile anaesthetics (fluranes)
Suxamethonium
121
Q

How do you treat malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

Pharmacy Pre-Registration 20/21 (82 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions