Chapter 10. Interdisciplinary Pain Management Flashcards

1
Q
763. The second most common cause of pain in the
elderly is
(A) musculoskeletal
(B) cancer
(C) temporal arteritis
(D) postherpetic neuralgia
(E) diabetic neuropathy
A
  1. (B) Many other studies have verified that the
    predominant cause of pain in the elderly is, by
    far, musculoskeletal. The second most common
    source of pain is caused by cancer. Rheumatologic
    diseases are, therefore, important to the pain
    practitioner because these diseases are usually
    amenable to various treatment modalities. Other
    types of pain found commonly in the elderly
    include herpes zoster, postherpetic neuralgia,
    temporal arteritis, polymyalgia rheumatica,
    atherosclerotic and diabetic peripheral vascular
    disease, cervical spondylosis, trigeminal neuralgia,
    sympathetic dystrophies, and neuropathies
    from diabetes mellitus, alcohol abuse, and
    malnutrition.
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2
Q
  1. Pain assessment in the elderly is usually more
    difficult than in the young because it is often
    complicated by
    (A) good health status which may confuse
    the physician
    (B) poor memory
    (C) depression, which is only seen in cancer
    pain patients
    (D) most complains are psychiatric as
    opposed to organic
    (E) none of the above
A
  1. (B) Pain assessment in the elderly is usually
    more difficult than in the young because it is
    often complicated by poor health, poor
    memory, psychosocial concerns, depression,
    denial, and distress. Caution in not attributing
    new pain complaints to preexisting disease
    processes is mandatory. Most pain complaints
    in the elderly are of organic, not psychiatric,
    origin. Nonetheless, concomitant depression is
    also usually present among the elderly with
    chronic, nonmalignant pain.
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following includes recommendations
    by the American Geriatric Society for pain
    patients?
    (A) Pain and its response to treatment do
    not necessarily need to be measured
    (B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
    (NSAIDs) are contraindicated in older
    patients
    (C) Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for
    relieving mild to moderate pain
    (D) Nonopioid analgesic medications may
    be appropriate for some patients with
    neuropathic pain and other chronic pain
    syndromes
    (E) Nonpharmacologic approaches (eg,
    patient and caregiver education,
    cognitive-behavioral therapy, exercise)
    have no role in the management of geriatric
    pain
A
  1. (C) Recommendations from the American Geriatric
    Society for the management of patients with
    pain are
  2. Pain should be an important part of each
    assessment of older patients; along with
    efforts to alleviate the underlying cause,
    pain itself should be aggressively treated.
  3. Pain and its response to treatment should be
    objectively measured, preferably by a validated
    pain scale.
  4. NSAIDs should be used with caution. In
    older patients, NSAIDs have significant side
    effects and are the most common cause of
    adverse drug reactions.
  5. Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for
    relieving mild to moderate musculoskeletal
    pain.
  6. Opioid analgesic drugs are effective for
    relieving moderate to severe pain.
  7. Nonopioid analgesic medications may be
    appropriate for some patients with neuropathic
    pain and other chronic pain syndromes.
  8. Nonpharmacologic approaches (eg, patient
    and caregiver education, cognitive-behavioral
    therapy, exercise), used alone or in combination
    with appropriate pharmacologic strategies,
    should be an integral part of care plans
    in most cases.
  9. Referral to a multidisciplinary painmanagement
    center should be considered
    when pain-management efforts do not meet
    the patients’ needs. Regulatory agencies
    should review existing policies to enhance
    access to effective opioid analgesic drugs for
    older patients in pain.
  10. Pain-management education should be
    improved at all levels for all health care
    professionals.
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4
Q
  1. The functional pain scale has been standardized
    for the older population. Which of the following
    includes levels of assessment in this
    scale?
    (A) Rating pain as tolerable or intolerable
    (B) A functional component that adjusts the
    score depending on whether a person
    can respond verbally
    (C) A 0 to 5 scale that allows rapid comparison
    with previous pain levels
    (D) Only A and C are correct
    (E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (E) The functional pain scale, which has been
    standardized in an older population for reliability,
    validity, and responsiveness, has three
    levels of assessment: first, the patient rates the
    pain as tolerable or intolerable. Second, a functional
    component adjusts the score depending
    on whether a person can respond verbally.
    Finally, the 0 to 5 scale allows rapid comparison with prior pain levels. Ideally all patients should reach a 0 to 2 level.
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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major concern
    regarding antiepileptic agents when used to
    treat neuropathic pain in the elderly patient?
    (A) Propensity to interfere with vitamin D
    metabolism
    (B) Need to use higher doses than those
    used in the young adult
    (C) May disrupt balance
    (D) Only A and C are correct
    (E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (D) Antiepileptic medications are used to
    manage certain painful conditions, including
    trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is indicated
    for postherpetic neuralgia and may be effective
    when administered initially at 100 mg
    orally one to three times per day and increased
    by 300 mg/d as needed. Clonazepam, phenytoin,
    and carbamazepine are other alternatives.
    The greatest concern with antiepileptic agents
    is their propensity to disrupt balance and to
    interfere with vitamin D metabolism.
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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding opioid
    use in the geriatric patient?
    (A) Use of long-acting opioids may facilitate
    tolerance and lead to higher opioid
    dosage requirements for adequate pain
    control
    (B) μ-Receptor antagonists are less desirable
    in the elderly
    (C) Meperidine is an excellent choice alone
    or in combination with adjuvant medications
    for intractable pain
    (D) Moderate to severe pain responds well
    to agonists-antagonists agents
    (E) The transdermal route of fentanyl
    should be used as the first choice in the
    elderly, in order to increase compliance
    with the treatment
A
  1. (B)
    A. Use of short-acting opioids (not long-acting
    opioids) may facilitate tolerance and lead
    to higher opioid dosage requirements for
    adequate pain control.
    B. Opioids that are antagonistic to the μ-
    receptor are less desirable, given the high
    prevalence of unrecognized and untreated
    depression in seniors who can benefit from
    the euphoric component that occurs with
    binding to the μ-receptor.
    C. Meperidine has been associated with a host
    of adverse events in seniors and should be
    avoided either alone or in combination with
    a product such as hydroxyzine, which is
    anticholinergic and can be associated with
    orthostatic hypotension and confusion.
    D. There is no role for the geriatric patient for
    agonist-antagonists.
    E. Transdermal fentanyl patch may be useful
    when oral medications cannot be administered
    and subcutaneous and intrathecal
    routes are too cumbersome. In the older
    patient, these patches should be carefully
    considered before using as a first-line
    agent because age-related changes in body
    temperature and subcutaneous fat may
    cause fluctuations in absorption.
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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the elderly
    and pain?
    (A) Incidence of chronic pain in the
    community-dwelling elderly is the same
    as in nursing home residents
    (B) The prevalence of pain in patients older
    than 60 years of age is twice the incidence
    of those younger than 60 years of age
    (C) The geriatric population in the United
    States consumes more than 50% of all
    prescription drugs
    (D) The elderly often report pain differently
    from other patients because of
    decreased pain threshold
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B)
    A. Of the community-dwelling elderly, 25% to
    50% suffer from chronic pain. Of nursing
    home residents, 45% to 80% have chronic
    pain.
    B. The prevalence of pain is twofold higher in
    those older than 60 years (250 per 1000)
    compared with those younger than 60 years
    (125 per 1000).
    C. Older Americans make up approximately
    13% of the US population, yet consume
    30% of all prescription drugs (including
    pain medications) and about 50% of all
    over-the-counter medications purchased.
    D. The elderly often report pain very differently
    from the younger people suffering
    from pain and are more stoic, consequently
    underreporting their pain.
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8
Q
770. When referring to pharmacokinetics in the elderly,
which of the following variables is altered
in the elderly?
(A) Volume of distribution (Vd)
(B) Clearance of drugs (Cl)
(C) Elimination half-life (t1/2 β)
(D) Receptor binding affinity
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (E)
    A. Vd is a function of drug protein binding
    and its lipid solubility. Vd is altered significantly
    in the elderly, in that the lipid content
    increases from 14% to 30%, with a
    decrease in the lean body mass between
    ages 25 and 75 years. As a result of the
    increased lipid content in older people,
    lipid-soluble drugs (opioids, benzodiazepines,
    barbiturates) can therefore have
    dramatically altered elimination t1/2 in this
    patient population.
    B. The clearance of drugs from the body (Cl) is
    the rate at which drugs are removed from
    the blood (ie, mL/min/m2). This elimination
    of drugs usually occurs in the liver and
    kidneys, but lungs and other organs may
    also contribute. In general, most drugs
    undergo somewhat slower biotransformation
    and demonstrate prolonged clinical
    effects if they require hepatic or renal
    degradation.
    C. Aging adversely affects the elimination t1/2
    of drugs.
    D. Receptor-binding affinity is a pharmacodynamic
    variable.
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9
Q
771. Which of the following is true regarding pharmacodynamics
in the elderly?
(A) Pharmacodynamic changes in the elderly
are closely associated with agerelated
decline in central nervous
system (CNS) function
(B) Decreased sensitivity to benzodiazepines
(C) Increased sensitivity to β-blockers
(D) Decreased sensitivity to opioids
(E) When compared to the young adult,
there are no changes in pharmacodynamics
in the elderly
A
  1. (A) Pharmacodynamic principles describe the
    responsiveness of cell receptors at the effector
    site. In general, the elderly usually have
    increased sensitivity to centrally acting drugs
    (ie, benzodiazepines and opioids), whereas the
    adrenergic and cholinergic autonomic nervous
    systems generally have decreased sensitivity
    to receptor-specific drugs (ie, β-blockers). Pharmacodynamic changes in the elderly are
    closely associated with age-related decline in
    CNS function.
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10
Q
772. Which of the following includes factors with
clear associations contributing to poor compliance
in the elderly?
(A) Race
(B) Religious beliefs
(C) Physician-patient communication
(D) Only A and C are correct
(E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (D) The rate of compliance with long-term
    medication regimens is approximately 50%
    across most age groups. Many reasons have
    been cited for this low rate, but the major factor
    predicting compliance is because of simply the
    total number of different medications taken;
    the more the medications, the worse the compliance.
    Other factors with clear associations
    contributing to poor compliance in the elderly
    include race, drug and dosage form, cost, insurance
    coverage, and physician-patient communication.
    Alternatively, inconsistent findings
    regarding compliance and the following factors
    have also been noted: age, sex, comorbidity,
    socioeconomic status, living arrangement,
    number of physician visits, and knowledge,
    attitudes, and beliefs about one’s health.
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11
Q
  1. An 82-year-old male suffers from low back pain
    caused by facet arthropathy. His pain has been
    well under control with weak opioids for several
    years. Over the last year pain has increased in
    severity and current pain medications, although
    still make him slightly drowsy, do not provide
    adequate pain relief. The next step in the management
    of this patient’s pain should be
    (A) switching to strong opioids
    (B) diagnostic lumbar facet blocks
    (C) radiofrequency lesions to the lumbar
    medial branches
    (D) using a combination of two different
    weak opioids
    (E) intrathecal opioids
A
  1. (B) In the elderly, if weak opioids are not efficacious
    in attenuating pain intensity, an
    analysis of the risk to benefit ratio would recommend
    that therapeutic nerve blocks or lowrisk
    neuroablative pain procedures should be
    employed prior to strong opioids. For example,
    a geriatric patient with severe lower back pain
    resulting from facet arthropathy might significantly
    benefit from a facet rhizotomy after a
    diagnostic nerve block with local anesthetic
    proves efficacious. In this case, the risk to benefit
    ratio is tilted toward minimally invasive
    pain procedures, as opposed to opioid therapy,
    since opioid therapy has the potential to impair
    both cognitive and functional status in addition
    to its many other known side effects.
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12
Q
  1. Chronic use of NSAIDs in the geriatric patient
    should be accompanied by
    (A) monitoring liver function test when
    appropriate
    (B) monitoring renal function
    (C) concomitant use of medications such as
    misoprostol or histamine-2 (H2)-blockers
    (D) occasional testing for occult blood in stool
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (E) Chronic use of NSAIDs in the elderly must
    be accompanied by vigilance in monitoring for
    the various side effects. This vigilance includes
    determining (when appropriate) liver function
    tests, hematocrit, renal function, and occult
    blood in stool. Long-term use should probably
    also include use of misoprostol, which can
    reduce the incidence of NSAID-induced
    ulcers; empirical data suggest that other drugs
    (H2-blockers, sucralfate, antacids, H+ pump
    blockers) may have similar effects.
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13
Q
  1. When opioid therapy is first begun in the geriatric
    patient which of the following should be
    considered?
    (A) It is desirable to use drugs with short
    half-life (t1/2)
    (B) Close monitoring of side effects should
    occur for the first three t1/2 while a therapeutic
    blood level is obtained
    (C) Meperidine would be a better choice as
    an initial opioid than hydromorphone
    (D) Methadone is an excellent choice owing
    to its t1/2
    (E) If pain control with minimal side effects
    has been established with a short-acting
    opioid, it is never recommended to
    switch to a controlled-release formulation
    of the opioid
A
  1. (A) When opioid therapy is first begun, it is
    desirable to use drugs with short t1/2 so that a
    therapeutic blood level of drug can be reached
    relatively quickly. It is during this initial trial of
    opioids that close monitoring for side effects
    must occur, especially during the first six t1/2
    while a therapeutic blood level of drug is being
    obtained. Consequently, drugs such as hydromorphone
    and oxycodone, which have minimal
    active metabolites and relatively short t1/2
    (ie, 2-3 hours), are more desirable than drugs
    with variable t1/2, such as methadone (ie, 12-
    190 hours) or meperidine with its accumulation
    of metabolites toxic to both the kidneys and
    the CNS.
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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important goal
    for the elderly patient undergoing physical
    therapy for pain management?
    (A) Obtaining a gainful employment
    (B) Live a more independent life with
    enhanced dignity
    (C) Improve sleeping pattern
    (D) Gain back the physical skills they had as
    a young adult
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B) Rehabilitation is an important treatment
    modality for the older patient in pain. By
    decreasing pain and improving function, rehabilitation
    allows the patient to live a more independent
    life with enhanced dignity. This is in
    contrast to the rehabilitation goals of persons
    younger than 65 years of age in whom the primary
    emphasis is on obtaining gainful employment.
    Rehabilitation among chronic geriatric
    pain patients involves adapting, in an optimal
    way, to the loss of physical, psychologic, or
    social skills they once possessed prior to complaints
    of chronic pain.
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15
Q
  1. Prior to a chemical neurolysis to be performed
    in an 80-year-old male for trigeminal neuralgia,
    potential risks must be explained to the patient.
    Which of the following is a potential hazard?
    (A) Motor weakness
    (B) Neuritis
    (C) Deafferentation pain
    (D) Persistent pain at the site of injection
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Prior to a chemical neurolysis, patients must
    have had successful pain relief after a diagnostic
    local anesthetic block and no intolerable
    side effects. They must also be fully informed
    of the risks, benefits, and options available to
    them prior to consenting for the procedure.
    Many medicolegal issues have resulted from
    this technique because of its complications.
    Most of these complications result from the
    spread of the neurolytic solution to the surrounding
    anatomic structures. Frequent side
    effects (depending on location) can include persistent
    pain at the site of injection, paresthesias,
    hyperesthesia, systemic hypotension,
    bowel and bladder dysfunction, motor weakness,
    deafferentation pain, and neuritis.
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16
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the definition
    of recurrent abdominal pain in childhood
    and adolescence?
    (A) Abdominal pain resulting from gastrointestinal
    disease occurring on at
    least three occasions over a 3-month
    period
    (B) Abdominal pain resulting from gastrointestinal
    disease, gynecologic conditions,
    or congenital anomalies, occurring
    on at least three occasions over a
    3-month period
    (C) Abdominal pain with no organic cause
    occurring on at least three occasions over
    a 3-month period that is severe enough
    to alter the child’s normal activity
    (D) Abdominal pain with an organic cause,
    such as metabolic disease, neurologic
    disorders, hematologic disease, gastrointestinal
    disease, gynecologic condition,
    or other, that occurs at least in three
    occasions over a 3-month period
    (E) Acute abdominal pain from intestinal,
    renal, and gynecologic disorders, which
    can be treated surgically
A
  1. (C)
    A. and B. The definition of recurrent abdominal
    pain in childhood excludes abdominal pain resulting from known medical conditions
    such as pain from neurologic disorders,
    metabolic disease (diabetes, porphyria,
    hyperparathyroidism), hematologic disease
    (sickle cell anemia), gastrointestinal disease,
    gynecologic conditions, chronic infection,
    and pain related to congenital anomalies
    C. The definition of recurrent abdominal pain
    in childhood and adolescence is pain with
    no organic cause occurring on at least three
    occasions over a 3-month period that is
    severe enough to alter the child’s normal
    activity.
    D. and E. The definition of recurrent abdominal
    pain in childhood excludes abdominal
    pain resulting from known medical conditions
    such as pain from neurologic disorders,
    metabolic disease (diabetes, porphyria,
    hyperparathyroidism), hematologic disease
    (sickle cell anemia), gastrointestinal disease,
    gynecologic conditions, chronic infection,
    and pain related to congenital anomalies. It
    also excludes acute pain from acute renal,
    intestinal, and gynecologic disorders, which
    can be treated surgically.
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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding
    migraine headaches in the pediatric population?
    (A) Incidence of migraine is higher in prepubertal
    children when compared to
    those who have reached puberty
    (B) In children with common migraine,
    there is unilateral localization of pain
    which is mostly preceded by an aura
    (C) Classic migraine usually present in children
    with an aura, followed by a
    bifrontal or bitemporal pain
    (D) Most children with common migraine
    present with abdominal pain
    (E) Ophthalmoplegic migraine is fairly
    common in children younger than
    4 years of age, and is usually accompanied
    by miosis
A
  1. (D)
    A. The incidence of migraine is about 3% to
    5% of prepubertal children. After puberty,
    the incidence of migraine increases notably,
    reaching 10% to 20% of children by age
    20 years.
    B. Common migraine is the type seen in children
    before puberty. Most recurrent childhood
    migraine is of this type. There is no
    aura before the headache and no unilateral
    focal localization of the pain. The pain is
    usually bifrontal or bitemporal.
    C. Classic migraine is different from common
    migraine; the former starts with a visual
    aura in 30% of children affected and a
    sensory, sensorimotor aura, or speech
    impairment in 10%. These auras are followed
    by severe, throbbing, hemicranial,
    well-localized headache.
    D. Migraine in children can be defined as
    recurrent headache accompanied by three
    of the following symptoms:
    • Recurrent abdominal pain with or without
    nausea or vomiting
    • Throbbing pain on one side of the cranium
    • Relief of the pain by rest
    • A visual, sensory, or motor aura
    • A family history of migraine
    About 70% of children with common
    migraine have abdominal pain.
    E. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is rare in children
    before 4 to 5 years of age, usually
    affects only one eye, and is often accompanied
    by mydriasis.
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18
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes chest
    pain during childhood?
    (A) Cardiac involvement is extremely rare;
    an electrocardiogram (ECG) is indicated
    but mainly for reassurance of the parents,
    since it will be normal in most cases
    (B) It is seen more often in children younger
    than 10 years of age
    (C) It is more common than abdominal pain
    or headaches
    (D) Costochondritis ranks second to cardiac
    involvement in being the most common
    cause of chest pain in this population
    (E) Muscle strain is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children
A
  1. (A)
    A. Identification of the origin of the pain and
    reassurance of the patient and family are
    often the most important elements of treatment
    provided that specific organic causes
    have been investigated. Since cardiac
    involvement is what worries the child and
    family most, it should be stressed that this
    cause is extremely rare. An ECG will be
    normal and is indicated only to reassure
    the parents.
    B. and C. Chest pain is relatively common in
    children. It ranks third in frequency after
    headache and abdominal pain and may be
    as common as limb pain. It is seen most
    often between 10 and 21 years of age.
    D. Costochondritis is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children. It often occurs
    after an upper respiratory infection, can
    radiate to the back, and can last from a few
    days to several months. The pain can be
    reproduced by palpating the painful area
    or by mobilizing the arm or shoulder.
    E. Costochondritis is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children. Trauma, muscle
    strain, chest wall syndrome, rib anomalies,
    and hyperventilation have been cited as
    other causes of the pain.
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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding sickle
    cell anemia in children?
    (A) Pain occurs when and where there is
    occlusion of small blood vessels by sickled
    erythrocytes, usually small bones of
    the extremities in smaller children and
    abdomen, chest, long bones, and lower
    back in older children
    (B) Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended
    for analgesia during the acute
    phase of a vasoocclusive crisis
    (C) Use of opioids is indicated in patients
    with severe pain
    (D) Painful crisis can be triggered by hypoxemia,
    cold, infection, and hypovolemia
    (E) In children with excruciating pain that
    does not respond to nonnarcotic analgesics,
    and inadequate treatment of the
    painful crisis can lead to drug-seeking
    behavior and profound psychosocial
    problems
A
  1. (B)
    A. Sickle cell anemia is the most common
    hemoglobinopathy in the United States. It
    occurs in 0.3% to 1.3% of the African
    American population. Pain occurs during
    vasoocclusive crisis, the frequency of which is unpredictable and ranges from less than
    one crisis a year to a crisis several times a
    year or several times a month. Pain occurs
    when and where there is occlusion of small
    blood vessels by sickled erythrocytes, usually
    small bones of the extremities in smaller
    children and abdomen, chest, long bones,
    and lower back in older children.
    B. Tricyclic antidepressants are not recommended
    for analgesia during the acute
    phase of a vasoocclusive crisis because they
    do not act quickly enough. They can, however,
    be useful for long-term use in patients
    who have frequent crises.
    C. and E. Although the use of narcotics can
    lead to complications such as respiratory
    depression as well as complications from
    atelectasis and focal pulmonary hypoxia,
    this issue alone should not preclude the use
    of potent analgesics for patients in severe
    pain. On the contrary, these children can
    have excruciating pain that does not
    respond to nonnarcotic analgesics, and inadequate
    treatment of the painful crisis can
    lead to drug-seeking behavior and profound
    psychosocial problems.
    D. The painful crisis can be triggered by
    hypoxemia, cold, infection, and hypovolemia
    and evolves in three phases:
  2. The prodromal phase occurs up to 2 days
    before the actual sickle crisis with paresthesias,
    numbness, and an increase in
    circulating sickle cells.
  3. The following phase or initial phase lasts
    1 to 2 days and includes pain, anorexia,
    and fear and anxiety.
  4. During the established phase, pain that
    lasts 3 to 7 days, inflammation, swelling,
    and leukocytosis are present.
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20
Q
782. Which of the following is the best choice for
management of the painful hemarthroses in
children suffering from hemophilia?
(A) Aspirin
(B) Pentazocine
(C) Cortisone
(D) Ibuprofen
(E) Acetaminophen
A
  1. (E)
    A. Analgesic therapy is an important part of
    the management of hemophilia, although
    it is secondary to replacement therapy.
    Aspirin and drugs that inhibit platelet
    function should be avoided, but acetaminophen,
    codeine, hydromorphone, and
    methadone can be given orally.
    B. Pentazocine is never indicated in patients
    with painful hemarthroses secondary to
    hemophilia because it causes dysphoria.
    C. and D. Steroids and NSAIDs can be used to
    relieve pain from arthritis, but caution
    should be exercised when these drugs are
    used because they inhibit platelet activity.
    E. Acetaminophen, codeine, hydromorphone,
    and methadone can be given orally for the
    treatment of painful hemarthroses in these
    patients.
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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding complex
    regional pain syndrome type I (CRPS I) in
    children?
    (A) The affected area is usually the upper
    limb as opposed to the lower limb in
    adults
    (B) Physical therapy is withheld for cases
    that do not respond to oral medication
    and/or sympathetic blocks in the first
    place
    (C) Multidisciplinary treatment combining
    transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
    (TENS), physical therapy, psychotherapy
    using behavior modification
    techniques, and oral medications is
    effective in most children
    (D) Typical children with CRPS I or CRPS II
    show a profile of being intelligent,
    driven overachievers who are involved
    in very competitive activities and who
    often react to the loss of this activity
    with depression
    (E) Sympathetic blocks are indicated to permit
    more vigorous physical therapy if
    pain prevents the start of these therapies
A
  1. (B)
    A. CRPS I has been reported in children as
    young as 3 years. It is characterized by
    severe pain, often burning in quality, persisting
    much longer than would be
    expected after the initial injury. The
    affected area, more often an upper limb
    than a lower limb in children (most common
    areas are hand or wrist, elbow, shoulder,
    or hip), is intermittently swollen, mottled,
    and alternately red or cyanotic.
    B. Physical therapy is probably the most
    important intervention and combines cautious
    manipulation of the affected limb,
    hot and cold therapy, whirlpool massages,
    and a program of intense active exercise.
    C. Multidisciplinary treatment combining
    TENS, physical therapy, psychotherapy
    using behavior modification techniques,
    and oral medications is effective in most
    children. The TENS unit is worn for a few
    hours every day or for 1 to 2 hours before
    going out for some activity or to school.
    TENS brings some degree of pain relief to
    many patients and produces spectacular
    results in a few. Behavior modification is
    an important part of the treatment and
    should be instituted from the beginning of
    the therapeutic plan. Patients are taught
    relaxation techniques and are given relaxation
    tapes to use at home. An NSAID and an antidepressant at a low analgesic dose
    are often given, as is an anticonvulsant.
    D. Sometimes a particular psychologic profile
    can be seen in children with CRPS I or
    CRPS II. The children are intelligent, driven
    overachievers who are involved (usually with success) in very competitive activities
    and who often react to the loss of this activity
    with depression. Other psychologic
    issues such as family discord or divorce and
    enmeshment with one parent are found.
    School attendance is often an issue.
    E. In patients with CRPS, if pain or dysfunction
    prevents the start of physiotherapy or
    persists despite these treatments, sympathetic
    blocks such as lumbar, stellate ganglion,
    or epidural with dilute solutions of
    local anesthetics are indicated. The goals of
    the sympathetic blockade are to
  2. Ascertain the sympathetic origin of the
    disorder.
  3. Break the vicious circle of sympathetically
    maintained pain.
  4. Permit more vigorous physical therapy.
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22
Q
784. Which of the following is true regarding sport
injuries in the pediatric patient?
(A) The injuries encountered are overuse
injuries similar to those found in the
adult recreational athlete who does not
train correctly, usually doing too much
in too short a time
(B) Growth is not an important factor in
these injuries
(C) Growth spurts in children cause tendon
and muscle tightness, both of which
minimize the chances of a sport injury
(D) Treatment options such as oral acetaminophen,
NSAIDs and aspirin do not
provide adequate pain relief and should
not be used in these cases
(E) Sport injuries are responsible for less
than 10% of the cases of low back pain
in children
A
  1. (A)
    A. The sports injuries encountered in children
    are overuse injuries similar to those found
    in the adult recreational athlete who does
    not train correctly, usually doing too much
    in too short a time. The causes of these
    injuries also include muscle-tendon imbalance,
    anatomical malalignment, inadequate
    footwear, and growth.
    B. and C. Growth is an important factor in
    sports injuries for two reasons:
  2. Growth cartilage is less resistant to
    injury than the adult-type cartilage.
  3. Growth spurts in children cause tendon
    and muscle tightness, leading to pain
    and sometimes stress fracture. These
    fractures are most often seen in the tibia
    or the fibula.
    D. Treatment consists of immobilization of
    fractures, straight leg strengthening exercises
    with use of leg braces in cases of knee
    injuries, rest, and use of orthotic footwear.
    NSAIDs and minor pain medicine, such as
    aspirin and acetaminophen, are useful
    when pain is present. These injuries usually
    respond well to these conservative measures
    but are best avoided through primary
    prevention, because it is recognized that
    they are bound to happen in young children
    involved in sports.
    E. Low back pain is rare in children and shares
    neither the etiology nor the poor prognosis
    with the adult form. Most cases of low back
    pain in children and adolescents are sportsrelated
    and occur during the growth spurt
    phase. A tendency for lordosis of the spine
    to develop appears at that time. With overuse,
    low back pain may develop.
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23
Q
785. Which of the following statements is false
regarding pediatric cancer pain?
(A) Phantom sensations and phantom limb
pain are common among children following
amputation for cancer in an
extremity
(B) Phantom pain in children tends to
increase with time
(C) Some patients have chronic lower
extremity pain caused by avascular
necrosis of multiple joints
(D) An example of a neuropathic pain syndrome
in pediatric cancer patients is
postherpetic neuralgia
(E) Children with cancer pain often present
with longstanding myofascial pain
A
  1. (B)
    A. and B. Phantom sensations and phantom
    limb pain are common among children following
    amputation for cancer in an extremity.
    Phantom pain in children tends to
    decrease with time. Preamputation pain in
    the diseased extremity may be a predictor
    for subsequent phantom pain.
    C., D., and E. Long-term survivors of childhood
    cancer occasionally experience chronic pain.
    Neuropathic pains include peripheral neuralgias
    of the lower extremity, phantom limb
    pain, postherpetic neuralgia, and central
    pain after spinal cord tumor resection. Some
    patients have chronic lower extremity pain
    caused by a mechanical problem with an
    internal prosthesis or a failure of bony union
    or avascular necrosis of multiple joints.
    Others have long-standing myofascial pains
    and chronic abdominal pain of uncertain etiology.
    Some patients treated with shunts for
    brain tumors have recurrent headaches that
    appear unrelated to intracranial pressure or
    changes in shunt functioning.
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24
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false
    regarding interventional approaches for pediatric
    cancer pain management?
    (A) In the pediatric cancer population, many
    children and parents are reluctant to
    consider procedures with the potential
    for irreversible loss of somatic function
    (B) Dose requirements vary dramatically for
    spinal infusions in children, and they
    require individualized attention
    (C) For pediatric spinal infusions, the
    process of converting from systemic to
    spinal drug is often quite unpredictable,
    with the potential for either oversedation
    or withdrawal symptoms
    (D) As opposed to the adult population,
    celiac plexus blockade barely produces
    pain relief for children with severe pain
    caused by massively enlarged upper
    abdominal viscera owing to tumor
    (E) In pediatric patients, it is recommended
    to place catheters while patients are
    under general anesthesia or deep sedation,
    not awake
A
  1. (D)
    A. and D. As with adults, celiac plexus blockade
    can provide excellent pain relief for
    children with severe pain caused by massively
    enlarged upper abdominal viscera
    owing to a tumor. Many children and
    parents are reluctant to consider procedures
    with the potential for irreversible loss
    of somatic function. Decompressive operations
    on the spine can in occasional cases
    produce dramatic relief of pain.
    B., C., and E. Spinal infusions can provide excellent
    analgesia in refractory cases, but they
    require individualized attention and should
    not be undertaken by inexperienced practitioners
    without guidance. Dose requirements
    vary dramatically, and the process of
    converting from systemic to spinal drug is
    often quite unpredictable, with the potential
    for either oversedation or withdrawal symptoms.
    If children with spinal infusions are to
    be treated at home, it is essential to have
    resources available to manage new symptoms,
    such as terminal dyspnea and air
    hunger. In pediatric patients, it is recommended
    to place catheters while patients are
    under general anesthesia or deep sedation,
    not awake.
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787. In the immediate postoperative period, why are parenteral pain medications best given by continuous infusion rather than intermittent intravenous (IV)/intramuscular (IM) boluses? (A) Opioid infusions do not cause nausea or vomiting (B) Continuous infusions are associated with higher serum concentrations of the drug (C) Opioid infusions are not associated with somnolence or respiratory depression, as opposed to intermittent opioid dosing (D) No need of monitoring pediatric patients with continuous opioid infusions as opposed to constant monitoring in patients with intermittent boluses (E) Boluses are associated with frequent periods of inadequate pain relief
787. (E) A., B., C., and D. The most common side effects found with narcotic administration are nausea or vomiting and pruritus. The former usually respond to perphenazine or prochlorperazine and the latter to diphenhydramine or promethazine. Because somnolence and respiratory depression can also occur, patients receiving infusions of narcotics require close attention, especially when the pain is so well-controlled that the pain stimulus of respiration is no longer present. E. Drugs can be given as boluses or continuous infusions. Boluses are easy to administer and provide rapid pain relief; however, they have the disadvantage of providing short periods of analgesia sometimes associated with side effects when serum drug concentration peaks, followed by inadequate pain relief while the level decreases until the next injection. Continuous infusions, conversely, avoid this roller coaster of pain relief followed by pain and provide continuous analgesia with low plasma levels of drugs even in newborns and infants.
26
``` 788. Which of the following is an acceptable alternative for postoperative pain management in children when able to tolerate the oral route? (A) Codeine (B) Acetaminophen (C) Methadone (D) Immediate-release morphine (E) All of the above ```
788. (E) Postoperatively, when the oral route can again be used, methadone can be prescribed at a dose one- to twofold that of the IV route. Oral morphine sulfate can also provide adequate pain relief for moderate to severe pain. Codeine can be given orally alone or in combination with acetaminophen or aspirin for moderate pain; mild pain is relieved by acetaminophen alone in most cases. In any case, the most important aspect of postoperative pain control is to assess pain repeatedly with simple pain and behavior scales and to adapt pain medication to the pain scores provided by these scales and physiological findings.
27
``` 789. Which of the following is true regarding pediatric regional anesthesia? (A) Epidural catheters placed in the thoracic or lumbar spine should not be left in place for more than 2 days because of concerns about infection, displacement, or discomfort (B) Caudal epidural catheters are contraindicated for postoperative pain management in small children because of the high incidence of infection (C) Spinal anesthesia has had limited indications in children and adolescents because of the incidence of postspinal headache in this age group (D) In newborns and infants, spinal anesthesia provides anesthesia with a profound motor block for a prolonged period of time, making it a useful alternative for postoperative pain relief (E) All of the above ```
789. (C) A. and B. These catheters can be left in place for as long as a week or more without concerns about infection, displacement, or discomfort. An alternate approach to the epidural space is catheter placement via the caudal route, but its proximity to the anus raises concern about puncture site infection in the postoperative period, especially in small children. C. and D. Spinal anesthesia has had limited indications in children and adolescents because of the incidence of postspinal headache in this age group. In newborns and infants, it provides anesthesia with a profound motor block for a short time (45- 100 minutes) and thus cannot be used for postoperative pain relief. It is indicated in infants born prematurely and are less than 45 to 60 weeks’ postconceptual age in whom general anesthesia and sedation have been shown to induce postoperative apnea.
28
790. In pediatric patients taking high doses of opioids, it is advised that an opioid contract should be signed by all parties involved. Which of the following should be included in this contract? (A) Use of multiple prescriptions for all pain-related medications (B) Use of as many pharmacies as possible (C) A statement specifying that there is no need for monitoring compliance of treatment since this does not apply to pediatric patients (D) Need for random urine or serum medication levels screening, regardless that the patient is a child (E) None of the above
790. (D) Opioid contracts are used in many adult practices, but their use is not common in pediatrics. The opioid contract clearly defines the expectations and responsibilities of the patient, parent, and medical caregiver. Guidelines from the Medical Society of Virginia’s special Pain Management Subcommittee have been employed by many pain physicians throughout the United States. Written documentation of both physician and patient responsibilities must include 1. Risks and complications associated with treatment using opioids 2. Use of a single prescriber for all painrelated medications 3. Use of a single pharmacy, if possible 4. Monitoring compliance of treatment a. Urine or serum medication levels screening (including checks for nonprescribed medications and substances) when requested b Number and frequency of all prescription refills c. Reasons for which opioid therapy may be discontinued
29
791. Which of the following includes common misconceptions regarding pediatric pain? (A) It appears that adults are more likely to be believed than children when they complain of pain or discomfort (B) Neonates and young children do not display learned pain behavior and therefore do not express pain in an adult fashion (C) Silence is interpreted as a sign of being comfortable (D) Immobility without facial grimace or focus on the pain source is interpreted as absence of pain (E) All of the above
791. (E) There are several distinctions between pediatric pain concerns and adult pain concerns. Misconceptions about a child’s inability to feel pain persists. The belief that children “tolerate pain well” still prevails. Children continue to receive fewer analgesics than adults do in comparable settings. Adults indirectly require that children prove their pain to merit the administration of pain interventions. If a child does not act as if he or she is experiencing severe pain, the child is less likely to receive analgesic care. It appears that adults are more likely than children to be believed when they complain of pain or discomfort. Studies show that for similar surgeries in adult and pediatric patients, the adults receive more doses of analgesic medications. Neonates and young children do not display learned pain behavior and therefore do not express pain in an adult fashion. Adult caregivers often miss pain cues that are developmentally appropriate. Silence is interpreted as a sign of being comfortable. Similarly, immobility without facial grimace or focus on the pain source is interpreted as absence of pain. Yet, on direct questioning about the existence of pain, many children do affirm that they are experiencing pain. Children may lie quietly and enjoy television; however, they do not want to move because of fear of increased pain.
30
792. Differences between opioid abuse and opioid physical dependence include (A) physical dependence involves loss of control and compulsive use regardless of the adverse consequences (B) opioid abuse is characterized by presence of withdrawal symptoms during abstinence (C) physical dependence is a physiologic state characterized by the presence of withdrawal symptoms during abstinence (D) physical dependence and addiction are synonymous (E) patients presenting opioid abuse are not likely to develop addiction in the future
792. (C) The term “addiction” is familiar to medical and private sectors, but both factions often misuse the term as describing both physical and psychologic dependence. Addiction is a disease process involving the use of opioids wherein there is a loss of control, compulsive use, and continued use despite adverse social, physical, psychologic, occupational, or economic consequences. Physical dependence is a physiological state of adaptation to a specific opioid characterized by the emergence of a withdrawal syndrome during abstinence, which may be relieved totally or in part by readministration of the substance. Physical dependence is predictable sequelae of regular, legitimate opioid or benzodiazepine use and is not identical to addiction. The incidence of addiction in children receiving prescribed opioids is low. The present climate of drug-abuse prevention has, in part, emphasized the predatory nature of drug addiction and heightens fear in children and adults. More education is needed by lay people and health care professionals in distinguishing addiction from physical dependence. Patients who receive analgesics for a recognized pain complaint are not more likely to become addicted than the general population. The incidence of addiction in children receiving prescribed opioids is low.
31
793. The term “whiplash injury” that results in chronic neck pain describes the resultant injury caused by an abrupt (A) hyperflexion of the neck from a direct force (B) hyperextension of the neck from an indirect force (C) hyperflexion of the neck from an indirect force (D) hyperextension of the neck from a direct force (E) rotation of the neck from a direct force
793. (B) Neck injuries often are a result of motor vehicle accidents. Some studies have shown that up to 60% of patients injured in car accidents present to the hospital with neck pain. The term “whiplash” describes the resultant injury caused by an abrupt hyperextension of the neck from an indirect force.
32
794. After sustaining a rear-end collision in a car accident, a 25-year-old male patient complains of neck pain. Which of the following are the cervical structures involved in this whiplash injury? (A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle (B) Longus colli muscle (C) Scalene muscles (D) Only A and C are correct (E) A, B, and C are correct
794. (E) After a whiplash injury, symptoms may occur 12 to 24 hours later. This is because of the fact that muscular hemorrhage and edema may need to evolve prior to inciting a nociceptive response. The cervical flexors, specifically the sternocleidomastoid, scalene, and the longus colli undergo acute stretch reflex. Some fibers are torn.
33
``` 795. Which of the following is a prognostic indicator of chronic symptoms after sustaining a whiplash injury? (A) Use if a cervical collar for more than 12 weeks (B) Physical therapy restarted more than once (C) Numbness and pain in the upper extremity (D) Requirement of home traction (E) All of the above ```
795. (E) A substantial number of patients with whiplash have chronic symptoms. Prognostic indicators for chronic symptoms include numbness and pain in the upper extremity, use of a cervical collar for more than 12 weeks, requirement of home traction, physical therapy restarted more than once.
34
796. A32-year-old male sustained a blunt trauma to the left supraorbital area of his face. The patient manifests burning pain, occasional tingling, and intermittent stabbing. Which of the following is true about this patient’s pain? (A) This is a self-limiting condition that generally resolves spontaneously within several years (B) With trophic changes, edema, and redness, CRPS I should be suspected (C) Sympathetic blockade of the stellate ganglion may be effective (D) Amitriptyline may reduce pain (E) All of the above
796. (E) Facial pain may occur after trauma. Examples include bullet wounds, maxillofacial surgery, and dental procedures. Some patients manifest constant burning pain, occasionally with tingling and intermittent stabbing. With trophic changes, edema, and redness, CRPS I should be suspected. In patients with burning pain, sympathetic blockade of the stellate ganglion may be effective. Amitriptyline may reduce pain.
35
``` 797. Which of the following variables may improve significantly in a patient with multiple rib fractures and an epidural infusion of epidural bupivacaine? (A) Vital capacity (VC) (B) Hematocrit (C) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) (D) Platelet aggregation (E) Hemoglobin oxygen saturation ```
797. (A) Rib fracture pain may cause a decrease in ventilatory function and increase in incidence of pulmonary morbidity. It has been found that epidural analgesia is an independent predictor of decreased mortality and incidence of pulmonary complications. Significant improvements in VC and FEV1 (forced expiratory volume) occur in patients with rib fractures who receive thoracic epidural bupivacaine compared with those that receive lumbar epidural morphine. There are no changes in hematocrit, oxygen saturation, platelet aggregation, or expiratory reserve volume.
36
798. Flail chest because of multiple rib fractures may result in (A) changes in oxygenation, but not in ventilation status (B) mild pain that usually does not results in splinting or atelectasis (C) increase in shunt fraction (D) increase in ventilation and hypocarbia (E) shunt, but no ventilation and perfusion mismatch
798. (C) Trauma to the chest is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. The pathophysiologic sequelae of multiple rib fractures, especially with flail chest, are pain and hypoxia. Hypoxia results from the ventilation and perfusion mismatch in the underlying contused lung. Uncontrolled pain can result in splinting and muscle spasms, which lead to decreased ventilation and atelectasis. The compromise in pulmonary function causes hypoxemia, an increase in shunt fraction, or infection.
37
799. When sustaining trauma to the spine, which of the following statements regarding elements injured is correct? (A) Disc injuries are common in the thoracic spine (B) Vertebral end-plate fractures are common in the cervical spine (C) Injury to the thoracic facets is more common than to the cervical facets (D) Disc injuries are predominant in the cervical spine (E) The posterior elements of the vertebral fractures are never involved
799. (D) When comparing injuries in the thoracic and cervical spine areas after sustained trauma, it is observed that there are similar incidences of facet injuries in the upper thoracic spine and the cervical spine. By contrast, in the anterior elements, vertebral end-plate fracture and bone bruising are more common in the thoracic spine, whereas disc injuries predominate in the cervical spine. This raises the question whether interscapular pain is referred from the neck or arises locally. Investigations of pathology, to be correlated with the effect of local anesthetic blocks, should enable the clinician to distinguish the true pain source.
38
800. Which of the following is true regarding the management of pain in the traumatic injury pain patients? (A) Obtaining hemodynamic stability is one of the main goals (B) It is important to sustain sympathetic hyperactivity (C) Uncontrolled pain may contribute to the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (D) When pain is adequately treated, these patients will always present with impairment of consciousness (E) None of the above
800. (C) Hemodynamic stability, minimal impairment of the patient’s level of consciousness and responsiveness, and adequate analgesia to reduce sympathetic hyperactivity and to allow patient rehabilitation efforts are the primary goals in the management of the patient with pain after traumatic injury. Uncontrolled pain following traumatic injury compounds the anxiety and posttraumatic sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity. Uncontrolled pain following traumatic injury has been associated with the development of posttraumatic stress disorder.
39
801. Techniques in the management of pain in patients with spinal cord injury (SCI) include (A) opioid analgesics via IV patientcontrolled analgesia (PCA) (B) bedside placement of epidural catheters for continuous infusion (C) bedside placement of intrathecal catheters for continuous infusion (D) no need for oral adjuvant medications besides opioids (E) all of the above
801. (A) Patients with spine injury are usually managed with systemic analgesic techniques because of the risk of SCI or obscuring ongoing neurologic assessment with epidural analgesic techniques. Systemic opioid analgesic techniques, such as intravenous PCA, allow patient titration of analgesia and ongoing neurologic evaluation. Adjuvant analgesics, such as acetaminophen, may improve pain relief while reducing opioid requirements and opioidrelated side effects. Intraoperative administration of epidural or intrathecal opioid analgesics with epidural catheter placement and maintenance of continuous postoperative epidural opioid analgesia is an excellent technique for postsurgical analgesia. The percutaneous exit site for the epidural catheter can be made some distance lateral to the surgical incision, minimizing the effects on wound healing or infection.
40
802. Which of the following is a good alternative for pain control in the patient with post–burn injury pain? (A) Scheduled around-the-clock opioid boluses (B) Continuous IV infusion of hydromorphone (C) Transdermal fentanyl (D) Intramuscular morphine given only as needed (E) None of the above
802. (B) Post–burn injury pain has two primary components: a relatively constant background pain and an intermittent procedure-related pain. Continuous IV infusion of opioid analgesics is an effective method of managing the background pain component. Morphine and fentanyl have been extensively used in this setting although rapid escalation of opioid dose requirement and hemodynamic instability are not uncommonly seen. Hydromorphone is another alternative. A continuous IV titration paradigm for methadone has been described which produces effective and stable analgesia with minimal hemodynamic effects. Patients receive an IV loading dose by IV infusion of methadone over an initial period of 2 hours at 0.1 mg/kg/h. The infusion is terminated prior to the end of the initial 2-hour period if the patient develops signs of excessive somnolence or respiratory depression. This initial loading dose infusion is followed by a maintenance infusion of 0.01 mg/kg/h of methadone. Transdermal preparations are not appropriate.
41
803. In the patient with trauma injuries involving an extremity it is important to monitor for compartment syndrome. When using a regional technique for pain control, methods that may help monitoring compartment syndrome include (A) use of epidural infusion containing local anesthetics at doses where motor block is present (B) continuous plexus catheter using high concentration of local anesthetics to avoid incidental pain with movement (C) continuous peripheral nerve catheter using low-dose local anesthetic (D) continuous IV local anesthetic infusion (E) all of the above
803. (C) Trauma patients with extremity injuries can be managed with a variety of techniques, including peripheral neural blockade, epidural analgesia, and systemic opioid analgesia. Adjuvant analgesics, such as acetaminophen and NSAIDs, are particularly effective in providing supplemental analgesia for orthopedic injuries, reducing opioid requirements and opioid-related side effects. Brachial plexus or peripheral neural blockade is effective for upper extremity injuries, whereas lumbar plexus or sciatic or femoral neural blockade techniques are effective for many lower extremity injuries. Continuous analgesia can be maintained with continuous plexus or peripheral nerve catheter techniques or continuous epidural analgesia. Monitoring for compartment syndrome may be necessary in some patients with extremity trauma, although low concentrations of local anesthetics (bupivacaine 0.125% or ropivacaine 0.2%) and opioids allow continued monitoring of compartment pressures and subjective changes in pain report in most patients. Intermittent interruption in continuous local anesthetic infusions may provide a greater margin of safety in patients at high risk for development of compartment syndrome.
42
804. In the trauma patient with chest injury, epidural analgesia has been proven to provide excellent pain control and to (A) avoid endotracheal intubation is some cases (B) shorten the stay at the intensive care unit (ICU) (C) decrease ventilator dependence (D) shorten hospital stay (E) all of the above
804. (E) Effective analgesia is especially important in the postinjury rehabilitation of the patient with a chest injury such as rib fractures, flail chest, sternal fractures, or thoracostomy drainage tubes because of the risk of chest wall splinting and inadequate lung expansion and clearance of pulmonary secretions secondary to pain. Several studies have demonstrated a significant benefit in avoidance of endotracheal intubation, earlier postinjury extubation, decreased ventilator dependence, shorter stay in the ICU, shorter hospital stay, and improved postinjury rehabilitation with the use of continuous epidural analgesia with local anesthetic and opioid or intercostal neural blockade for pain management following chest injury.
43
``` 805. Types of pain commonly treated after major abdominal surgery for patients with a wellknown history SCI are (A) musculoskeletal pain (B) visceral pain (C) at-level neuropathic pain (D) below-level neuropathic pain (E) all of the above ```
805. (E) A. Most patients who sustain an injury to the spinal cord have also received massive trauma to the vertebral column and its supporting structures, and will have acute nociceptive pain arising from damage to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, intervertebral discs, and facet joints. Some acute musculoskeletal pain is also related to structural spinal damage and instability without necessarily having spinal cord damage. B. Pathology in visceral structures, such as urinary tract infections, bowel impaction, and renal calculi, will generally give rise to nociceptive pain, although the level of the injury will affect the quality of the pain. Therefore paraplegic patients may experience visceral pain that is identical to that in patients who have no spinal cord damage. However, tetraplegic patients may experience more vague generalized symptoms of unpleasantness that are difficult to interpret. C. The diagnosis of neuropathic pain is largely based on descriptors (sharp, shooting, electric, burning, and stabbing), and the pain is located in a region of sensory disturbance. Neuropathic at-level pain refers to pain with these features, and present in a segmental or dermatomal pattern within two segments above or below the level of injury. This type of pain is also referred to as segmental, transitional zone, border zone, end zone, and girdle zone pain, names that reflect its characteristic location in the dermatomes close to the level of injury. It is often associated with allodynia or hyperesthesia of the affected dermatomes. D. This type of pain, which is also referred to as central dysesthesia syndrome, central pain, phantom pain, or deafferentation pain, presents with spontaneous and/or evoked pain that is present often diffusely caudal to the level of SCI. It is characterized by sensations of burning, aching, stabbing, or electric shocks, often with hyperalgesia and it often develops sometime after the initial injury. It is constant but may fluctuate with mood, activity, infections, or other factors, and is not related to position or activity. Sudden noises or jarring movements may trigger this type of pain. Differences in the nature of below-level neuropathic pain may be apparent between those with complete and incomplete lesions. Both complete and partial injuries may be associated with the diffuse, burning pain that appears to be associated with spinothalamic tract damage. However, incomplete injuries are more likely to have an allodynia component because of sparing of tracts conveying touch sensations.
44
806. Characteristics of below-level neuropathic pain in patients with SCI include (A) spontaneous pain cephalad to the level of SCI (B) not related to position or activity (C) only present in patients with partial injuries to the spinal cord (D) associated to sensation of dull ache (E) intermittent, but never constant
806. (B)
45
``` 807. Which of the following medications have proven to be useful in the treatment of neuropathic pain of patients with SCI? (A) IV propofol infusion (B) IV ketamine infusion (C) Intrathecal clonidine (D) Only A and C are correct (E) A, B, and C are correct ```
807. (E) A. IV administration of propofol, a GABAA receptor agonist, has been reported to be more effective than placebo in relieving neuropathic SCI pain. B. The efficacy of IV ketamine infusion in the management of neuropathic SCI pain has been evaluated. IV infusion of ketamine (bolus 60 μg followed by 6 μg/kg/min) results in a significant reduction in the evoked and spontaneous neuropathic pains associated with SCI. C. Clonidine administered spinally either alone or in combination with morphine may also be effective for the control of neuropathic SCI pain. Clonidine has been found to be more effective than morphine for pain relief in patients with SCI. Combinations of clonidine with other agents may also be effective.
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808. Drug exposure prior to organogenesis (before the fourth menstrual week) usually results in (A) an all-or-none effect; either the embryo does not survive, or it develops without abnormalities (B) single-organ abnormalities (C) multiple-organ abnormalities (D) developmental syndromes (E) intrauterine growth retardation
808. (A) Drug exposure before organogenesis (before the fourth menstrual week) usually causes an all-or-none effect; either the embryo does not survive, or it develops without abnormalities. Drug effects later in pregnancy typically lead to single- or multiple-organ involvement, developmental syndromes, or intrauterine growth retardation
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809. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) have developed a five-category labeling system for all approved drugs in the United States. Which if the following is not a category in the mentioned system? (A) Category A: controlled human studies indicate no apparent risk to fetus. The possibility of harm to the fetus seems remote (eg, multivitamins) (B) Category B: Animal studies do not indicate a fetal risk or animal studies do indicate a teratogenic risk, but well-controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk (eg, acetaminophen, caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone) (C) Category C: studies indicate teratogenic or embryocidal risk in animals, but no controlled studies have been done in women or there are no controlled studies in animals or humans (eg, aspirin, ketorolac, codeine, gabapentin) (D) Category D: there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances, the benefits of the drug may outweigh the risks involved (eg, amitriptyline, imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital, phenytoin) (E) Category E: there is positive evidence of significant fetal risk, and the risk clearly outweighs any possible benefit (eg, ergotamine)
809. (E) A. The FDA has developed a five-category labeling system for all approved drugs in the United States. This labeling system rates the potential risk for teratogenic or embryotoxic effects, according to available scientific and clinical evidence. Category A: controlled human studies indicate no apparent risk to fetus. The possibility of harm to the fetus seems remote (eg, multivitamins). B. Category B: animal studies do not indicate a fetal risk or animal studies do indicate a teratogenic risk, but well-controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk (eg, acetaminophen, butorphanol, nalbuphine, caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone, meperidine, morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone, ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin, metoprolol, paroxetine, fluoxetine, and prednisolone). C. Category C: studies indicate teratogenic or embryocidal risk in animals, but no controlled studies have been done in women or there are no controlled studies in animals or humans. (eg, aspirin, ketorolac, codeine, propoxyphene, gabapentin, lidocaine, mexiletine, nifedipine, propranolol, sumatriptan). D. Category D: there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances, the benefits of the drug may outweigh the risks involved (eg, amitriptyline, imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital, phenytoin, valproic acid). E. Category E is not part of the FDA labeling system. Category X is part of the FDA labeling system and includes drugs were there is positive evidence of significant fetal risk, and the risk clearly outweighs any possible benefit (eg, ergotamine).
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``` 810. Acetaminophen falls in which of the following FDA labeling categories regarding risk of teratogenic or embryotoxic effects? (A) Category A (B) Category B (C) Category C (D) Category D (E) Category X ```
810. (B) A. The FDA has developed a five-category labeling system for all approved drugs in the United States. This labeling system rates the potential risk for teratogenic or embryotoxic effects, according to available scientific and clinical evidence. Category A: Controlled human studies indicate no apparent risk to fetus. The possibility of harm to the fetus seems remote (eg, multivitamins). B. Category B Animal studies do not indicate a fetal risk or animal studies do indicate a teratogenic risk, but well-controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk. (eg, acetaminophen, butorphanol, nalbuphine, caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone, meperidine, morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone, ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin, metoprolol, paroxetine, fluoxetine, prednisolone). C. Category C: studies indicate teratogenic or embryocidal risk in animals, but no controlled studies have been done in women or there are no controlled studies in animals or humans. (eg, aspirin, ketorolac, codeine, propoxyphene, gabapentin, lidocaine, mexiletine, nifedipine, propranolol, sumatriptan). D. Category D: there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances, the benefits of the drug may outweigh the risks involved. (eg, amitriptyline, imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital, phenytoin, valproic acid). E. Category X is part of the FDA labeling system and includes drugs were there is positive evidence of significant fetal risk, and the risk clearly outweighs any possible benefit. (eg, ergotamine).
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``` 811. During pregnancy, NSAIDs may (A) accelerate the onset of labor (B) increase amniotic fluid volume (C) decrease the newborn’s risk for pulmonary hypertension (D) increase the risk of renal injury (E) all of the above ```
811. (D) A. Aspirin remains the prototypical NSAID and is the most thoroughly studied of this class of medications. Prostaglandins appear to trigger labor, and the aspirin-induced inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis may result in prolonged gestation and protracted labor. B. and D. The use of ibuprofen during pregnancy may result in reversible oligohydramnios (reflecting diminished fetal urine output) and mild constriction of the fetal ductus arteriosus. Similarly, no data exist to support any association between naproxen administration and congenital defects. Because it shares the renal and vascular effects of ibuprofen, naproxen should be considered to have the potential to diminish ductus arteriosus diameter and to cause oligohydramnios. C. Circulating prostaglandins modulate the patency of the fetal ductus arteriosus. NSAIDs have been used therapeutically in neonates with persistent fetal circulation to induce closure of the ductus arteriosus via inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. Patency of the ductus arteriosus in utero is essential for normal fetal circulation. Indomethacin has shown promise for the treatment of premature labor, but its use has been linked to antenatal narrowing and closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus.
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812. Which of the following is true regarding use of opioids during pregnancy? (A) Mixed agonist-antagonist opioid analgesic agents are superior to pure opioid agonists in providing analgesia (B) Opioids are excreted into breast milk in negligible amounts (C) Methadone is not compatible with breast-feeding (D) Significant accumulation of normeperidine is unlikely in the parturient who receives single or infrequent doses (E) All of the above
812. (D) A. Although mixed agonist-antagonist opioid analgesic agents are widely used to provide analgesia during labor, they do not appear to offer any advantage when compared to pure opioid agonists. When compared, meperidine and nalbuphine provide comparable labor analgesia as well as similar neonatal Apgar and neurobehavioral scores. Use of either nalbuphine or pentazocine during pregnancy can lead to neonatal abstinence syndrome. B. Opioids are excreted into breast milk. Pharmacokinetic analysis has demonstrated that breast milk concentrations of codeine and morphine are equal to or somewhat greater than maternal plasma concentrations. Meperidine use in breast-feeding mothers via PCA resulted in significantly greater neurobehavioral depression of the breast-feeding newborn than equianalgesic doses of morphine C. Methadone levels in breast milk appear sufficient to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms in the breast-fed infant. The American Academy of Pediatrics considers methadone doses of up to 20 mg/d to be compatible with breast-feeding. Recognition of infants at risk for neonatal abstinence syndrome and institution of appropriate supportive and medical therapy typically results in little short-term consequence to the infant. The long-term effects of in utero opioid exposure are unknown. D. Meperidine undergoes extensive hepatic metabolism to normeperidine, which has a long elimination t1/2 (18 hours). Repeated dosing can lead to accumulation, especially in patients with renal insufficiency. Normeperidine causes excitation of the CNS, manifested as tremors, myoclonus, and generalized seizures. Significant accumulation of normeperidine is unlikely in the parturient who receives single or infrequent doses; however, meperidine offers no advantages over other parenteral opioids.
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813. A25-year-old primigravida just gave birth to a healthy baby boy. She had an epidural infusion containing lidocaine for labor analgesia. She asks you how long does she has to wait after the infusion is turned off in order to be able to breast-feed her son. Your answer is (A) she should wait at least 24 hours since concentration of lidocaine in breast milk may be toxic at this time (B) it is safe to breast-feed her son since concentration of lidocaine is minimal in breast milk after an epidural infusion (C) it would be safer to breast-feed if the infusion had bupivacaine, but since lidocaine was used, she will need to wait 36 hours (D) mothers who had an epidural infusion for labor should not be allowed to breast-feed until 1 week postpartum (E) none of the above
813. (B) Few studies have focused on the potential teratogenicity of local anesthetic agents. Lidocaine and bupivacaine do not appear to pose significant developmental risk to the fetus. Only mepivacaine had a suggestion of teratogenicity in one study. However, the number of patient exposures was inadequate to draw conclusions. Animal studies have found that continuous exposure to lidocaine throughout pregnancy does not cause congenital anomalies but may decrease neonatal birth weight. Neither lidocaine nor bupivacaine appears in measurable quantities in the breast milk after epidural local anesthetic administration during labor. IV infusion of high doses (2-4 mg/min) of lidocaine for suppression of cardiac arrhythmias led to minimal levels in breast milk. Based on these observations, continuous epidural infusion of dilute local anesthetic solutions for postoperative analgesia should result in only small quantities of drug actually reaching the fetus. The American Academy of Pediatrics considers local anesthetics to be safe for use in the nursing mother.
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814. A 23-year-old female patient with chronic low back pain as a result of a motor vehicle accident becomes pregnant. For the past 4 years she has been taking diazepam for muscle spasms and to help her sleep at night. She asks for your advice in terms of continuing or quitting diazepam during her pregnancy. Your answer should be (A) second-trimester exposure to benzodiazepines may be associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations (B) diazepam’s association with cleft lip, cleft palate, and congenital inguinal hernia has been disregarded recently (C) neonates who are exposed to benzodiazepines in utero usually do not experience withdrawal symptoms after birth since the amount that crosses the placenta is negligible (D) it appears most prudent to avoid any use of benzodiazepines during organogenesis, near the time of delivery, and during lactation (E) all of the above
814. (D) A. and B. Benzodiazepines are among the most frequently prescribed of all drugs and are often used as anxiolytic agents, as an aid to sleep in patients with insomnia, and as skeletal muscle relaxants in patients with chronic pain. First-trimester exposure to benzodiazepines may be associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations. Diazepam may be associated with cleft lip and cleft palate as well as congenital inguinal hernia. However, epidemiologic evidence has not confirmed the association of diazepam with cleft abnormalities; the incidence of cleft lip and palate remained stable after the introduction and widespread use of diazepam. Epidemiologic studies have confirmed the association of diazepam use during pregnancy with congenital inguinal hernia. C. and D. Aside from the risks of teratogenesis, neonates who are exposed to benzodiazepines in utero may experience withdrawal symptoms immediately after birth. In the breast-feeding mother, diazepam and its metabolite desmethyldiazepam can be detected in infant serum for up to 10 days after a single maternal dose. This is caused by the slower metabolism in neonates than in adults. Clinically, infants who are nursing from mothers receiving diazepam may show sedation and poor feeding. It appears most prudent to avoid any use of benzodiazepines during organogenesis, near the time of delivery, and during lactation.
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815. A 28-year-old female with myofascial pain is taking tricyclic antidepressants for pain control with good results. She is planning to become pregnant in the next few months. Which of the following is true regarding use of tricyclic antidepressants during pregnancy? (A) Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and imipramine are all safe to use since they are rated risk Category D by the FDA (B) Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and desipramine are found in high quantities in breast milk, and are not safe to use while breast-feeding (C) The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) fluoxetine and paroxetine are rated FDA risk Category B. These are safe to administer while breast-feeding (D) Withdrawal syndromes have not been reported in neonates born to mothers using nortriptyline, imipramine, and desipramine (E) All of the above
815. (C) A. and C. Antidepressants are often employed in the management of migraine headaches as well as for analgesic and antidepressant purposes in chronic pain states. Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and imipramine are all rated risk Category D by the FDA. The SSRIs, fluoxetine and paroxetine, are rated FDA risk Category B. Desipramine and all other conventional antidepressant medications are Category C. B. Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and desipramine are all excreted into human milk. Pharmacokinetic modeling suggests that infants are exposed to about 1% of the maternal dose. Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, desipramine, clomipramine, and sertraline were not found in quantifiable amounts in nurslings and that no adverse effects were reported. D. Withdrawal syndromes have been reported in neonates born to mothers using nortriptyline, imipramine, and desipramine with symptoms that include irritability, colic, tachypnea, and urinary retention.
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816. Which of the following is true regarding the use of anticonvulsants for neuropathic pain during pregnancy? (A) In general, the use of anticonvulsants during lactation does not seem to be harmful to infants (B) Frequent monitoring of serum anticonvulsant levels and folate supplementation should be initiated, and maternal α- fetoprotein screening may be considered to detect fetal neural tube defects (C) Pregnant women taking anticonvulsants for chronic pain have a lower risk of fetal malformations than patients taking the same medications for seizure control (D) Women who are taking anticonvulsants for neuropathic pain should strongly consider discontinuation during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester (E) All of the above
816. (A) A. The use of anticonvulsants during lactation does not seem to be harmful to infants. Phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproic acid appear in small amounts in breast milk, but no adverse effects have been noted. B. and D. For patients contemplating childbearing who are receiving anticonvulsants, their pharmacologic therapy should be critically evaluated. Women who are taking anticonvulsants for neuropathic pain should strongly consider discontinuation during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester. Consultation with a perinatologist is recommended if continued use of anticonvulsants during pregnancy is being considered. Frequent monitoring of serum anticonvulsant levels and folate supplementation should be initiated, and maternal α-fetoprotein screening may be considered to detect fetal neural tube defects. C. While anticonvulsants have teratogenic risk, epilepsy itself may be partially responsible for fetal malformations. Perhaps pregnant women taking anticonvulsants for chronic pain have a lower risk of fetal malformations than patients taking the same medications for seizure control.
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817. Caffeine is found in many over-the-counter pain medications. Pregnant women should be careful because (A) caffeine ingestion of more than 300 mg/d is associated with decreased birth weight (B) caffeine ingestion combined with tobacco use increases the risk for delivery of a low-birth-weight infant (C) caffeine ingestion is associated with an increased incidence of tachyarrhythmias in the newborn (D) moderate caffeine ingestion during lactation does not appear to affect the infant (E) all of the above
817. (E) A. and B. Early studies of caffeine ingestion during pregnancy suggested an increased risk of intrauterine growth retardation, fetal demise, and premature labor. However, these early studies did not control for concomitant alcohol and tobacco use. Subsequent work that controlled for these confounding factors found no added risks with moderate caffeine ingestion, although ingestion of more than 300 mg/d was associated with decreased birth weight. Caffeine ingestion combined with tobacco use increases the risk for delivery of a low-birthweight infant. C. Ingestion of modest doses of caffeine (100 mg/d) in caffeine-naïve subjects produces modest cardiovascular changes in both mother and fetus, including increased maternal heart rate and mean arterial pressure, increased peak aortic flow velocities, and decreased fetal heart rate. The modest decrease in fetal heart rate and increased frequency of fetal heart rate accelerations may confound the interpretation of fetal heart tracings. Caffeine ingestion is also associated with an increased incidence of tachyarrhythmias in the newborn, including supraventricular tachyarrhythmias, atrial flutter, and premature atrial contractions. D. Many over-the-counter analgesic formulations contain caffeine (typically in amounts between 30 and 65 mg per dose), and one must consider the use of these preparations when determining total caffeine exposure. Moderate ingestion of caffeine during lactation does not appear to affect the infant. Breast milk usually contains less than 1% of the maternal dose of caffeine, with peak breast milk levels appearing 1 hour after maternal ingestion. Excessive caffeine use may cause increased wakefulness and irritability in the infant.
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818. A 23-year-old female at 24 weeks of gestation shows to the clinic with low back pain of sudden onset. She describes her pain as originating lateral to the left lumbosacral junction. The pain radiates to the posterior part of the left thigh and does not extend below the knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Transient osteoporosis of the hip (B) Sacroiliac joint pain (C) Osteonecrosis of the hip (D) Sciatica (E) None of the above
818. (B) A. and C. Two relatively rare conditions— osteonecrosis and transient osteoporosis of the hip—both occur with somewhat greater frequency during pregnancy. Whereas the exact etiology is not known, high levels of estrogen and progesterone in the maternal circulation and increased interosseous pressure may contribute to the development of osteonecrosis. Transient osteoporosis of the hip is a rare disorder characterized by pain and limitation of motion of the hip and osteopenia of the femoral head. Both conditions present during the third trimester with hip pain that may be either sudden or gradual in onset. Osteoporosis is easily identified by plain radiography, which demonstrates osteopenia of the femoral head with preservation of the joint space. Osteonecrosis is best evaluated with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which shows changes before they appear on plain radiographs. B. and D. The hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy lead to widening and increased mobility of the sacroiliac synchondroses and the symphysis pubis as early as the 10th to 12th weeks of pregnancy. This type of pain is often described by pregnant women and is located in the posterior part of the pelvis distal and lateral to the lumbosacral junction. Many terms have been used in the literature to describe this type of pain, including “sacroiliac dysfunction,” “pelvic girdle relaxation,” and even “sacroiliac joint pain.” The pain radiates to the posterior part of the thigh and may extend below the knee, often resulting in misinterpretation as sciatica. The pain is less specific than sciatica in distribution and does not extend to the ankle or foot.
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819. Which of the following is not a main cause of low back pain during pregnancy? (A) Increased incidence of herniated nucleus pulposus during pregnancy (B) The lumbar lordosis becomes markedly accentuated during pregnancy (C) Endocrine changes during pregnancy soften the ligaments around the pelvic joints and cervix (D) Direct pressure of the fetus on the lumbosacral nerves may cause radicular symptoms (E) Sacroiliac joint dysfunction is common during pregnancy
819. (A) A. and D. Although radicular symptoms often accompany low back pain during pregnancy, the incidence of herniated nucleus pulposus is only 1:10,000. The prevalence of lumbar intervertebral disk abnormalities is not increased in pregnant women. Direct pressure of the fetus on the lumbosacral nerves has been postulated as the cause of radicular symptoms. B. Back pain occurs at some time in about 50% of pregnant women and is so common that it is often looked on as a normal part of pregnancy. The lumbar lordosis becomes markedly accentuated during pregnancy and may contribute to the development of low back pain. C. Endocrine changes during pregnancy may also play a role in the development of back pain. Relaxin, a polypeptide secreted by the corpus luteum, softens the ligaments around the pelvic joints and cervix, allowing accommodation of the developing fetus and facilitating vaginal delivery. This laxity may cause pain by producing an exaggerated range of motion. E. The hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy lead to widening and increased mobility of the sacroiliac synchondroses and the symphysis pubis as early as the 10th to 12th weeks of pregnancy.
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820. Which of the following is a true statement regarding headaches during pregnancy? (A) In pregnant women with a history of migraines prior to pregnancy, more than 50% will report worsening of migraine headaches during this period (B) In women of childbearing age, their first migraine headache will usually occur during pregnancy (C) Pregnant patients presenting with “the worst headache of my live” should have an immediate rule out of subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) Preeclampsia usually does not presents with headaches (E) Initial presentation of headaches during pregnancy should not precipitate thorough search for potential pathology unless the headaches continue after labor and delivery
820. (C) A. Migraines occur more often during menstruation, because of decreased estrogen levels. During pregnancy, 70% of women report improvement or remission of migraines. B. and E. Migraine headaches rarely begin during pregnancy. Headaches that initially present during pregnancy should initiate a thorough search for potentially serious causes. Examples may include strokes, pseudotumor cerebri, tumors, aneurysms, atrioventricular malformations, and others. C. Patients presenting with their first severe headache should receive a complete neurologic examination, toxicology screen, serum coagulation profiles, and an MRI should be encouraged. In the patient who presents with “worst headache of my life,” subarachnoid hemorrhage should be ruled out. D. Progressively worsening of headaches in the setting of weight gain may be secondary to preeclampsia or pseudotumor cerebri. Preeclampsia has the triad of elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and peripheral edema.
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821. A 22-year-old female patient presents to the office with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a 10-week pregnancy history and no other symptoms upon questioning. Pain is localized to the lower portion of the abdomen. The differential diagnosis should not include (A) miscarriage (B) ovarian torsion (C) ectopic pregnancy (D) myofascial pain (E) sacroiliac joint pain
821. (E) A., B., C., and D. One of the most common causes of abdominal pain early in pregnancy is miscarriage, presenting with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Ectopic pregnancy and ovarian torsion may present with hypogastric pain and suprapubic tenderness. Once these conditions have been ruled out, myofascial causes of abdominal pain should be considered. E. Sacroiliac joint pain or sacroiliac dysfunction usually does not presents with abdominal pain, but with low back pain that may radiate to the hip and thigh area.
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``` 822. Which of the following opioids is considered to be compatible with breast-feeding by the American Academy of Pediatrics? (A) Codeine (B) Methadone (C) Fentanyl (D) Propoxyphene (E) All of the ```
822. (E) Opioids are excreted into breast milk. It has been shown that concentrations of morphine and codeine are equal to or greater than maternal plasma concentrations. The American Academy of Pediatrics considers use of many opioid analgesics including codeine, fentanyl, methadone, morphine, and propoxyphene to be compatible with breast-feeding.
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823. In the critically ill patient, true statements regarding pain assessment include all of the following, EXCEPT (A) pain assessment tools such as the visual analogue scale or numeric rating scale (NRS) are most useful (B) in noncommunicative patients, assessment of behavioral and physiologic indicators is necessary (C) the NRS may be preferable because it is applicable to many age groups and does not require verbal responses (D) patient self-reporting is not useful for the assessment of pain and the adequacy of analgesia (E) the patient and family should be advised of the potential for pain and strategies to communicate pain
823. (D) Perception of pain is influenced by prior experiences, expectations, and the cognitive capacity of the patient. The patient and family should be advised of the potential for pain and strategies to communicate pain. Patient selfreporting is the gold standard for the assessment of pain and the adequacy of analgesia. Pain assessment tools such as the visual analogue scale or numeric rating scale are most useful. The numeric rating scale may be preferable because it is applicable to many age groups and does not require verbal responses. In noncommunicative patients, assessment of behavioral (movements, facial expressions, posturing) and physiologic (heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate) indicators is necessary.
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824. A 27-year-old male patient is at the ICU after sustaining multiple body traumas in a motor vehicle accident. The patient is on a mechanical ventilator with mild sedation. He has acute renal insufficiency and vital signs show mild to moderate hypotension. Upon evaluation it is determined that he has moderate to severe pain in both upper extremities and in the chest area as a result of multiple fractures. Which of the following would be the best medication to provide by an IV infusion for pain control? (A) Fentanyl (B) Morphine sulfate (C) Ketorolac (D) Demerol (E) Hydromorphone
824. (A) A. Opioids are the mainstay of pain management in the ICU. Desired properties of an opiate include rapid onset of action, ease of titration, lack of accumulation of parent drug or active metabolites, and low cost. The most commonly prescribed opioids are fentanyl, morphine, and hydromorphone. Fentanyl has a rapid onset of action and short t1/2 and generates no active metabolites. It is ideal for use in hemodynamically unstable patients or in combination with benzodiazepines for short procedures. Continuous infusion may result in prolonged effect owing to accumulation in lipid stores, and high dosing has been linked to muscle rigidity syndromes. B., D., and E. Morphine has a slower onset of action (compared to fentanyl) and longer t1/2. It may not be suitable for hemodynamically unstable patients because associated histamine release may lead to vasodilatation and hypotension. An active metabolite can accumulate in renal insufficiency. Morphine can also cause spasm of the sphincter of Oddi, which may discourage its use in patients with biliary disease. Hydromorphone has a t1/2 similar to morphine but generates no active metabolites and no histamine release. All opioid analgesics are associated with varying degrees of respiratory depression, hypotension, and ileus. C. Alternatives to opioids include acetaminophen and NSAIDs. Ketorolac is the only available intravenous NSAID. It is an effective analgesic agent used alone or in combination with an opioid. It is primarily eliminated by renal excretion, so it is relatively contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency. Prolonged (> 5 days) use has been associated with bleeding complications.
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825. In the critically ill patient, which of the following supports that epidural analgesia is a good alternative for pain control? (A) It results in more stable hemodynamics (B) There is reduced blood loss during surgery (C) Better suppression of surgical stress (D) Improved peripheral circulation (E) All of the above
825. (E) Many benefits of epidural anesthesia have been reported, including better suppression of surgical stress, more stable hemodynamics, better peripheral circulation, and reduced blood loss. Aprospective, randomized study of 1021 abdominal surgery patients demonstrated that epidural opioid analgesia provides better postoperative pain relief compared with parenteral opioids. Furthermore, in patients undergoing abdominal aortic operations, overall morbidity and mortality were improved and intubation time and ICU length of stay were shorter.
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``` 826. In certain populations of patients, epidural analgesia has been associated with (A) prolonged intubation time (B) fewer ICU stays (C) respiratory failure after surgery (D) poor pain relief if initiated prior to the surgery (E) none of the above ```
826. (B) A large, multicenter, randomized investigation of epidural narcotics compared to parenteral narcotics performed in veterans affairs hospitals found that patients receiving epidural analgesia had better pain relief, shorter durations of intubation, and fewer ICU stays. In contrast, a multicenter trial in Australia that included both, men and women as well as very high-risk patients found that epidural analgesia had no effect on mortality or length of stay. Postoperative respiratory failure occurred significantly less frequently, however, in the patients receiving epidural analgesia. At a minimum, it appears that epidural analgesia can produce superior pain relief, particularly if it is initiated prior to the surgical incision, and it may be associated with fewer complications and a lower incidence of respiratory failure than parenteral narcotics in selected patients.
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827. Which of the following is a reason for poor symptom management in critically ill patients with pain? (A) The majority of pain scales do not require patient self-report (B) For these patients it is easy to titrate sedatives and analgesics to their desired level of consciousness, but they are not encouraged to do so (C) Physicians and other caregivers feel uncomfortable about giving high doses of sedatives, analgesics, and other mood-altering agents (D) No need for pain medications as long as patient is sedated (E) None of the above
827. (C) A. Pain and other symptoms also may be poorly managed because they are subjective experiences that are not easily assessed by objective methods. Pain and sedation scales have been developed to quantify the levels of pain and anxiety among patients who can self-report. Nevertheless, some patients cannot adequately communicate these sensations, either because they cannot find the words or because they are intubated and sedated. To detect pain in these patients, physicians and other caregivers must attend to patient grimacing and other admittedly nonspecific manifestations of pain, including tachycardia and hypertension. B. Some patients value symptom relief highly and would prefer to be rendered unconscious rather than to experience pain, anxiety, or dyspnea, especially at the end of life. Others, however, would be willing to tolerate these symptoms or have them mitigated only slightly in order to stay awake. Dying patients may find it difficult to titrate sedatives and analgesics to their desired level of consciousness, although they should be encouraged to do so. Physicians and caregivers may find it even more difficult to achieve the ideal level of sedation and analgesia for patients who cannot communicate or administer drugs to themselves. C., D., and E. Symptoms may be inadequately managed because physicians and other caregivers feel uncomfortable about giving high doses of sedatives, analgesics, and other mood-altering agents. In some instances, this discomfort stems from a reluctance to cause drug addiction in dying patients, a phenomenon irrelevant to the patients’ condition.
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828. Which of the following is a nonpharmacologic intervention for pain relief in an ICU patient? (A) Provoking encephalopathy that results from the hypercapnia and hypoxia in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients if tolerated (B) Ketosis in terminally ill patients that forgo nutrition and hydration (C) Placing patients in a quiet environment where family and friends may visit (D) Proper treatment of anxiety and depression (E) All of the above
828. (E) Pain can be managed indirectly by nonpharmacologic means. For example, placing patients in a quiet environment where friends and family can visit may diminish the sense of pain, as may the proper treatment of anxiety and depression. Although respiratory depression caused by drugs or underlying disease usually is undesirable in patients with COPD, the encephalopathy that results from the hypercapnia and hypoxia may be tolerated, if not favored, in terminal patients because it attenuates pain. Similarly, patients who forgo nutrition and hydration at the end of life may develop a euphoria that has been attributed to the release of endogenous opioids or the analgesic effects of ketosis.
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``` 829. Which of the following is a known fact about opioid infusions? A) Fentanyl is about 10 times more potent than morphine (B) Hydromorphone is more sedating than morphine and produces more euphoria (C) Release of histamine during morphine administration may cause vasodilation and hypotension (D) Sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and nausea are side effects that are only seen after administration of morphine, but not with the administration of fentanyl or hydromorphone (E) All of the above ```
829. (C) Adirect approach to pain control generally centers on the use of opioids, and morphine is the opioid most commonly used. In addition to causing analgesia, morphine induces some degree of sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, and euphoria. It also produces vasodilation, which may cause hypotension, in part through the release of histamine. Fentanyl, a synthetic opioid that is approximately 100 times more potent than morphine, does not release histamine and therefore causes less hypotension. Hydromorphone, a semisynthetic morphine derivative, is more sedating than morphine and produces little euphoria.
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830. A 37-year-old female is at the ICU recovering after major abdominal surgery. Patient is breathing spontaneously, has stable vital signs, and is not able to tolerate oral feedings at this time. Alternatives for administration of opioids for pain relief include (A) IV morphine PCA (B) oral controlled-release oxycodone (C) transdermal hydromorphone (D) oral immediate-release oxycodone (E) all of the above
830. (A) Morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone can be administered orally, subcutaneously, rectally, or intravenously. Opioids usually are given by the IV route to ICU patients, including those who are dying. These agents may be administered to inpatients and outpatients alike through the technique of PCA. Longacting oral preparations of morphine and hydromorphone are available for outpatients. Fentanyl can be administered orally in the form of a lollipop. It can also be given by the transcutaneous route, which makes this agent particularly suitable for patients who have difficulty with oral medications.
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831. A33-year-old male underwent major abdominal surgery and is transferred to the ICU for postoperative management. Which of the following would be the best choice for postoperative pain management? (A) IV hydromorphone PCA (B) IV fentanyl infusion (C) Controlled-release oxycodone via nasogastric tube (D) Bupivacaine and fentanyl mix via epidural catheter (E) None of the above
831. (D) Many benefits of epidural anesthesia have been reported, including better suppression of surgical stress, more stable hemodynamics, better peripheral circulation, and reduced blood loss. Aprospective, randomized study of 1021 abdominal surgery patients demonstrated that epidural opioid analgesia provides better postoperative pain relief compared with parenteral opioids. Furthermore, in patients undergoing abdominal aortic operations, overall morbidity and mortality were improved and intubation time and ICU length of stay were shorter.
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832. In order to prevent atelectasis and pulmonary complications in patients at the ICU (A) pain management is important in maintaining a balance between splinting and sedation with hypoventilation (B) it is important to titrate opioids to the lowest possible since respiratory depression is detrimental in these patients (C) hyperventilation from mild to moderate pain is beneficial for faster recovery; opioids should not be administered during this period of time (D) epidural analgesia has no role in preventing pulmonary complications and minimizing intubation time in these patients (E) none of the above
832. (A) Atelectasis is most often seen in postsurgical or immobilized patients. As alveoli collapse, there is increased shunting with resultant hypoxemia. Additional findings are related to the degree of atelectasis and include diminished breath sounds and reduced lung volume, elevated hemidiaphragm, or consolidation on chest radiography. Associated fever usually abates with reinflation, but the collapsed alveoli are prone to bacterial colonization with the development of pneumonia. Treatment is aimed at reexpansion of collapsed alveoli. Maintenance of airway patency and pulmonary toilet are of primary importance. Pain management is pivotal to balance splinting with sedation and hypoventilation. Pneumonia is common in the ICU, particularly among ventilated patients and those with direct lung injury. The clinical presentation involves fever, leukocytosis, hypoxia, a distinct radiographic infiltrate, and purulent sputum with bacterial colonization. Respiratory support, pulmonary toilet, and antibiotics are the fundamentals of treatment