ASIPP Anatomy Questions Flashcards

1
Q
1. Sacral splanchnics are primarily:
A. Sympathetic postganglionic fi bers
B. Parasympathetic postgangalionic fi bers
C. Sympathetic preganglionic fi bers
D. Parasympathetic preganglionic fi bers
E. Senory preganglionic fi bers
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Sacral splanchnics refer to sympathetic fi bers traveling to
    the hypogastric plexuses. Another name for the superior
    hypogastric plexus is the presacral nerve.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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2
Q
2. The most common form of inguinal hernia begins
A. At the deep inguinal ring
B. Medial to the epigastric artery
C. Travels through the inguinal triangle
D. Entraps the genitofemoral nerve
E. Rarely enters the scrotum
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Direct inguinal hernias pass through the inguinal triangle,
    which is an area of weak fascia. They almost never go into
    the scrotum. Both the superfi cial inguinal ring and the
    inherent weakness of abdominal wall lateral to the falx
    inguinalis make this area susceptible to hernias. Indirect
    inguinal hernias start at deep inguinal ring, pass down
    inguinal canal, through superfi cial ring, and, in the male,
    usually descend into scrotum along with the spermatic
    cord. In the female they travel along the round ligament.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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3
Q
3. The obturator nerve innervates which of the following
muscles?
A. Gracilis
B. Sartorius
C. Rectus Femoris
D. Pectineus
E. Vastus Medialis
A
  1. Answer: A

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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4
Q
  1. What is true about the superfi cial cervical plexus?
    A. Blocks of this plexus are useful for upper airway laryngoscopy
    B. One branch is the suprascapular nerve
    C. One branch is the lesser occipital nerve
    D. Needle insertion is between the anterior and middle
    scalene muscles
    E. There is a very high risk for intrathecal injections
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    (Raj, Pain Medicine Review, 2nd Ed., pages 232-236)
    Blocks of the superior laryngeal nerve are useful for upper
    airway laryngoscopy (above the vocal cords). Blocks of the
    recurrent laryngeal nerve are useful for tracheal
    procedures (below the vocal cords). The suprascapular
    nerve originates from C5,6 and goes posteriorly to
    innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus (with
    sensory input from the shoulder joint). The lesser
    occipital, greater auricular, transverse cervical, and
    supraclavicular nerves originate from C2, C3, C4 and
    comprise the superfi cial cervical plexus. An interscalene
    brachial plexus block is performed through the anterior
    and middle scalene muscles. There is a low risk of
    intrathecal injections compared to a deep cervical plexus
    block.
    Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the auriculotemporal
    nerve?
    A. It is a branch of the mandibular division of trigeminal
    ganglion
    B. It is anterior to the superfi cial temporal artery
    C. It is posterior to the external auditory meatus
    D. Blocking it would alleviate pain when the earlobe undergoes
    piercing
    E. It provides sensation to the cheek
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 229)
    The auriculotemporal nerve originates from the V3 branch
    of the trigeminal ganglion. It travels posterior to the
    superfi cial temporal artery and anterior to the external auditory meatus. It receives sensation from the TMJ,
    parotid gland, external auditory meatus, tympanic
    membrane, tragus (not earlobe), and skin over the
    temporal area.
    Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
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6
Q
  1. You perform a glossopharyngeal nerve block. Which of the
    following is not likely to be related to the block?
    A. Torticollis
    B. Seizure
    C. Hoarseness
    D. Dysphagia
    E. Diffi culty with smiling
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    (Raj, Pain Medicine Review, 2nd Ed. Page 232)
    The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the jugular foramen
    along with cranial nerves X and XI. Hence one can develop
    dysphagia (IX), hoarseness (X), and torticollis (XI).
    Seizures can occur as a consequence of intra-arterial
    injection into the carotid. Diffi culty with smiling occurs
    with palsy of cranial nerve VII which exits through the
    stylo-mastoid foramen.
    Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
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7
Q
7. Blockade of the brachial plexus via the interscalene
approach commonly misses what nerve?
A. Median
B. Axillary
C. Radial
D. Ulnar
E. Musculocutaneous
A
  1. Answer: D

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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8
Q
8. Lower esophageal pain can be improved by blocking spinal
nerve roots at which levels?
A. T2 - T3
B. T3 - T5
C. T5 -T9
D. T10 - T11
E. T11 - T12
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Innervation by lower thoracic splanchnics and vagus
    afferents
    Raj. Chapter 43. Thoracoabdominal Pain. In: Practical
    Management of Pain 3rd Edition, Raj et al, Mosby, 2000
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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9
Q
9. Of the following nerve block techniques, which one
produces anesthesia of ALL of terminal branches of the
brachial plexus?
A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Axillary
D. Deep cervical
E. Superfi cial cervical
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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10
Q
10. Structures innervated by the inferior hypogastric plexus
include
A. Uterus
B. Bladder
C. Rectum
D. Scrotum
E. Vagina
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The uterus is innervated by the sympathetics passing
    inferiorly via the inferior hypogastric plexus.The other
    organs listed are innervated by the pelvic splanchnics,
    arising from the sacral roots or the pudendal nerve.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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11
Q
11. Which of the following is the most important center of
sympathetic and parasympathetic distribution to the
pelvis?
A. Superior hypogastric plexus
B. Inferior hypogastric plexus
C. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
D. Pudendal nerve
E. Nervi erigentes
A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The superior hypogastric plexus sends sympathetics to the
    inferior hypogastric plexus, the inferior hypogastric
    plexus receives parasympathetics from the pelvic
    sphlancnics
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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12
Q
12. The web space between the great toe and the second toe is
innervated by what nerve?
A. Sural
B. Saphenous
C. Superfi cial peroneal
D. Deep peroneal
E. Posterior tibial
A
  1. Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The deep peroneal nerve innervates the short extensors of
    the toes and the skin of the web space between the great
    and second toe.
    The deep peroneal nerve is blocked at the ankle by
    infi ltration between the tendons of the anterior tibial and
    extensor hallucis longus muscle.
    Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
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13
Q
  1. The preganglion cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous
    system are located where in the spinal cord?
    A. Dorsal columns
    B. Lateral spinothalamic tract
    C. Intermediolateral cell column
    D. Substantia gelatinosa
    E. Rexed laminae IV
A
  1. Answer: C

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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14
Q
14. Stellate ganglion is:
A. Combination of C7-T1 ganglion
B. Combination of C8-T1 ganglion
C. Combination of C7-C8
D. Sits on C6 transverse process
E. Located under the longus coli muscle
A
  1. Answer: A

Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003

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15
Q
  1. Anatomically, the celiac plexus is located anterolateral to
    the aorta at which level?
    A. Above the diaphragm at T10
    B. At the crura of the diaphragm at L1
    C. At the bifurcation of the aorta at L4
    D. Above the crura of the diaphragm at T12
    E. Surrounding then superior mesenteric artery
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005

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16
Q
  1. The lateral cord of the brachial plexus is formed by which
    of the following divisions?
    A. Anterior divisions of the superior and middle trunks
    B. Posterior divisions of the superior, middle, and inferior
    trunks
    C. Anterior division of the inferior trunk
    D. Anterior division of the superior trunk and posterior
    division of the middle trunk
    E. Posterior divisions of the middle and inferior trunks
A
  1. Answer: A

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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17
Q
17. T5-T12 sympathetic ganglia transmit nociceptive afferents
from the upper abdominal organs with which of the
following?
A. Renal plexus
B. Celiac plexus
C. Cardiac plexus
D. Pulmonary plexus
E. Hypogastric plexus
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005

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18
Q
18. In terms of surface anatomy, a line connecting the inferior poles of both scapulae would intersect which vertebral
body?
A. C7
B. T3
C. T7
D. T10
E. T12
A
18. Answer: C
Explanation:
(Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 216)
The line connecting the inferior poles of both scapula
would intersect T7.
Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
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19
Q
  1. The purpose of the cavernous nerves of the penis is to
    provide:
    A. Sympathetics and allow for erection
    B. Parasympathetics and allow for ejaculation
    C. Parasympathetics and allow for erection
    D. Sympathetics and allow for ejaculation
    E. Sensory afferent muscular tone
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Parasympathetic is point and sympathetic is shoot.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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20
Q
  1. Which of the techniques for blockade of the brachial
    plexus has the highest incidence of pneumothorax?
    A. Interscalene
    B. Supraclavicular
    C. Infraclavicular
    D. Axillary
    E. Deep Cervical
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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21
Q
21. Motor stimulation of the peroneal nerve elicits what
motions of the foot?
A. Dorsifl exion, inversion
B. Dorsifl exion, eversion
C. Plantar fl exion, inversion
D. Plantar fl exion, eversion
E. Plantar fl exion only
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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22
Q
  1. What is the function of the parasympathetic contribution
    to the bladder?
    A. Causes the detrusor muscle to relax and the sphincter
    to contract
    B. Causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the sphincter
    to relax
    C. Causes the trigone muscle to relax and the sphincter to
    relax
    D. Causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the sphincter
    to contract
    E. Causes the trigone muscle to contractd and the detrusor
    to contract
A
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
Cholinergic tone allows for micturation.
Anticholinergics can cause urinary retention.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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23
Q
23. Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of what
nerve?
A. Obturator
B. Sural
C. Common peroneal
D. Lateral fermoral cutaneous
E. Genitofemoral
A
  1. Answer: D

Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following most accurately describes the
    pelvic splanchnics nerves?
    A. S3-S4, preganglionic sympatehtic fi bers
    B. S1-S2, postganglionic sympathetic fi bers
    C. S2-S4, preganglionic parasympathetic fi bers
    D. T1-L2/L3, postganglionic sympathetic fi bers
    E. T1-L2/L3, preganglionic parasympathetic fi bers
A
24. Answer: C
Explanation:
C. The pelvic splanchnics are parasympathetic fi bers
arising from the sacral segments.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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25
``` 25. Which of the following nerves is not a branch of the sciatic nerve? A. Superfi cial peroneal B. Saphenous C. Deep peroneal D. Posterior tibial E. Sural ```
25. Answer: B | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
26
26. A patient is going to undergo a gastrectomy. Where would you like the tip of the epidural catheter to be placed? A. T3 B. T5 C. T10 D. T12 E. L1
26. Answer: B Explanation: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 272) With a gastrectomy the incision may be extended up to the xiphoid process. This can be extremely painful if the catheter is placed to low. Hence T10, T12, L1 catheters may be able to cover some of the pain but it would be insuffi cient. Higher concentrations and volumes would be needed to cover the xiphoid which could put the patient at undue risk of hypotension, muscle weakness, and sensory loss. A catheter at T3 may be appropriate for thoracic surgery but not for upper abdominal surgery. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
27
27. Which of the following is true of neural tube development? A. Closure of the neural tube proceeds in a craniocaudal sequence B. The basic organization of the neural tube features peripheral neuronal cell bodies and centrally located myelinated processes C. The primitive neurectoderm cells of the neural tube give rise to both neuron and all glial components D. During development, neuronal and glial precursors are born near the central canal and migrate to the periphery E. Mature neurons migrate out of the spinal cord to form the sensory ganglia
27. Answer: D Explanation: (Moore, Developing Human, 6/e, pp 452-456.) After closure of the neural tube, cells proliferate and establish three primitive layers: (1) the ventricular zone adjoining the central canal and ventricles; mitoses of neuronal and glial precursors continue in this zone; (2) a mantle zone consisting of cell bodies of neurons and glia that have migrated out of the ventricular zone; and (3) a marginal zone on the periphery containing the myelinated nerve processes characteristic of white matter. Closure of the neural tube begins near the midpoint of its length and proceeds in both directions simultaneously. The neurectoderm of the neural tube will give rise to neurons and some glial cells (astrocytes, oligodendroglia, and ependymal cells), but the precursors of microglia (the monocyte-macrophage lineage) migrate into the nervous system from the blood. The sensory ganglia are formed by neural crest cells that migrated before the development of mature neurons. Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
28
``` 28. Which of the following cranial nerves exists the brain stem from its dorsal aspects? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Trochlear nerve ```
28. Answer: E Explanation: The trochlear nerve is purely a motor nerve and is the only cranial nerve to exist the brain dorsally. The trochlear nerve supplies one muscle: the superior oblique. The cell bodies that originate in the trochlear nerve are located in the ventral part of the brain stem in the trochlear nucleus. The trochlear nucleus gives rise to fi bers that cross to the other side of the brain stem just prior to exiting the pons. Thus, each superior oblique muscle is supplied by nerve fi bers from the trochlear nucleus of the opposite side. The nerve travels in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and then enters the orbit via the superior orbital fi ssure. It passes medially and diagonally across the levator palpebral superioris and superior rectus muscles to innervate the superior oblique. (Parent, 531) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
29
29. The deep peroneal nerve provides cutaneous innervation to what part of the foot? A. Lateral aspect B. The entire dorsum C. The plantar surface D. The web space between the Great and 2nd toes E. The web space between the 3rd and 4th toes
29. Answer: D | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
30
30. The sympathetic component of the sphenopalatine ganglion travel to the ganglion via what nerve? A. Greater petrosal nerve B. Palatine nerves C. Maxillary nerve D. Deep petrosal nerve E. Mandibular nerve
30. Answer: D | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
31
31. You are asked to insert a needle approximately 2-3 cm medial to the ASIS and 2-3 cm inferior to this point. The insertion should be above the inguinal ligament. A ‘pop’ may be felt as you insert your needle to identify the right depth. What nerve are you most likely going to block? A. Genitofemoral B. Iliohypogastric C. Ilioinguinal D. Lateral femoral cutaneous E. Obturator nerve block
31. Answer: C Explanation: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed.) A.The genitofemoral nerve is approached by inserting the needle just lateral to the pubic tubercle. The needle is advanced through the inguinal ligament. B.The iliohypogastric lies 3 cm medial to the ASIS, but the needle is aimed towards the umbilicus. C.The ilioinguinal nerve is approximately 2-3 cm medial and 2-3 cm inferior to the ASIS, but above the inguinal canal.Typically one may feel a ‘pop’ as the needle passes the internal oblique and lies between the internal oblique and transverses abdominis. D.The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is approached 2cm medial and inferior to the ASIS but the needle is inserted below the inguinal ligament. The needle is advanced through the fascia lata with a pop and loss of resistance. Note that if you advance the needle further and feel a second pop, then you have gone through the fascia iliaca. This is approximately how one would perform a fascia iliaca block in order to avoid the femoral nerve block. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2003
32
32. The portion of the upper extremity that is not innervated by the brachial plexus is: A. Posterior medial portion of the arm B. Anterior and posterior aspects of elbow C. Lateral portion of the forearm D. Medial portion of the forearm E. Anterolateral portion of the arm
32. Answer: A Explanation: The arm receives sensory innervation from the brachial plexus except for the shoulder, which is innervated by the cervical plexus, and the posterior medial aspect of the arm, which is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve.
33
``` 33. The greater occipital nerve is a branch of: A. Posterior ramus of C2 B. Posterior ramus of C1 C. Anterior ramus of C1 D. Anterior ramus of C2 E. Anterior ramus of C2 and C3 ```
33. Answer: A Explanation: The skin over the posterior part of the neck, upper back, posterior part of the scalp upto the vertex is supplied segmentally by the posterior rami of the C2 to C5. A. The Greater occipital nerve is a branch of the posterior of ramus of C2. The lesser occipital nerve is a branch of the posterior ramus of C2 and C3. Headaches due to occipital neuralgia are characterized by either continuous pain or paroxysmal lancinating pain in the distribution of the nerve. The etiology of occipital neuralgia is compression of the C2 nerve root, migraine or nerve entrapment. An occipital nerve block maybe performed as a diagnostic or therapeutic measure. Source: Chopra P. 2004
34
``` 34. The muscles of the back receive motor innervation from A. Dorsal roots B. Dorsal primary rami C. Gray rami communicantes D. Splanchnic nerves E. Ventral primary rami ```
34. Answer: B Explanation: A.The dorsal roots convey sensation to the spinal cord. B.The axial musculature of the back receives innervation from the dorsal primary rami of the spinal nerves. D.The splanchnic nerves and gray rami communicantes are components fo the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous sytem. E.The ventral primary rami contribute to the cervical plexus, brachial plexus, intercostal nerves, and the lumbosacral plexus.
35
``` 35. Which of the following is the most direct route for spread of infection from the paranasal sinuses to the cavernous sinus of the dura mater? A. Pterygoid venous plexus B. Parietal emissary vein C. Frontal emissary vein D. Basilar venous plexus E. Superior ophthalmic vein ```
35. Answer: E Explanation: A. The pterygoid venous plexus communicates with the cavernous sinus via the petrosal sinuses. B. The parietal emissary vein also communicates with the superior sagittal sinus. C. The frontal emissary vein communicates with the superior sagittal sinus via the foramen cecum. D. The basilar venous plexus communicates with the inferior petrosal sinus. E. The superior ophthalmic vein drains the region of the paranasal sinuses and is directly connected with the cavernous sinus although blood fl ow is normally away from the brain
36
36. Myelination in the central nervous system differs from myelination in the peripheral nervous system in A. Its formation only during fetal development B. The function of myelin C. Its ultrastructural appearance D. The involvement of oligodendrocytes E. The involvement of astrocytes
36. Answer: D Explanation: Myelination in the central (CNS) and peripheral (PNS) nervous systems occurs by similar methods, although there are differences in the supportive cells responsible. A. Myelin is similar in both locations but different in the presence of Schmidt-Lanterman clefts, which only appear in the PNS and represent the presence of Schwann cell cytoplasm that is not displaced toward the periphery. This provides a continuous cytoplasmic pathway from the exterior to the interior of the myelin sheath. Myelin is an insulator and also decreases membrane capacitance. White matter is high in myelin content and is named by the presence of tracts of axons that appear white (myelinated). Gray matter represents neuron-rich areas low in myelin (e.g., cell bodies). B. Myelination occurs in both pre- and postnatal development. In the PNS, formation of myelin is initiated by the invagination of an axon into a Schwann cell. A mesaxon is formed as the outer leafl ets of the cell membrane fuse. Subsequently, the mesaxon of the Schwann cell wraps itself around the fi ber. D. In the CNS, the oligodendrocytes myelinate axons, whereas the Schwann cells conduct myelination in the PNS. Oligodendrocytes myelinate several axons at one time, whereas the Schwann cells myelinate only one axon. In the CNS, oligodendrocytes form myelin around several axon segments compared with the 1: 1 relationship between Schwann cells and axon segments in the PNS.
37
``` 37. The stellate ganglion lies in closest proximity to which of the following vascular structures? A. Common carotid artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Vertebral artery D. Axillary artery E. Aorta ```
37. Answer: C Explanation: The stellate ganglion usually lies in front of the neck of the fi rst rib. C. The vertebral artery lies anterior to the ganglion as it has just originated from the subclavian artery. After passing over the ganglion, it enters the foramen and lies posterior to the anterior tubercle of C6.
38
38. A cranial fracture through the foramen rotundum that compresses the enclosed nerve (maxillary nerve) results in the following clinical symptoms: A. Inability to clench the jaw fi rmly B. Regurgitation of fl uids into the nasopharynx during swallowing C. Paralysis of the inferior oblique muscle of the orbit D. Loss of the sneeze refl ex E. Uncontrolled drooling from the mouth
38. Answer: D Explanation: A. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, which passes through the foramen ovale, innervates the masticatory muscles responsible for clenching the jaw as well as the tensor palatini muscle, which assists in the establishment of the velopharyngeal seal. B. The other muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, which transits the jugular foramen. C. The inferior oblique muscle of the eye is innervated by the inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve, which enters the orbit through the superior orbital fi ssure. D. The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve, which passes through the foramen rotundum, is entirely sensory. Damage to this nerve results in sensory deprivation over the maxillary region of the face and loss of the sneeze refl ex. E. The orbicularis oris and buccinator muscles are innervated by the facial nerve, which transits the stylomastoid foramen
39
39. The occipital portion of the skull receives sensory innervation from A. Spinal accessory nerve (nerve XI) B. Facial nerve (nerve VII) C. Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (nerve V) D. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve (nerve V) E. None of the above
39. Answer: E Explanation: The occiput receives sensory innervation from the occipital nerves, which are terminal branches of the cervical plexus.
40
40. For upper abdominal surgery, optimal epidural catheter placement would be at which vertebral levels? A. C7 - T2 B. T4 - T8 C. T8 - T10 D. T10- T12 E. L2- L4
40. Answer: C Explanation: Ref: Crews. Chapter 14. Acute Pain Syndromes. In: Practical Management of Pain. 3rd Edition. Raj et al, Mosby, 2000, page 178. Source: Day MR, Board Review 2003
41
41. The muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg are innervated primarily by which of the following nerves? A. Deep fi bular B. Lateral sural cutaneous C. Saphenous D. Superfi cial fi bular E. Sural
41. Answer: A Explanation: The common fi bular (peroneal) nerve bifurcates into superfi cial and deep branches. The deep fi bular nerve innervates all muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg. The superfi cial fi bular nerve emerges from the deep fascia and descends in the lateral compartment, where it innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles before dividing into median dorsal cutaneous and intermediate dorsal cutaneous nerves, which supply the distal third of the leg, dorsum of the foot, and all the toes. The saphenous nerve (the terminal branch of the common femoral nerve) distributes cutaneous branches to the anterior and medial aspects of the leg as well as to the dorsomedial aspect of the foot. The sural nerve follows the course of the lesser saphenous vein and becomes the lateral sural cutaneous nerve to supply the anterolateral aspect of the foot. Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
42
``` 42. The correct order of structures (from cephalad to caudad) in the intercostal space is: A. Nerve, artery, vein B. Vein, nerve, artery C. Vein, artery, nerve D. Artery, nerve, vein E. Artery, vein, nerve ```
42. Answer: C
43
``` 43. The inner lining of the thoracic cage is also known as the A. visceral pleura B. parietal pleura C. subcostal fascia D. endothoracic fascia E. external thoracic fascia ```
43. Answer: D Explanation: D. The rib cage is covered both internally and externally by thin layers of deep fascia. The inner layer, consisting of loose areolar tissue called the endothoracic fascia, lines the internal aspect of the thoracic cage. This layer of facia covers the inner surface of the intercostal muscles and intervening ribs, along with the subcostal and transversus thoracis muscles andthe diaphragm. It lies between the parietal pleura and the thoracic cage.
44
44. Which of the following muscles of the larynx is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve? A. Vocalis muscle B. Thyroarytenoid muscles C. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle D. Oblique arytenoids muscles E. Cricothyroid muscle
44. Answer: E Explanation: All other muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
45
``` 45. The saphenous nerve can blocked at the medial thigh in what named canal? A. Guyon’s B. Alcock’s C. Labat’s D. Kappis’s E. Hunter’s ```
45. Answer: E | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
46
``` 46. Which of the following has a transverse process but not vertebral artery foramen? A. C1 B. C3 C. C5 D. C6 E. C7 ```
46. Answer: E Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., page 970) C7 has a transverse process but no foramen for transmitting the vertebral artery. In fact the stellate ganglion (C7-T1) is posterior to the artery at this level. C3, C5, C6 all have transverse processes that transmit the vertebral artery. C1 does have a long transverse process that is longer than other vertebral bodies. It also has a vertebral artery foramen. Upon leaving this level, the vertebral artery migrates posteriorly and medially. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
47
``` 47. The Greater splanchnic nerve is formed by? A. T4 - T6 sympathetic nerve fi bers B. T5 - T7 sympathetic nerve fi bers C. T5 - T9 sympathetic nerve fi bers D. T10 - T11 sympathetic nerve fi bers E. T11 - T12 sympathetic nerve fi bers ```
47. Answer: C | Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
48
48. The L4-5 facet joint is innervated by the: A. medial branches of the L3 and L4 spinal nerves B. medial branches of the L4 and L5 spinal nerves C. medial branches of the L2, L3, and L4 spinal nerves D. medial branches of the L3, L4, and L5 spinal nerves E. medial branches of the L4, L5, and S1 spinal nerve
48. Answer: A Explanation: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 292-3) The medial branch of the exiting spinal nerve sends a branch to the facet joint at its level and to one level below. In older studies some have demonstrated and ascending branch of the dorsal ramus that innervates the level above. However, this is not true as far as board exams go. In this case the medial branches of the L3 and L4 nerves innervate the L4-5 zygapophyseal joint. Expect some permutation of this kind of question Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
49
``` 49. The conus medullaris ends at T12 in which percentage of patients? A. 5-10% B. 15-20% C. 21-35% D. Never E. >50% ```
``` 49. Answer: A Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., page 1480, fi gure 75-9) The conus ends at: T12: 6% T12-L1: 18% L1: 30% L1-L2: 24% L2: 22% L3: rarely Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005 ```
50
``` 50. The genitofemoral nerve passes through the anterior psoas fascia at what vertebral body level? A. L1 B. L2 C. L3 D. L4 E. L5 ```
50. Answer: C | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
51
51. Which of the following is not true about the cervical intervertebral disc? A. The height of the cervical intervertebral disc is twice anteriorly as compared to posteriorly B. The vertebral endplates bounding the intervertebral disc are fl at C. The nucleus pulposus is located anteriorly when compared to those in the lumbar spine D. The posterior longitudinal ligament is wider when compared to its size in the lumbar spine E. The joints of Luschka are not synovial joints.
51. Answer: B Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., page 372) The vertebral endplates are fl at in the lumbar spine, but are concave and convex. All of the other statements are true. The joints of Luschka or the uncovertebral joints are degenerative clefts. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
52
52. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries originate from the A. Common carotid and vertebral arteries, respectively B. Internal carotid and vertebral arteries, respectively C. Internal carotid and posterior cerebral arteries, respectively D. Vertebral and anterior cerebellar arteries, respectively E. Vertebral and posterior inferior cerebellar arteries, respectively
52. Answer: E Explanation: The posterior spinal arteries are paired; they arise from the posterior inferior cerebellar arteries and have 25 to 40 radicular arteries. The anterior spinal artery is a single midline artery that arises from the union of a branch of each vertebral artery. It descends in front of the anterior longitudinal sulcus of the spinal cord. This single artery is also fed by numerous radicular arteries.
53
``` 53. At which level would you expect the spinal canal to be narrowest in its sagittal dimension? A. C1-2 B. C2-3 C. C3-4 D. C4-5 E. C5-6 ```
``` 53. Answer: E Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., page 975) Canal sagittal dimensions get progressively narrower from the upper to lower cervical spine; the narrowest location is at C5-6. C1-C3: 21 mm (16-30) C4-C6: 18 mm (14-23) Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005 ```
54
54. The deep peroneal nerve innervates the A. Web space between the third and fourth toes B. Medial aspect of the dorsum of the foot C. Web space between the great toe and the second toe D. Entire dorsum of the foot E. Lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot
54. Answer: C Explanation: The deep peroneal nerve innervates the short extensors of the toes and the skin of the web space between the great and second toe. The deep peroneal nerve is blocked at the ankle by infi ltration between the tendons of the anterior tibial and extensor hallucis longus muscle.
55
``` 55. The medial boundary of the stellate ganglion is? A. Vertebral artery B. Dome of the lung C. Longus colli muscle D. Scalene muscles E. Subclavian artery ```
55. Answer: C | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
56
``` 56. The hypogastric plexus is composed of what type of fi bers? A. Postganglionic sympathetic B. Postganglionic parasympathetic C. Visceral efferent D. A delta E. C Fibers ```
56. Answer: A Source: Raj P, Pain medicine - A comprehensive Review - Second Edition
57
57. The odontoid process (dens) is correctly described by which of the following statements? A. It articulates with the occipital portion of the skull B. It is separated from the atlas by an intervertebral disk C. It projects from the inferior surface of the atlas D. It represents the vertebral body of the fi rst cervical vertebra E. None of the above
57. Answer: D Explanation: D. The odontoid process (dens) of the axis, the second cervical vertebra, is the remnant of the body of the fi rst cervical vertebra (atlas). Developing from a separate ossifi cation center, it fused to the body of the axis. The fact that there is no intervertebral disk between the atlas and axis probably facilitates the fusion. The dens, projecting from the superior surface of the axis, provides a pivot about which rotation occurs at the atlantoaxial joint. Fracture and posterior dislocation of the dens may crush the spinal cord with fatal results.
58
``` 58. What is the rib that articulates with the sternum at the level of the xiphisternal junction? A. 6th B. 7th C. 8th D. 9th E. 10th ```
58. Answer: B Explanation: B.The 7th costal cartilage articulates with the sternum at the lateral margin of the xiphisternal junction. The articulation between the xiphoid process and the inferior border of the sternal body is a cartilaginous structure that ossifi es later in life.
59
59. The following statement is false regarding the course of the vertebral artery: A. The vertebral artery is consistently lateral to the atlantoaxial joint. B. The vertebral artery courses through the foramina transversaria of C7 through C1. C. The vertebral artery lies posterior to the atlanto-occipital joint in the suboccipital triangle D. Intracranial branches from the right and left vertebral arteries combine to form a single descending anterior spinal artery. E. The paired right and left posterior spinal arteries originate respectively from the right and left vertebral arteries above C1.
59. Answer: B Explanation: Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, Thirteenth American Edition. Pages 696-699. The vertebral arteries originate from the subclavian arteries and ascend anterior to the transverse processes of the seventh cervical vertebrae. They then ascend through the foramina transversaria from C6 to C1. The C7 vertebral body does not have a foramen transversarium. The arteries then exit the C1 foramina transversaria and turn medial to course through the foramen magnum where they ascend and combine to form the basilar artery which perfuses the brain. Just above the foramen magnum, the vertebral arteries give rise to the paired posterior spinal arteries. Further cephalad, at the approximate level of the medulla oblongata, the paired vertebrals give rise to the descending, single anterior spinal artery. The vertebral arteries are always lateral to the atlanto-axial joints since they must pass through the laterally-situated foramina transversaria at C1 and C2. From the foramen transversarium of C1 to the foramen magnum, the vertebral arteries pass posterior to the atlanto-occipital joints within the suboccipital triangle. There course from C1 to the foramen magnum may be somewhat tortuous and unpredictable. The vertebral arteries are always anterolateral with respect to the cervical neuroforamina since they are coursing through the foramina transversaria. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
60
``` 60. The sympathetic component to the sphenopalatine ganglion originates from which nerve? A. Deep petrosal B. Greater petrosal C. Maxillary D. Greater palatine E. Lesser palatine ```
60. Answer: A | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
61
``` 61. At which level is the intervertebral disc height to vertebral body height the largest? A. C1-C2 B. C6-C7 C. T12-L1 D. L4-L5 E. C3-C4 ```
61. Answer: B Explanation: (Bonica 3rd Ed., page 971)
62
``` 62. A musculocutaneous nerve lesion affects A. Hand sensation B. Supination with the forearm extended C. Supination with the elbow in fl exion D. Wrist extension E. Upper arm abduction ```
62. Answer: C Explanation: The musculocutaneous nerve arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and carries fi bers from the root of C5, C6, and C7. The nerve proceeds obliquely downward between the axillary artery and the median nerve. The nerve pierces the coracobrachialis muscle while giving off branches to it, and it descends further between the biceps and brachialis muscles to supply both of them. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is the sensor continuation of the muscular cutaneous nerve innervates the skin from the elbow to the wrist and covers the entire forearm from the dorsal to the ventral midline. The coracobrachialis muscle is a forward elevator of the arm. The biceps is a forearm supinator, especially if the elbow fl exed at 90 degrees. Isolated lesions of the musculocutaneous nerve are rare. Such lesion could cause weakness of elbow fl exion again resistance in a fully supinated hand, possible arm elevation weakness, arm pain and radial forearm parasthesia. (Brazis, 9-10; Staal, 31-33) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
63
``` 63. Corneal anesthesia results from blockade of which nerve? A. Supratrochlear B. Mandibular C. Maxillary D. Opthalmic E. Meckels ```
63. Answer: D | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
64
``` 64. The styloid process is an important landmark during blockade of which nerve? A. phrenic nerve B. maxillary nerve C. facial nerve D. glossopharyngeal nerve E. trigeminal nerve ```
64. Answer: D Explanation: D. The tip of the styloid process lies approximately halfway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process and provides a bony landmark for blockade of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the jugular foramen at the base of the skull to emerge slightly posterior and medial to the styloid process. It proceeds inferiorly to innervate the posterior one-third of the tongue as well as part of the throat and nasopharynx as far down as the pharyngoesophageal junction at the level of the cricoid cartilage.
65
``` 65. There is usually no sympathetic ganglion at: A. L1 B. L2 C. L3 D. L4 E. L5 ```
65. Answer: A | Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003
66
66. Blood supply to the spinal cord is by: A. Two posterior spinal arteries and two anterior spinal arteries B. Two posterior spinal arteries and one anterior spinal artery C. Branches of the lumbar arteries D. Radicularis Magna (artery of Adamkiewicz) and two posterior spinal arteries E. Braches of Aorta
66. Answer: B Explanation: The blood supply to the spinal cord is primarily three longitudinally running arteries – two posterior spinal arteries and one anterior spinal artery. The Anterior Spinal artery supplies approximately 80% of the intrinsic spinal cord vasculature. It is formed by the union of a branch from the terminal part of each vertebral artery. It actually consists of longitudinal series of functionally individual blood vessels with wide variation in lumen size and anatomic discontinuations. The spinal cord has three major arterial supply regions: 1. C1 to T3: Cervicothoracic region 2. T3 to T8: Mid thoracic region 3. T8 to the Conus: Thoracolumbar region There is a poor anastomosis between these three regions. As a result the blood fl ow at the T3 and T8 levels is tenuous. In spinal stenosis, especially in the lower cervical region, the Anterior Spinal artery may be compressed by a dorsal osteophyte and a herniated nucleus pulposus leadingto the Anterior Spinal Syndrome (loss of motor function). There are two posterior spinal arteries that arise from the posterior inferior cerebellar arteries. The three longitudinal arteries are reinforced by ‘feeder’ arteries. They are spinal branches of the cervical, vertebral posterior intercostal, lumbar and lateral sacral arteries. Approximately 6 or 7 of these contribute to the anterior spinal artery and another 6 or 7 to the posterior spinal arteries, but at different levels. The largest of these arteries is known as the radicularis magna or the artery of Adamkiewicz. Source: Chopra P, 2004
67
67. Which of the following neurological structures does NOT travel through the cavernous sinus A. Sympathetic carotid plexus B. Oculomotor nerve C. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve E. Abducens nerve
67. Answer: C Explanation: The medial wall of the cavernous sinus contains the abducens nerve, the internal carotid artery and the sympathetic fi bers of the carotid plexus. The lateral wall contains the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, and the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve. (Afi fi and Bergman, 240) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
68
68. Which of the following is TRUE about the trigeminal nerve? A. The spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve subserves light touch in the ipsilateral side of the face. B. The motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve lies in the pons medial to the sensory nucleus and sends axons to the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve C. The three divisions of the trigeminal nerve converge at the Gasserian ganglion. D. The mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve subserves pain and temperature in the ipsilateral side of the face. E. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve subserves sensation of the ipsilateral angle of the mandible.
68. Answer: C Explanation: The trigeminal nerve is a mixed nerve. It subserves the sensory innervation of the ipsilateral side of the face and the ipsilateral muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids). The sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve extends from the midbrain to the upper cervical cord: (a) The mesencephalic nucleus subserves proprioception and deep sensation from the tendons and muscles of mastication. (b) The main sensory nucleus (located in the pons) subserves light touch. (c) The spinal nucleus (which extends from the pons to the upper cervical cord and is divided into segments that correspond to concentric dermatomes around the mouth) subserves pain and temperature. The trigeminal nerve supplies sensation to the ipsilateral side of the face via three branches: the ophthalmic division (which innervates the frontal, lacrimal, and nasociliary areas), the maxillary division (which innervates the cheek and lower eyelid), and the mandibular division (which innervates the lower lip, the tongue, the mandible, except for the angle of the mandible). The motor nucleus lies medially to the main sensory nucleus and sends axons to the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. All division of the trigeminal nerve converge at the Gasserian ganglion which lies in Meckel’s cave of the temporal bone. (Afi fi and Bergman, 173-175) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
69
``` 69. All of the following muscles are innervated by the medial division of the sciatic nerve EXCEPT the A. Semimembranosus B. Long head of the biceps femoris C. Semitendinosus D. Short head of the biceps femoris E. Adductor magnus muscle ```
69. Answer: D Explanation: The sciatic nerve is a mixed nerve that carries fi bers from L4 to S3 and leaves the pelvis through the sciatic foramen below the piriform muscle. The nerve then curves laterally and downward beneath gluteus maximus muscle and runs on the dorsal side of the femoral bone to terminate at the proximal part of the popliteal fossa to divide into the tibial nerve medially and the peroneal nerve laterally. Within the sciatic nerve, as proximal as the gluteal region, the fi bers of the tibial and peroneal nerves are arranged into two separate divisions: The medial and the lateral trunks, respectively. The medial part of the nerve innervates the adductor magnus and the hamstring muscles, except for the short head of the biceps femoris (it is the only thigh muscle supplied by the lateral peroneal division). The hamstring muscles are fl exors of the knee joint and include the semimembranosus muscle, the semitendinous muscle, and the short and long heads of the biceps femoris. (Staal, 117-118) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
70
70. The thoracic duct ascends from the abdominal cavity to enter the thorax via the following aperture: A. Esophageal B. Central tendon C. Splanchnic D. Inferior vena caval E. Aortic
70. Answer: E Explanation: The diaphragm has three large openings (the aortic, esophageal, and vena caval apertures) and a number of smaller ones that transmit the superior and middle splanchnic nerves. E. The aortic aperture is the lowest and most posterior of the large openings and approximates the level of the T10 vertebra. This aperture also transmits the thoracic duct and occasionally the azygous and hemiazygous veins.
71
``` 71. Celiac plexus is located: A. in front of vena cava at L2 B. in front of aorta at L2 C. in front of aorta at L1 D. behind the vena cava of L1 E. behind the aorta of L1 ```
71. Answer: C | Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003
72
72. Age-related changes which occur in the spine and may be imaged by MRI fi ndings include: A. Increase in water content of intervertebral disk B. Increase in glycoproteins of intervertebral disk C. Increase in height of vertebral bodies D. Reduced caliber of spinal canal E. All of the above
72. Answer: D Explanation: With advancing age, there is reduced caliber of the spinal canal due to arthritic changes. There is decreased water and glycoprotein content of intervertebral disks, with decreased height of vertebral bodies. (Ref. 1, pp. 455–456; Ref. 2, p. 590) Source: Neurology for the Psychiatry specialty Board Review By Leon A. Weisberg, MD
73
``` 73. Which of the following structures receives afferents responsible for taste sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue ? A. Submaxillary ganglion B. Pterygopalatine ganglion C. Superior salivary nucleus D. Geniculate ganglion E. Submandibular ganglion ```
73. Answer: D Explanation: The nervus intermedius is the sensory and parasympathetic division of the facial nerve. It carries preganglionic parasympathetic fi bers to the submaxillary ganglion and tothe pterygopalatine ganglion. It receives sensory fi bers from the geniculate ganglion. This ganglion receives fi bers that carry taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and afferents from the mucosae of the pharynx, nose, and palate.(Afi fi and Bergman, 166- 167) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
74
``` 74. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for eye closure ? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Facial nerve E. Spinal accessory nerve ```
74. Answer: D Explanation: The orbicularis oculi controls eye closure and is innervated by the facial nerve.Eye opening is controlled by the levator of the lid, which is innervated by the oculomotor nerve. (Brazis, Masdeu, and Biller, 271-272) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
75
75. Which statement is false regarding the blood supply of the spinal cord: A. The anterior spinal artery originates from the vertebral arteries above the foramen magnum. B. Segmental spinal arteries enter the spinal canal by way of the intervertebral foramina bilaterally at every spinal level. C. The blood supply to the spinal cord is most tenuous in the region from T10 through L1. D. The Artery of Adamkiewicz is an anterior medullary feeder artery that contributes blood to the anterior spinal artery. E. Arteries that penetrate the cord parenchyma are end arteries and usually do not anastomose further.
75. Answer: C Explanation: Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, Thirteenth American Edition. Pages 964-971. The spinal cord receives its’ blood supply from three longitudinal arteries: 1. a single anterior spinal artery 2. two posterior spinal arteries The anterior spinal artery forms intracranially anterior to the medulla oblongata, from the junction of two anterior spinal branches, one derived from each of the two vertebral arteries. From its’ origin, it descends anterior to the spinalcord to the tip of the conus medullaris. The diameter of the anterior spinal artery is greatest at the cervical and lower thoracic regions with the smallest diameter along the midthoracic zone from T3-T9. This region of the cord is considered the “vulnerable zone” with respect to circulation. The branches of the anterior spinal artery that penetrate the cord parenchyma are end arteries and do not anastomose further. The spinal cord receives segmental arteries bilaterally at every level that enter the spinal canal through the neuroforamina, accompanying the spinal nerve roots. These segmental arteries supply blood to the dorsal and ventral nerve roots. In the cervical region these segmental arteries may originate from the vertebrals or from other cervical arteries. In the thoracic region, the segmental arteries originate from the posterior intercostal arteries which branch directly from the aorta.In the lumbar region,they branch from the lumbar arteries. In addition, the anterior spinal artery is reinforced at a number of segmental levels by feeder arterial branches from these segmental arteries. These arteries are called anterior medullary feeder arteries. There is an average total of 8 anterior medullary feeder arteries (inclusive of all spinal levels bilaterally) the largest of which is the great anterior medullary artery or artery of Adamkiewicz. The total number of anterior medullary feeder arteries varies from 2 to 17 in different individuals with an average of 3 in the cervical region, 3 in the thoracic region and 2 in the lumbar region. The artery of Adamkiewicz typically enters the cord on the left side (77% of specimens) anywhere from T7 to L4 (most commonly at T9 to T12). In the cervical region, the largest anterior medullary feeder enters at C4-5 or C5-6. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
76
76. A 40-year-old man developed chronic pain in the right forearm that lasted hours each day. Neurological examination demonstrated normal sensory examination, mild right forearm pronation weakness, and weak fl exion of terminal phalanges of right thumb, index, and middle fi ngers. An attempt to make a full circle by applying the end phalanx of the thumb to that of the index fi nger with fi rm pressure showed consistent weakness. Which of the following structures is affected? A. Right anterior interosseous nerve B. Right median nerve at the upper axilla C. Right ulnar nerve D. Right radial nerve E. Right musculocutaneous nerve
76. Answer: A Explanation: The patient described in this vignette has a pure motor defi cit. The right pronator quadratus is weak because of paresis of forearm pronation. Also there is paresis of the fl exor digitorum profundus I & II and the fl exor pollicis longus because of loss of fl exion of the terminal phalanges of the second and third fi ngers, and the thumb, respectively. All of these muscles are innervated by an anterior interosseous nerve. The characteristic feature of a lesion of this nerve is the inability to make a circle with the thumb and index fi nger. (Staal 55-56) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
77
``` 77. The mandibular nerve leaves the cranial cavity through the A. foramen ovale B. foramen spinosum C. foramen rotundum D. jugular foramen E. foramen lacerum ```
77. Answer: A Explanation: A. The madibular nerve emerges from the cranial cavity by way of the foramen ovale to enter the infratemporal fossa. In the infratemporal fossa the mandibular nerve divides into its terminal branches. Madibular nerver supplies the lower jaw, tongue, and lower teeth, the buccal surface of the cheek, and the skin overlying the lower jaw, the temporal region, and the anterosuperior two-thirds of the surface of the external ear. C. The maxillary nerve leaves through the foramen rotundum
78
``` 78. The most frequently involved structure in external impingement of shoulder is A. Subacromiodeltoid tendon B. Subacromiodeltoid bursa C. Teres minor tendon D. Infraspinatus tendon E. Supraspinous tendon ```
78. Answer: B | Source: Sizer et al - Pain Practice - March & June 2004
79
79. Anatomy of Meckel’s cave is as follows. A. the location of the glossophraryngeal nerve as it passes near the tonsillar fossa B. an intestinal diverticulum that may cause epigastric pain C. located between the mastoid process and the angle of the mandiblethe retrouterine recess in which an abscess or tumor may compress the hypogastric plexus D. the recess in which the gasserian ganglion resides before dividing E. the recess in which the posteior two thirds of the ganglion are covered by dura
79. Answer: E Explanation: The gasserian ganglion, also known as the trigeminal ganglion,is formed from many midpontine rootlets as they pass into the posterior cranial fossa and cross the superior border of the petrous bone to enter the recess called Meckel’s cave, or the trigeminal cave. In this recess (Meckel’s cave or trigeminal cave), the posterior two thirds of the ganglion are covered by dura. The anterior one-third is not covered by dura, and it is from this portion of the ganglion that the three major divisions of the trigeminal nerve (ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular) exit. When performing a trigeminal ganglion block, if the needle has punctured the dura of Meckel’s cave, a very small amount of local anesthetic may result in rapid loss of consciousness or cardiac arrest.
80
``` 80. The highest concentration of wide dynamic range neurons are seen in Rexed lamina A. I B. II C. III D. V E. IX ```
80. Answer: D Explanation: The Rexed laminae in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord are important in the modulation and transmission of nociceptive stimuli. A, B. Laminae I and II receive dense projections from the brainstem nuclei. Small diameter primary afferents also terminate primarily in laminae I and II. Myelinated primary afferent neurons and those from the brainstem involved in modulation of pain perception in laminae I and II also project to the deeper laminae such as V. D. Lamina V has a high concentration of wide dynamic range cells, which play an active role in the phenomenon of central sensitization.
81
81. The L2 ganglion is at the following distance from the anterior lateral x-ray view- vertebral body border: A. 5-6 MM B. 6-8 MM C. 12-13 MM D. 15-20 MM E. 20-22 MM
81. Answer: C | Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003
82
``` 82. Cutaneous innervation of the plantar surface of the foot is provided by the A. Sural nerve B. Posterior tibial nerve C. Saphenous nerve D. Deep peroneal nerve E. Superfi cial peroneal nerve ```
82. Answer: B Explanation: There are 5 nerves that supply the ankle and foot: 1. Posterior tibial nerve 2. Sural nerve 3. Superfi cial nerve 4. Deep peroneal nerve 5. Saphenous nerve These nerves are superfi cial at the level of the ankle and are easy to block. The posterior branch of the tibial nerve gives rise to the medial and lateral plantar nerves, which supply the plantar surface of the foot.
83
``` 83. While performing an atlantoaxial joint injection, the patient has a seizure. Local anesthetic injection into what structure/space most likely occurred? A. Carotid artery B. Epidural space C. Intrathecal space D. Spinal nerve root E. Vertebral artery ```
83. Answer: E | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
84
``` 84. Which anatomic landmark is not used in any of the standard blocks of the sciatic nerve? A. Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) B. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) C. Greater trochanter of the femur D. Pubic tubercle E. Lesser trochanter of the femur ```
84. Answer: E | Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2003
85
``` 85. The nerve located immediately lateral to the trachea is: A. Vagus B. Recurrent laryngeal C. Phrenic D. Long thoracic E. Spinal accessory ```
85. Answer: B Explanation: The structures in the neck from medial to lateral are the recurrent laryngeal nerve, carotid artery, vagus nerve, internal jugular vein, and phrenic nerve.
86
``` 86. The branches of the spinal artery providing blood supply to the vertebral body is: A. Posterior B. Intermediate C. Lateral D. Medial E. Anterior ```
86. Answer: E Explanation: The spinal artery arises from the posterior branch of the segmental artery close to the intervertebral foramen and divides into three terminal branches: posterior, intermediate, and anterior. A. The posterior branches help supply the spinal dura and the tissues of the epidural space. B. The intermediate (middle) branches supply the dura of the associated nerve roots.Their radicular branch can pierce the dura and help supply the spinal cord. E. The anterior branches supply the vertebral bodies along with other spinal structures.
87
87. The artery of Adamkiewicz, also known as arteria radicularis magna, implied in spinal cord damage following epidural steroid injections, most frequently arises from the aorta, the following spinal level(s). A. T1 to T4 B. T5 to T8 C. L1 to L4 D. T9 to T12 E. L5-S1
87. Answer: D Explanation: The artery of Adamkiewicz, also known as arteria radicularis magna, is one of the feeder arteries for the anterior spinal artery. Damage to this artery by any means or particular injection can lead to ischemia in the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord. The origin of this artery is variable. In 60% of the cases, it is described to arise from T9 to T12. In 14% of cases, it is described to originate from T5 to T8. In 20% of the cases, it is described to originate below L1.
88
``` 88. The lesser occipital nerve is formed from the ventral root/s of which cervical spinal nerve/s? A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C1 and C2 E. C2 and C3 ```
88. Answer: E | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
89
``` 89. What other cranial nerve can be blocked while performing a glossopharyngeal nerve block? A. Trigeminal B. Spinal Accessory C. Vestibulocochlear D. Oculomotor E. Facial ```
89. Answer: B | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
90
``` 90. Which of the following is not part of a Horner’s syndrome? A. Myopia B. Facial anhidrosis C. Myosis D. Enophthalmus E. Ptosis ```
90. Answer: A | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
91
``` 91. Which of the following pairs of cranial nerves travel through the internal auditory canal? A. Vestibulocochlear and trigeminal B. Facial and trigeminal C. Facial and optic D. Facial and vestibulocochlear E. Vestibulocochlear and vagus ```
91. Answer: D Explanation: The facial nerve leaves the pons and travels with the vestibulocochlear nerve through the internal auditory canal. (Parent, 154-168) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
92
``` 92. Which of the following structures is found in the lateral wall of the tonsillar fossa? A. Facial nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Lingual nerve E. Vagus nerve ```
92. Answer: B Explanation: A. The facial nerve lies superfi cial on the face. B. The location of the glossopharyngeal nerve in the tonsillar bed places it in jeopardy during tonsillectomy. C, D. The hypoglossal and lingual nerves pass well inferior to the tonsillar bed.
93
``` 93. The most medial structures in the antecubital fossa include: A. Brachial artery B. Cephalic vein C. Tendon of the biceps D. Median nerve E. Musculocutaneous nerve ```
93. Answer: D
94
``` 94. The maxillary nerve leaves the cranial cavity thru the A. foramen ovale B. foramen spinosum C. foramen rotundum D. jugular foramen E. foramen lacerum ```
94. Answer: C Explanation: A. The mandibular nerve leaves through the foramen ovale. B.The maxillary nerve leaves the cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum.Following here it traverses the pterygomaxillary fossa to enter the fl oor of the orbit at the inferior orbital fi ssure. The maxillary nerve primarily supplies the upper jaw, lateral nasal wall, and most of the nasal septum.
95
95. The saphenous nerve at the ankle is blocked where? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Posterior to the lateral malleolus C. Anterior to the medial malleolus D. Posterior to medial malleolus E. Lateral to the extensor hallucis longus muscle
95. Answer: C | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
96
``` 96. If a needle is introduced 2 cm inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, to which nerve will it lie in close proximity? A. Ilioinguinal nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D. Obturator nerve E. Sciatic nerve ```
96. Answer: D Explanation: D. An obturator nerve block is achieved by placement of the needle 1 to 2 cm lateral to and below the pubic tubercle. After contact with the pubic bone, the needle is withdrawn and walked cephalad to identify the obturator canal.
97
``` 97. The L3 ganglion located on lateral view X-ray: A. inferior anterior border of L3 B. mid body L3 C. posterior body L3 D. near the anterior border of L3 E. none of the above ```
97. Answer: D | Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003
98
98. In carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve is entrapped A. Beneath the fl exor retinaculum ligament B. Above the fl exor retinaculum ligament C. At the hamate bone D. In Guyon’s canal E. On the radial side of the wrist at the level of the styloid process
98. Answer: A Explanation: The point of entrapment of the median nerve in carpal tunnel syndrome lies under the fl exor retinaculum. The fl exor retinaculum forms the roof of the carpal tunnel, whereas the carpal bones and their connective tissue components form the fl oor of the carpal tunnel.In Guyon’s canal, the hamate, and the pisiform bones are sites of compression of the ulnar nerve at the wrist. Rarely, radial nerve compression occurs at the level of the styloid process, just proximal to the wrist. (Staal, 56-66) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
99
99. The obturator nerve innervates muscles which are responsible for what movement of the lower extremity? A. Abduction B. Flexion C. Extension D. Internal rotation E. Adduction
99. Answer: E | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
100
100. Which of the following is a compression site of the radial nerve? A. Suprascapular notch B. Carpal tunnel C. Spinoglenoid notch D. The elbow posterior to the medial epicondyle E. Spiral groove in the posterior aspect of the humerus
100. Answer: E Explanation: The radial nerve arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and comprises fi ber from spinal levels C5 to C8. After descending posterior to the axillary artery, the nerve courses posterior to the humerus in the spinal groove. It is at this site that the nerve is more often damaged by the compression. (Staal, 35) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
101
101. Blockade of the ilioinguinal nerve is accomplished by depositing local anesthetic between which 2 muscle groups? A. External oblique and internal oblique B. External oblique and transverse abdominus C. Rectus abdominus and internal oblique D. Internal oblique and transverse abdominus E. Transverse abdominus and iliacus
101. Answer: D | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
102
``` 102. Which brachial plexus block technique produces the best blockade of all of the terminal branches of the plexus? A. Axillary B. Supraclavicular C. Infraclavicular D. Interscalene E. Deep cervical plexus ```
102. Answer: B | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
103
103.Which one of the following statements regarding zygapophyseal joints is false: A. Zygapophyseal joints are covered with a fi brous capsule and contain synovial fl uid B. The articular surfaces of zygapophyseal joints are covered with hyaline cartilage. C. The most cephalad zygapophyseal joint is C1-2. D. Zygapophyseal joints are always posterior spinal structures. E. Lumbar zygapophyseal joints are oriented with increasing alignment to the sagittal plane as one ascends the spine
103. Answer: C Explanation: References: Waldman, Interventional Pain Management, Second Edition; Chapter 42, pp. 446-452 Gray’s Anatomy, Thirteenth American Edition, pp. 333- 335. Zygapophyseal or facet joints are true synovial joints and share characteristics with other synovial joints including: 1.The contiguous bony surfaces of the joints are covered with hyaline cartilage 2.The joint is surrounded by a fi brous joint capsule 3.The inner surface of the joint is lined by a synovial membrane which secretes synovial fl uid to lubricate the joint 4.The joints contain intra-articular meniscoids (of uncertain signifi cance) which are attached to the joint capsule Zygapophyseal joints are posterior spinal structures with the nerve root and neuroforamen anterior to the joint. The most cephalad zyg joint is C2-3 and the most caudal is L5- S1. The atlanto-axial and atlanto-occipital joints (C1-2 and C0-1 respectively) are unique and fundamentally different from zyg joints in that they are anterior spinal structures with the nerve root exiting posterior to the joint. These two most cephalad spinal joints are therefore not considered zygapophyseal joints and do not have sensory innervation from medial branch nerves like the true zyg joints. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
104
``` 104. The long thoracic nerve innervates the A. Serratus anterior muscle B. Rhomboid muscle C. Levator scapula D. Supraspinatus muscle E. Infraspinatus muscle ```
104. Answer: A Explanation: The long thoracic nerve arises from the motor roots of C5, C6, and C7. It courses downward through and in front of the medial scalenus muscle and further descends dorsal to the brachial plexus along the medial axillary wall to innervate the serratus anterior muscle. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The dorsal scapular nerve innervates the rhomboid and levator scapulae. (Parent, 276; Staal 19) SOURCE: Souayah, N, and Khella S; Neurology Examination & Board Review; McGraw-Hill, New York. Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
105
``` 105. Which of the following is a branch of the trigeminal nerve: A. Lingual nerve B. Posterior auricular nerve C. Spinal accessory nerve D. Greater Occipital nerve E. Lesser Occipital nerve ```
105. Answer: A Explanation: The lingual nerve is a branch of the mandibular division. The posterior auricular is part of the cervical plexus, the spinal accessory is CN XI, and the occipital is from C2 and C3 Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
106
106.The arachnoid villi allow cerebrospinal fl uid to pass between which of the following two spaces? A. Choroid plexus and subdural space B. Subarachnoid space and subdural space C. Superior sagittal sinus and jugular vein D. Subdural space and cavernous sinus E. Subarachnoid space and superior sagittal sinus
106. Answer: E Explanation: E. Cerebrospinal fl uid formed in the choroid plexus circulates in the subarachnoid space and is absorbed by the venous sinuses through the arachnoid villi, some of which project into the superior sagittal sinus. Cerebrospinal fl uid protects the nervous system from concussions and mechanical injuries and is important for metabolism. A, B, C, D. It circulates slowly through the ventricles of the brain and through the meshes of the subarachnoid space.
107
107. The MOST common location of the Dorsal Root Ganglion is: A. Medial to the pedicle within the lateral recess B. Inferolateral to the pedicle C. Lateral to the superior articular facet of the corresponding vertebra. D. Directly below the pedicle E. Superolateral to the pedicle
107. Answer: D Explanation: In approximately 90% of cases the dorsal root ganglion (DRG) lies in the middle zone of the intervertebral foramen, directly below the pedicle. In approximately, 8% of cases it is inferolateral and in 2% of cases it is medial to the pedicle. The center of the DRG lies over the lateral portion of the intervertebral disc in some cases. The size of the DRG increases from L1 to S1 and then progressively decreases till S4. The DRG at S1 is 6mm in width. The DRG contains multiple sensory cell bodies. It is the site for production of neuropeptides: Substance P, Eukephalin, VIP (Vasoactive Intestinal peptides), and other neuropeptides. The DRG is a primary source of pain when it undergoes mechanical deformity as by an osteophyte, herniated nucleus pulposus or stenosis. It also produces pain when it undergoes an infl ammatory process either by infection or chemical irritation from a herniated nucleus pulposus, release of local neuropeptides or local vascular compromise. Source: Chopra P, 2004
108
108. A pulse in the dorsalis pedis artery may be palpated A. Between the tendons of the extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius muscles B. Between the tendons of the extensor hallucis and extensor digitorum muscles C. Between the tendons of the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles D. Immediately anterior to the lateral malleolus E. Immediately posterior to the medial malleolus
108. Answer: B Explanation: B. The dorsal pedal artery, a continuation of the anterior tibial artery, passes onto the dorsum of the foot between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus muscles. The dorsal pedal pulse may be palpated here before the artery passes beneath the extensor hallucis brevis muscle. E. The posterior tibial artery passes behind the medial malleolus, where the posterior tibial pulse is normally palpable. Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
109
109. In the histogenesis of the neural tube, which zone will become the white matter of the adult CNS? A. Ventricular zone B. Marginal zone C. Mantle zone D. Ependymal zone E. Intermediate zone
109. Answer: B Explanation: A. From the ventricular zone, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and neurons differentiate. Ultimately, the cells that remain in the ventricular zone become the ependymal cells that line the central canal. B. The white matter of the adult CNS is derived from the marginal zone of the developing neural tube. The most peripheral zone is the marginal zone, which contains the myelinated axons of the developing motor neurons (adult white matter). C. The mantle zone forms the grey matter, where cell bodies of differentiating motor neurons are located. Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
110
110. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the axillary nerve? A. It arises from C5-C6. B. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles. C. It is a pure motor never. D. Its injury may lead to weakness of arm abduction in the horizontal position. E. In neuralgic amyotrophy, the axillary nerve may be affected in isolation in 10% of cases.
110. Answer: C Explanation: The axillary nerve originates from the posterior fascicle of the brachial plexus and carries fi bers from C5 and C6. It innervates the deltoid muscle and teres minor muscle. The axillary nerve sends a sensory branch, the lateral brachial cutaneous nerve, to the skin of the upper outer surface of the arm mainly in the deltoid region. An axillary nerve lesion results in weakness of arm abduction in the horizontal position against resistance.The fi rst 30 degrees of abduction of the upper arm from the trunk is performed by the supraspinatus muscle, which is innervated by the suprascapular nerve, not by the axillary nerve. There is also weakness of the horizontal upper arm retraction against resistance with sensory loss in the skin area overlying the deltoid muscle.The axillary nerve is often involved in neuralgic amyotrophy, and in about ten percentof cases it is affected in isolation. (Parent, 275 – 277; Staal, 27-29) Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
111
``` 111. The venous sinuses are located in the A. Periosteum B. Dura mater C. Subdural space D. Arachnoid E. Pia mater ```
111. Answer: B Explanation: A. The periosteum is an important connective tissue layer surrounding the bone of the skull. This layer retains osteogenic potential even in the adult. B. The dura mater contains the venous sinuses and is composed of dense connective tissue and possesses very limited osteogenic potential. The dura mater is one of the three protective layers that comprise the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. In the spinal cord, the dura is separated from the periosteum by the epidural space. C.The thin subdural space lies between the dura mater and the arachnoid. D. The arachnoid is composed of a weblike avascular connective tissue that forms villi for the reabsorption of cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) into the venous sinuses found in the dura. The subarachnoid space contains the CSF, which is formed both by ultrafi ltration of the blood and transport across the epithelial lining of the choroid plexuses. E. The pia covers the brain and spinal cord as a delicate, vascular connective tissue. It lines the perivascular spaces through which blood vessels penetrate the CNS.
112
``` 112. Innervation to the rotator cuff muscle that medially rotates the arm is provided by the A. Axillary nerve B. Suprascapular nerve C. Thoracodorsal nerve D. Upper and lower subscapular nerves E. None of the above ```
112. Answer: D Explanation: (Moore, Anatomy, 4/e, pp 698-699.) The upper and lower subscapular nerves innervate the subscapularis muscle, which is the only muscle of the rotator cuff group that medially rotates the arm. The lower subscapular nerve also innervates the teres major muscle, which is not part of the rotator cuff group. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles that abduct and laterally rotate the arm, respectively. The teres minor muscle, innervated by the axillary nerve, also laterally rotates the arm. The thoracodorsal nerve, originating from the posterior cord between the upper and lower subscapular nerves, innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle. Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
113
113. The vertebral arteries are correctly described by which of the following statements? A. They arise from the common carotid artery on the left and the brachiocephalic artery on the right B. They enter the cranium via the anterior condylar canals C. They enter the cranium via the posterior condylar canals D. They pass through the transverse foraminae of several cervical vertebrae E. They directly give rise to the posterior cerebral arteries
113. Answer: D Explanation: A, D. The vertebral arteries usually arise from the subclavian arteries and ascend through the transverse foramina of the sixth to the fi rst cervical vertebrae but not the seventh. They enter the cranium through the foramen magnum after which they join to form the basilar artery. B. The hypoglossal nerves leave the cranium via the anterior condylar (hypoglossal) canals, C. The posterior condylar canals transmit emissary veins. E. The basilar artery terminates by bifurcating into the posterior cerebral arteries.
114
``` 114. Areas innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve are all of the following EXCEPT A. Palatine tonsils B. Posterior one third of the tongue C. Pharyngeal wall D. Epiglottis E. Auditory Canal ```
114. Answer: D Source: Raj P, Pain medicine - A comprehensive Review - Second Edition
115
``` 115. Nutrition to the lumbar intervertebral disk is from the: A. Posterior Spinal artery B. Internal Iliac artery C. Lumbar artery D. Anterior spinal artery E. None of the above ```
115. Answer: C Explanation: The lumbar arteries supply the vertebrae at various levels. Each lumbar artery passes posteriorly around the related vertebra and supplies branches into the vertebral body. The terminal branches form a plexus of capillaries below each endplate. The disk is a relatively avascular structure. Nutrition to the disk is by diffusion from the endplate capillaries and blood vessels in the outer annulus fi brosus. Passive diffusion of fl uids into the proteoglycan matrix is further enhanced by repeated compression of the disk by repeated fl exion-extension of the spine associated with activities of daily living which pumps fl uid in and out of the disk. Source: Chopra P. 2004
116
``` 116. The carotid tubercle (Chaussignac’s tubercle) is located at: A. Transverse process of the C5 vertebra B. Facet joint of the C5-C6 vertebra C. Facet joint of the C6-C7 vertebra D. Transverse process of the C7 vertebra E. Transverse process of the C6 vertebra ```
116. Answer: E Explanation: E. The carotid tubercle (Chaussignac’s tubercle) lies 2.5 cm lateral to the cricoid cartilage. It is a part of the transverse process of the C6 vertebra and can be easily palpated anteriorly. The carotid tubercle is an important landmark for stellate ganglion blocks. Source: Chopra P. 2004
117
``` 117. The MOST common origin of the Artery of Adamkiewicz is: A. Between T4 and T6 B. At T7 C. Between T8 and L3 D. At L4 E. At L5 ```
117. Answer: C Explanation: A, B. It originates in 14% of cases between T5-T8. In a small percentage of cases (15%) the take off is higher at T5. In this case the slender contribution from the iliac artery enlarges to compensate for the increased blood fl ow to the lumbar portion of the cord and the conus. C. The artery of Adamkiewicz originates on the left between the T8 and L3 level in most cases. This is the largest of the feeder arteries that supplies the anterior spinal artery. The artery of Adamkiewicz enters through an intervertebral foramen between T8 and L3 to supply the lumbar enlargement. It originates in 60% of cases between T9-T12. D, E. It originates below L1 in 20% of cases. Source: Chopra P, 2004
118
118. The Stellate ganglion is located at the: A. Anterior to the transverse process of the C6 vertebra B. Posterior to the subclavian artery C. Anterior to the transverse process of the C5 vertebra D. Anterior to the neck of the fi rst rib and the transverse process of the C7 vertebra E. Anterior to vertebral artery at C7
118. Answer: D Explanation: D. The stellate ganglion is the inferior cervical ganglion. The cervicothoracic ganglion is frequently formed by the fusion of the inferior cervical ganglion and the fi rst thoracic ganglion. It is located anteriorly on the neck of the fi rst rib and the transverse process of the C7 vertebra. It is oval in shape and 1 inch long by 0.5 inch wide. The ganglion is bound anteriorly by the subclavian artery, posteriorly by the prevertebral fascia and the transverse process, medially by the longus colli muscle and laterally by the scalene muscle. The classical Stellate ganglion block is done one level above the location of the Stellate ganglion (it lies at the C7 level and the block is done at the C6 level). E. The vertebral artery travels anteriorly over the stellate ganglion at C7 but at C6 the artery moves posteriorly. Source: Chopra P. 2004
119
119. The blood-brain barrier is formed by A. Fenestrations between brain capillary endothelial cells B. Microglial activity C. Astrocytic foot processes surrounding blood vessels entering the brain parenchyma D. The basement membrane associated with the glia limitans E. Occluding junctions between brain capillary endothelial cells
119. Answer: E Explanation: A. The capillary endothelium is nonfenestrated, which also adds to the barrier. B. Microglia function as brain macrophages and are involved in antigen presentation and phagocytosis. C. Astrocytes form foot processes around the brain capillaries. D. Surrounding the CNS is a basement membrane with a lining of astrocyte foot processes; this forms the glia limitans, which also contributes to the integrity of the blood-brain barrier. E. The blood-brain barrier is formed primarily by occluding junctions (zonulae occludentes) between endothelial cells that compose the lining of brain capillaries.
120
120. Nerves that originate from the sacral plexus include 1. Femoral nerve 2. Obturator nerve 3. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve 4. Sciatic nerve
120. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: 1. The femoral nerve originates from lumbar plexus. 2. The obturator nerve originates from lumbar plexus. 3. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerves arise from the lumbar plexus. 4. The sciatic nerve gives multiple branches: the common peroneal deep and superfi cial peroneal, posterior tibial, and sural.
121
121. The greater occipital nerve: 1. Is a branch of the posterior ramus of C2 2. Is part of the cervical plexus. 3. Injection can cause a total spinal. 4. Is a mixed motor and sensory nerve.
121. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: 1. The greater occipital nerve is a branch of the posterior ramus of C2. 2. The lesser occipital nerve is part of the cervical plexus. 3. Total spinal anesthetics has occurred after occipital nerve blocks, due to subarachnoid injection. 4. The occipital nerve is a pure sensory nerve. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
122
122. Which of the following statements are true regarding medial branch nerves: 1. The medial branches from C4 through C7 typically lack any cutaneous distribution. 2. The medial branch of L5 is located in the groove between the sacral ala and the superior articulating process of S1. 3. The “third occipital nerve” originates from the C3 dorsal ramus. 4. The greater occipital nerve is the medial branch of the dorsal primary ramus of C2.
122. Answer: E (All) Explanation: References: Bogduk, Clinical Anatomy of the Lumbar Spine and Sacrum, Third Edition, Churchill Livingston 1997 pp. 133-135 Lord, Barnsley, Bogduk; Cervical Zygapophyseal Joint Pain in Whiplash Injuries in Cervical Extension-Flexion Whiplash Injuries, George Malanga MD Editor, Hanley and Belfus Medical Publishers, 1998 pp. 309-310 With respect to the zygapophyseal joint, each joint is innervated by two medial branch nerves, one originating from the dorsal ramus of the same segmental level and one originating from the dorsal ramus above the level. For example, the C4-5 zygapophyseal joint is innervated by the C4 and C5 medial branches and the L4-5 zygapophyseal joint is innervated by the L3 and the L4 medial branches. With respect to the medial branch nerves, each medial branch originates from the dorsal ramus of the spinal nerve and sends an ascending branch to innervate the joint above and a descending branch to innervate the joint below. Which medial branch nerves innervate which zygapophyseal joints can be a source of confusion since numbering in the cervical spine is different from the numbering in the thoraco-lumbar spine. The numbering convention associating spinal nerve roots within neuroforamina is different above and below C7-T1. The C4 nerve root (and C4 medial branch) exits the C3-4 neuroforamen whereas the L4 nerve root (and L4 medial branch) exits the L4-5 neuroforamen. Things change from a numbering perspective at C7-T1 since the C8 nerve root exits the C7-T1 foramen Above C7-T1 (from C2-3 to C6- 7)the exiting spinal nerve root has the same number as the last number of the foramen (i.e. C6 exits the C5-6 foramen).Beginning at the T1-2 neuroforamen, the exiting nerve root carries the same number as the fi rst number of the foramen (T1 nerve root exits T1-2 foramen). With respect to medial branches, the C8 medial branch innervates the C7-T1 joint and the T1-2 joint. The T1 medial branch innervates the T1-2 and the T2-3 joints. And the L3 nerve root innervates the L3-4 and L4-5 joints. 1. The medial branches of C4 through C8 typically lack cutaneous distribution and follow the following course: The dorsal ramus of the segmental nerve at each level gives rise to the medial branch with that segmental number which in turn innervates the zyg joint above and below i.e. the C4 spinal nerve exits the C3-4 foramen and gives rise to the C4 medial branch which sends a branch cephalad to innervate the C3-4 zyg joint and caudad to innervate the C4-5 zyg joint. 2. The medial branch of L5 is located in the groove between the sacral ala and the superior articulating process of S1. 3. The C3 medial branch is the fi rst clinically signifi cant medial branch with respect to radiofrequency denervation of the zyg joints. The C3 medial branch is unique in that it has a large superfi cial, cephalad branch called the “third occipital nerve”and a smallerdeep and more caudal branch which is called the medial branch of C3. The third occipital nerve originates from the C3 dorsal ramus and courses directly posterior across the lateral aspect of the C2-3 zyg joint which it innervates. The C3 medial branch also originates from the C3 dorsal ramus but courses caudally to cross the lateral waist of the C3 4. The medial branch of C2 is large and is called the greater occipital nerve. The C2 medial branch (greater occipital nerve) supplies sensory-motor innervation to the occiput and may also send a communicating branch caudally to contribute to the innervation of the C2-3 zyg joint. articular pillar in similar fashion to the courses of the C4-C8 medial branches. The C3 medial branch innervates the superior aspect of the C3-4 zyg joint. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
123
``` 123. The tibial nerve is responsible for what motion of the foot and ankle? 1. Plantar fl exion 2. Eversion 3. Inversion 4. Dorsifl exion ```
123. Answer: B | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
124
``` 124. Bony landmarks that need to be identifi ed for a posterior sciatic nerve block are: 1. Anterior superior iliac spine 2. Posterior superior iliac spine 3. Lesser trochanter 4. Greater trochanter ```
124. Answer: C | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
125
125. All the following are true statements concerning intervertebral disks. 1. in the lumbar region, the disks constitute 50 percent of the length of the column 2. the nucleus pulposus is a colloidal gel composed of mucopolysaccharide 3. at birth, an intervertebral disk contains 50 percent water 4. the superior and inferior plates of the disk are composed of hyaline cartilage
125. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. In the lumbar region the intervertebral disks constitute about 30 percent of the length of the column as compared with 20 to 25 percent in the thoracic and cervical regions. 2. Each intervertebral disk is composed of a tough fi brocartilaginous ring (the annulus fi brosus) and a pliable intergelatinous mass (the nucleus pulposus). The colloidal gel of the nucleus pulposus is a mucopolysaccharide that can imbibe external fl uid and maintain its intrinsic water balance. 3. At birth the disk contains 88 percent water, but it dehydrates with age and trauma. 4. The superior and inferior plates of the disks are the end plates of the vertebral bodies, which are composed of articular hyaline cartilage in direct contact with and adherent to the underlying resilient bone of the vertebral body.
126
126. Except for the fi rst intercostal nerve, all intercostal nerves differ from other spinal nerves in that 1. each pursues an independent course 2. they only have a sensory modality 3. they do not result in the formation plexus 4. their posterior divisions only supply muscles and skin of the back
126. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: 1. Intercostal nerves differ from other spinal nerves in that each pursues an independent course. 2. The intercostal nerves are distributed chiefl y to the thorax and abdomen. 3. Except for the fi rst intercostal nerve, they do not enter into the formation of plexuses. 4. The smaller posterior primary divisions diverge from their anterior counterparts and run posteriorly to supply the muscles and skin of the back through medial and lateral branches.
127
``` 127. The extraocular muscles innervated by the oculomotor nerve include the 1. lateral rectus 2. medial rectus 3. superior oblique 4. inferior rectus ```
127. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: Six extraocular muscles control the movements of the eye. The four rectus muscles (superior, medial, inferior, and lateral) originate from a common tendon ring that encircles the optic foramen. 1. The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by the abducens or 6th cranial nerve while the superior oblique muscle receives innervation from the trochlear or 4 th cranial nerve. 2. The oculomotor or third cranial nerve innervates the superior, medial, and inferior rectus muscles as well as the inferior oblique and levator palpebrae superioris muscles. 3. The superior oblique muscle originates above and medial to the optic foramen, while the inferior oblique muscle originates medially from the periosteum of the lacrimal bone. 4. The oculomotor or third cranial nerve innervates the superior, medial, and inferior rectus muscles as well as the inferior oblique and levator palpebrae superioris muscles.
128
128. Referred pain to the penis can be caused by which of the following neuralgias? 1. Ilioinguinal 2. Iliohypogastric 3. Genitofemoral 4. Lateral femoral cutaneous
128. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: 1. Pain referred to the penis may be due to neuralgia of the ilioinguinal nerve. 2. Pain referred to penis may be due to neuralgia of iliohypogastric nerve. 3. Pain referred to penis may be due to neuralgia of genitofemoral nerve. 4. Lateral femoral cutaneous neuralgia (meralgia paresthetica) usually causes pain in the lateral thigh without radiation to the penile shaft. Source: Kahn CH, DeSio JM. PreTest Self Assessment and Review. Pain Management. New York, McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1996.
129
129. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates which muscle/s? 1. Biceps brachii 2. Brachialis 3. Coracobrachialis 4. Brachiradialis
129. Answer: A | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
130
130. The following are true statements about the sympathetic nervous system: 1. Most cell bodies of preganglionic fi bers lie in the intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord from T1 to L2. 2. The preganglionic fi bers enter the dorsal root ganglion through the white rami communicantes. 3. The preganglionic fi bers enter the spinal nerve through the ventral root. 4. The post ganglionic fi bers exit the sympathetic ganglion via the gray rami communicantes
130. Answer: E (All) Explanation: Reference: Bonica’s Management of Pain, Third Edition, pp. 210-215 Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic fi bers lie primarily in the intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord from T1 to L2. The preganglionic axon fi bers course out of the spinal cord in the ventral root, course a short distance within the segmental spinal nerve and then exit the spinal nerve via the white rami communicantes. The white rami carries the preganglionic sympathetic fi bers to the sympathetic ganglia which consist of postganglionic cell bodies and are located in the prevertebral regions from the high cervical spine to the sacrum. Preganglionic fi bers may ascend or descend within the sympathetic chain for several levels before synapsing in the ganglion with the cell body of the post-ganglionic fi bers. The postganglionic sympathetic axons are then transmitted out of the ganglion by the gray rami communicantes where these axons travel with the spinal nerves to their end organs mainly blood vessels, sweat glands and hair follicles. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
131
131. Regarding a myelinated nerve fi ber, which of the following statements are true 1. the action potential is regenerated only at the nodes of Ranvier 2. the resting potential is about - 90 microvolts (μV) 3. sodium channels are present only at the nodes of Ranvier 4. potassium ions fl ow inward across the cell membrane during depolarization
131. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: An action potential occurs when an electrical, mechanical, or chemical stimulus increases neural membrane permeability to ion infl ux. 1. In myelinated nerves, the action potentials occur at the nodes of Ranvier and impulses are rapidly conducted by saltatory conduction. - In nonmyelinated nerves, the action potentials occur along the length of the axon. Such continuous conduction is much slower than the saltatory conduction of myelinated fi bers. 2. The resting transmembrane potential is around -90μV with high membrane permeability to potassium (K+) and limited sodium (Na+) permeability. 3. Sodium channels are present only at the nodes of Ranvier. 4. Increasing stimuli alter the membrane potential, the membrane becomes much more permeable to Na+. This causes sodium to fl ow in and potassium ions to fl ow outward. Chloride ion diffuses freely through the membrane in response to changes in polarity. - The opening and closing of K+ channels in response to stimuli is responsible for the depolarization and repolarization phases of the action potential. An ion channel, for example, enlarges during the depolarization phase (+60 to 70 μV). After depolarization, the Na+ channels lose their increased permeability to Na+, and K+ is pumped back into the cells during repolarization. The potential gradually returns to resting transmembrane potential. - The resting potential is maintained by diffusion of intracellular K+ out of the cell through partially open K+ channels.
132
132. The sphenopalatine ganglion: 1. Has sensory input from the trigeminal nerve 2. Is a parasympathetic ganglion 3. Has been injected to treat cluster headaches 4. When injected, causes a Horner’s syndrome
132. Answer: B (1 & 3 ) Explanation: 1. The sphenopalatine ganglion receives sensory input from a variety of nerves, including the trigeminal nerve. 2. It is a sympathetic ganglion. 3. Has been blocked to treat cluster headache. 4. It has efferents to the stellate ganglion, but does not cause a Horner’s syndrome. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
133
133.The following statements are true concerning intervertebral discs: 1. The structure of the posterior annulus is similar in lumbar and cervical discs. 2. The annulus of the intact lumbar disc consists of 10 to 20 lamella made up of vertically and horizontally oriented collagen fi bers. 3. In the intact lumbar disc, the annulus is thickest in the posterior portion and thinnest in the anterior portion 4. The gray rami commicantes innervates the outer third of the anterior and anterolateral annulus.
133. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: References: Mercer, The Ligaments and Anulus Fibrosus of Human Adult Cervical Intervertebral Discs, SPINE 1999;24:619 Bogduk, Clinical Anatomy of the Lumbar Spine and Sacrum, Third Edition, Churchill Livingston 1997, Chapter 2, pp. 26-29 1. The lumbar intervertebral discs function as load bearing shock absorbers whereas the cervical discs accommodate rotational motion of the cervical spine but do not bear signifi cant weight. - Therefore the anatomic structure of the lumbar and cervical discs is very different from each other. 2. The lumbar disc annulus consists of approximately 20 concentric lamellae of collagen fi bers that uniformly surround the nucleus pulposus with alternating oblique orientations slanted to approximately 65 degrees. - These lamellae are thicker in the anterior and lateral portions of the disc and thinner at the posterior disc margin. 3. The cervical anulus is crescentic, being thick anteriorly but tapering in thickness laterally as it approaches the uncovertebral region. There is no defi nable nucleus in the adult cervical disc. Posteriorly, the anulus fi brosus is not multilaminated like the anterior anulus of cervical discs or the posterior anulus of lumbar discs, nor does it consist of obliquely orientated fi bers. It is represented only by a thin set of vertically running fi bers. 4. In the lumbar disc, the gray rami communicantes innervates the anterior and anterolateral portions of the disc whereas the sinuvertebral nerve innervates the posterior disc annulus Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
134
134.Which of the following tendons are considered intra-articular but extrasynovial in proximity of the glenohumeral joint? 1. Infraspinatus Tendon 2. Subscapularis Tendon 3. Supraspinatus Tendon 4. Biceps Tendon
134. Answer: D (4 Only) | Source: Sizer Et Al - Pain Practice March & June 2003
135
135. Approaches to the brachial plexus block include: 1. Interscalene 2. Supraclavicular 3. Infraclavicular 4. Cervical transforaminal at C6 level
135. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: 1. The brachial plexus may be blocked through interscalene approach. 2. The brachial plexus may be blocked through supraclavicular approach. 3. The brachial plexus may be blocked through infraclavicular or axillary approach. 4. Cervical transforaminal is utilized for epidural block – individual nerves may be blocked, but not the plexus. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
136
136. Ankle blocks typically refer to blockade of the distal branches of which of the following nerves? 1. Common Peroneal 2. Tibial 3. Femoral 4. Obturator
136. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed.) Ankle blocks typically refer to blockade of the deep and superfi cial peroneal nerves, posterior tibial nerves, sural nerve, and saphenous nerve. The superfi cial peroneal, sural, saphenous are superfi cial to the fascia, whereas the deep peroneal and posterior tibial are deep to the fascia. The superfi cial peroneal and deep peroneal nerves are branches of the common peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal is medial to the dorsalis pedis artery. The posterior tibial nerve, a branch of the tibial nerve, lies in the tarsal tunnel, anterior to the posterior tibial artery and posterior to the fl exor hallicis longus. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve. The obturator supplies the hip adductors and sensation to a small area over the distal medial thigh. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2003
137
137.True statements regarding the ligamentum fl avum include 1. it is thinnest in the cervical region 2. it connects the laminate of adjacent vertebrae 3. it is thickest in the lumbar region 4. its fi bers are arranged parallel to the laminae to which it is attached
137. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: Each ligamentum fl avum consists of yellow elastic tissue attached to the anterior and inferior surfaces of the lamina above and to the posterior superior surface of the lamina below. 1 & 3. Ligamenta fl ava is thin in the cervical region, thicker in the thoracic region, and thickest in the lumbar region. 2. The ligamenta fl ava connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. 4. The fi bers of the ligamenta fl ava are oriented perpendicularly to the laminae to which they are attached.
138
138. Which of the following are true regarding a Chiari II malformation? 1. Most common serious posterior fossa malformation 2. Typically associated with myelomeningocele 3. Known as Arnold Chiari malformation 4. Associate with an alpha-fetoprotein marker
138. Answer: E (All) Explanation: The Chiari II malformation is a complex anomaly with skull, dura, brain, spinal, and spinal cord manifestations. This disorder is almost invariably associated with myelomeningocele. The Chiari II malformation is the most common serious malformation of the posterior fossa. The frequency is approximately 1 case per 1000 population in the United States. Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004
139
139. Ganglion impar is: 1. lowest sympathetic ganglion in the body 2. also named ganglion of Walther 3. located at sacrococcygeal junction 4. has ganglion cells
139. Answer: E (All) | Source: Racz G. Board Review 2003
140
``` 140. Head and neck nerves that are mixed (sensory and motor) nerves include: 1. Glossopha.ryngeal 2. Occipital 3. Sphenopalatine 4. Spinal accessory ```
140. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: The glossopharyngeal and sphenopalatine are mixed nerves. The spinal accessory is a motor nerve and the occipital is a sensory nerve. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
141
141. The posterior cord gives rise to what nerve/s? 1. Median 2. Axillary 3. Ulnar 4. Radial
141. Answer: C | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2006
142
``` 142. Which of the following are thought to be pain insensitive structures in the lung? 1. bronchi 2. visceral pleura 3. parietal pleura 4. Lung parenchyma ```
142. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: (Raj, Practical Management of Pain, 3rd Ed., page 618) 1. The trachea and bronchial tree send afferent input through the vagus and upper thoracic sympathetics (T2-7) and is pain radiates to the sternum. 2. The visceral pleura has no pain sensation. 3. The parietal pleura transmits pain along somatic nerves, such as the brachial plexus (C8,T1), intercostal nerves (T1-12), and phrenic nerves (C3-5). 4. The lung parenchyma is pain insensitive. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
143
143. The anterior surface of the head of each rib is connected to the sides of the bodies of two adjacent vertebrae by the following ligament. 1. Intraarticular 2. Superior costotransverse 3. Lateral costotransverse 4. Radiate
143. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: 1. The intraarticular ligament consists of a short fl at band of fi bers attached at one end to the crest separating the two articular facets on the head of the rib and at the other end tothe intervertebral disk. 2. The superior costotransverse ligament is attached to the superior border of the neck of the rib and passes laterally to the lower border of the neck of the transverse process immediately above. 3.The radiate ligament connects the anterior part of the head of each rib with the sides of the bodies of two adjacent vertebrae and the intervertebral disks between them. 4. The lateral costotransverse ligament passes from the apex of the transverse process of the vertebra to the rough and nonarticular portion of the tubercle of the corresponding rib.
144
144. The superior hypogastric plexus is: 1. a bilateral structure 2. located at the level of the third lumbar vertebra 3. in the proximity of the bifurcation of the common iliac vessels 4. a purely sympathetic chain
144. Answer: B (1 & 3) | Source: Nader and Candido – Pain Practice. June 2001
145
145. The following statements are true of spinal nerves 1. they exit the spinal canal at the intervertebral foramina 2. cervical spinal nerves form the intercostal nerves 3. they are derived from ventral and dorsal roots of the spinal cord 4. the dorsal rami combine to form plexuses at the cervical and lumbosacral levels
145. Answer: B (1 & 3 ) Explanation: 1. They exit the spinal canal through the intervertebral foramina and immediately split into dorsal and ventral rami. - The dorsal rami pass posteriorly to innervate the paraspinal muscles and skin. 2. Thoracic spinal nerves form intercostal nerves – not cervical 3. Spinal nerves are derived from the union of the corresponding ventral and dorsal roots of the spinal cord. 4. The ventral rami combine to form plexuses at cervical and lumbosacral levels. The thoracic spinal nerves from the intercostal nerves.
146
146. The intervertebral disc is composed of all of the following 1. Nucleus pulposus 2. Annulus fi brosis 3. Posterior longitudinal ligament 4. The end plates
146. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) | Source: Rozen. Pain Practice: SEP 2001
147
147. Which of the following are innervated by fi bers traversing celiac plexus? 1. Pancreas 2. Kidney 3. Duodenum 4. Descending colon
147. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) | Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
148
148.Which of the following factors induce pain in visceral structures? 1. Traction or compression of ligaments, vessels, or mesentery 2. Rapid stretching of the capsule of solid visceral organs 3. Ischemia of visceral musculature 4. Crushing or burning
148. Answer: A (1, 2 & 3) Explanation: Raj and Patt. Chapter 11. Visceral Pain. In: Pain Medicine: A Comprehensive Review, 2nd Edition, Raj, Mosby, 2003 Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
149
149. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the superior hypogastric plexus? 1. Adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta 2. Located at the lower 1/3 of L5 vertebral body 3. At the upper 1/3 of S1 vertebral body 4. Also named the presacral nerve
149. Answer: C (2 & 4) | Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
150
``` 150.Which of the following are indications for a superior hypogastric plexus blockade? 1. Bladder pain 2. Ovarian pain 3. Vulvar pain 4. Kidney pain ```
150. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. The bladder is innervated by the pelvic splanchnics (pain afferents with parasympathetics from the sacral roots). 2. Superior hypogastric plexus block is indicated for ovarian pain. 3. The vulva is innervated by somatic fi bers that travel with pudendal nerves. 4. Superior hypogastric plexus block is indicated for kidney pain. Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
151
``` 151.The musculocutaneous nerve innervates which of the following muscles? 1. Brachialis 2. Brachiradialis 3. Biceps brachii 4. Tricep ```
.151. Answer: B | Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
152
152. Which of the following are true? 1. Average spinal cord diameter at C4-5 is about 9-11 millimeters 2. With neck extension, the posterior longitudinal ligament is stretched 3. The ligamentum fl avum reinforces the anterior aspect the cervical facet joint capsule 4. The lateral atlanto-axial joints are responsible for nodding
152. Answer: B Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., pages 971-976) The average spinal cord diameter from C2-6 is about 10 millimeters and below C6 it is 7-9 millimeters. With neck extension, the posterior longitudinal ligament relaxes and the anterior longitudinal ligament stretches. The ligamentum fl avum looks like shingles on a roof: they span the anterior inferior surface of the cephalad lamina to the posterior superior margin of the caudad lamina. They are elastic and stretch laterally to reinforce the anterior aspect of the zygapophyseal joints. The lateral atlanto-axial joints contribute to rotation (the ‘NO’ joint) and the atlantooccipital joint contributes to fl exion-extension (nodding, the ‘YES’ joint). Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
153
``` 153.Which of the following cervical vertebra have three articulating surfaces? 1. C6 2. C2 3. C3 4. C1 ```
153. Answer: D Explanation: (Bonica, 3rd Ed., page 969) The atlas or C1 vertebra does not have a body. It is a solid ring of bone with two lateral pillars; the upper and lower surfaces articulate with the occiput and C2 vertebra respectively. The short anterior arch of C1 articulates with the odontoid process of C2 in the vertical plane. The C2 vertebra has four articulating surfaces. Excluding those two already mentioned, the inferior facet articulates with the superior facet of C3 and the posterior aspect of the dens articulates with the transverse alar ligament. The C3 and C7 vertebral bodies have only two each. The intervertebral disc and the uncinate processes are not true articular surfaces. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
154
154. If you use the external occipital protuberance as a point of reference and march anteriorly, you will encounter several nerves innervating the cranium. Which of the following sequences would be correct? 1. Least occipital nerve, Greater occipital nerve, Lesser occipital nerve, Greater auricular nerve 2. Lesser occipital nerve, Greater occipital nerve, Least occipital nerve, Auriculotemporal nerve 3. Least occipital nerve, Lesser occipital nerve, Greater auricular nerve, Auriculotemporal nerve 4. Greater occipital nerve, Least Occipital Nerve, Auricolotemporal, Greater auricular nerve
.154. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 229-231, Netter’s Anatomy Atlas) The correct order is least occipital nerve (C3), greater occipital nerve (C2), lesser occipital (C2-3), greater auricular nerve (C2-3), auriculotemporal (V3), supraorbital (V1), and supratrochlear(V1). Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
155
155. True statements regarding the pudendal nerve include 1. it is derived from the S2,S3, and S4 nerves 2. it leaves the pelvic cavity through the greater sciatic foramen 3. it receives sympathetic fi bers from the sacral portion of the sympathetic trunk 4. it divides into fi ve main branches
155. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. The somatic fi bers of the pudendal nerve are derived from the anterior primary divisions of the S2, S3 and S4 nerves. 2. The pudendal nerve leaves the pelvic cavity by passing through the greater sciatic foramen inferior to the piriformis muscle, between it and the coccygeal muscle. 3. The sympathetic fi bers of pudendal nerve are contributed by the sacral portion of the sympathetic pain. 4. The pudendal nerve trunk divides into three main branches: the inferior hemorrhoidal nerve, the perineal nerve, and the dorsal nerve to the clitoris (or to the penis).
156
156. True Tietze’s syndrome is a condition that includes all of the following except: 1. may be confused with myocardial ischemia 2. affl icts patients of all ages, but usually patients younger than 40 3. may be associated with bulbous swelling of the costal cartilages 4. involves the lower thoracic costo-transverse joints
156. Answer: D (4 only) Explanation: (Raj, Practical Management of Pain, 3rd Ed., page 620- 621) 1. Although Tietze’s syndrome is synonymous with costochondritis (infl ammation of the anterior joints corresponding to articulation between the sternum/manubrium and ribs), it is specifi c for a unilateral anterior chest pain involving the 2nd and 3rd anterior costal cartilages. A better term would be costochondral pain. This pain develops following blunt chest trauma, coughing due to upper respiratory infections,and overuse (washing windows or painting). It can be confused with myocardial infarction. 2. It affl icts patients of all ages, but usually those less than 40 years of age. 3. Bulbous swellings may persist for several months and point tenderness over the costochondral joints are common. Treatment is conservative: NSAIDS, TENS, local infi ltration, hot/cold packs, electroacupuncture. True costochondritis refers to infl ammation and arthritides of the costochondral joints at multiple locations. This affl icts elderly patients, but the treatment is similar to Tietze’s syndrome. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
157
157. Characteristics of the lumber vertebrae include 1. the body is wider 2. they are the largest of the immovable vertebrae 3. the lumbar vertebral (spinal) canal is larger than cervical canal 4. the lumbar vertebral (spinal) canal is larger than the thoracic canal
157. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. The laminae of lumbar vertebrae are broad, short, and strong. - The body of the vertebra is large and is wider transversely than anteroposteriorly and a little thicker anteriorly than posteriorly. 2. The lumbar vertebrae are the largest of the true immovable vertebrae and are also large in comparison to their own vertebral canal. 3. The lumbar vertebral (spinal) canal is triangular and is larger than the thoracic canal but smaller than the cervical canal. 4. The lumbar vertebral (spinal) canal is triangular and is larger than the thoracic canal but smaller than the cervical canal.
158
158. Which of the following is true about nervus intermedius: 1. neuralgia of this structure is also known as the otalgic type of geniculate neuralgia 2. it causes pain originating in the ear but radiating to deep facial structures 3. it can be lesioned alone or in conjunction with the following cranial nerves: VI, XI, XII. 4. surgical exposure to section this nerve is easier than that for trigeminal or glossopharyngeal structures
158. Answer: A (1,2, & 3) Explanation: (Raj. Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 313, Bonica 3rd Ed., page 938) Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is the reactivation of herpes zoster in the geniculate ganglion and can lead to ear and facial pain, rash over the face, hearing loss, and balance diffi culties. 1. The otalgic variety of geniculate neuralgia is known. 2. Pain can occur in the ear and radiate to the face. 3. It can be lesioned alone or in conjunction with the following cranial nerves: VI, XI, XII. 4. Surgical exposure of the nervus intermedius is more diffi cult than performing trigeminal or glossopharyngeal nerve sectioning. Additional cranial nerves that may be sectioned include VII, VIII, IX, and X. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
159
159.Which of the following do not share a common innervation with the temporomandibular joint? 1. masseter 2. lateral pterygoid 3. temporalis 4. buccinator
159. Answer: D (4 only) Explanation: (Raj, Practical Management of Pain 3rd Ed., page 580) 1, 2, 3. The trigeminal ganglion is commonly thought of as only a sensory neural structure, but in reality it provides motor innervation to the muscles of mastication: masseter, medial and lateral pterygoids, temporalis, mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscles. The temporomandibular joint is innervated by the maxillary nerve. 4. The facial nerve provides muscle innervation to the muscles of the face and taste sensation vis a vis chorda tympani. Recall the pneumonic:’To Zanzibar By Motor Car’, which describes the branches of the facial nerve. The buccinator is innervated by the buccal nerve. Temporalis Zygomatic Buccal Marginal Mandibular Chorda Tympani Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
160
160. True statements regarding the epidural space include that it is 1. bound anteriorly by the posterior longitudinal ligament 2. triangular in the cervical region 3. bound posteriorly by the ligamentum fl avum 4. most narrow posteriorly
160. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: 1. The epidural space is bound anteriorly by the posterior longitudinal ligament and the vertebral bodies, and laterally by the pedicles and intervertebral foramina. 2. In the lumbar region, the epidural space is triangular with the apex of the triangle corresponding to the posterior midline of the vertebral canal. 3. Posterior boundaries of the epidural space include the laminae and ligamenta fl ava, while its inferior boundary is its continuation with the sacral canal. 4. The size of the epidural space varies greatly. The anterior portion is the narrowest (approximately 1 mm).
161
161. Landmarks used in performing a deep cervical plexus block include the 1. mastoid process 2. cricoid cartilage 3. Chassaignac’s tubercle (C6) 4. posterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle
161. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1, 2 & 3. Insertion sites are located by reference to a line that joins the tip of the mastoid process with Chassaignac’s tubercle of C6, which is palpated at the level of the cricoid cartilage. - The deep cervical plexus is composed of the C2-C4 spinal nerves as they emerge from the foramina in the cervical vertebrae. 4. The posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is the major point of reference used in performing blockade of the superfi cial cervical plexus.
162
``` 162.Which of the following brain structures contain high concentrations of adrenergic neurons? 1. Dorsal raphe 2. Locus ceruleus 3. Striatum 4. Pons ```
162. Answer: C (2 & 4)
163
163. The inferior hypogastric Plexus: 1. Is a unilateral structure 2. Is situated on either side of the rectum 3. Provides innervation to the perineum 4. Provides afferent information from the prostrate
163. Answer: C (2 & 4) | Source: Nader and Candido – Pain Practice. June 2001
164
``` 164. The muscles of anterior abdominal wall include all the following : 1. cremaster 2. internal oblique 3. pyramidalis 4. external oblique ```
164. Answer: E (All) Explanation: The muscles of the abdomen are divided into an anterolateral group and a posterior group. The anterolateral group is composed of four fl at muscular sheets that form the anterior abdominal wall. These muscles include the internal and external obliques; the transversus and rectus abdominis; and the cremaster and pyramidalis muscles, which are involved in suspending the testes and tensing the midline tendinous raphe of the abdominal wall, respectively.
165
165.Which of the statements regarding spinal structures is correct: 1. The anterior column consists of vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs. 2. The pars interarticularis connects the posterior spinal elements to the vertebral body 3. The posterior spinal elements include the spinous processes, zygapophysial or facet joints, and the lamina. 4. The dens is part of the atlas
165. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, Thirteenth American Edition. Page 127- 130. 1. The anterior spinal column consists of vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs. 2. The spinal canal lies between the anterior column and the posterior elements and transmits the spinal cord and below L2, the cauda equina. - The pedicle connects the lamina to the vertebral body, thus connecting the posterior and anterior spinal structures. - The pars interarticularis is part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articular processes. 3. The posterior elements consist of spinous processes, lamina, zygapophysial (facet) joints and posterior spinal ligaments (supraspinous, infraspinous and ligamentum fl avum). 4. The dens (odontoid process) is the tooth-like projection of the C2 vertebral body (the axis) that juts upward into the anterior arch of C1 (the atlas). Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
166
``` 166. Which of the following nerve entrapments is a potential cause of eye pain? 1. Supraorbital 2. Occipital 3. Infraorbital 4. Mandibular ```
166. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. The supraorbital nerve innervates the eye. 2. The occipital nerve transmits the referred pain. 3. Infraorbital nerve innervates the eye. 4. The mandibular nerve innervates the lower jaw. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
167
167. True statements with regard to the celiac plexus include 1. it lies anterior to the crura of the diaphragm 2. the entire plexus lies anterior to the stomach and omental bursa 3. it is composed of parasympathetic and sympathetic fi bers 4. it lies posterior to the vertebral body of L1
167. Answer: A ( 1, 2, & 3) Explanation: 1. The plexus is situated in the epigastrium just anterior to the crura of the diaphragm. 2. The entire plexus lies posterior to the stomach and the omental bursa not anterior. 3. The celiac plexus is composed of two or more large aggregates of ganglion cells, the right and left celiac ganglia, a number of smaller ganglia, and a dense network of parasympathetic and sympathetic efferent and afferent fi bers that enmesh these ganglia. 4. The plexus is situated anterior to the body of fi rst lumbar vertebra not posterior.
168
168.The following are true statements about the pars interarticularis: 1. It is a part of the pedicle which attaches to the vertebral body. 2. Spondylolisthesis is the term used to describe a bilateral pars defect 3. A pars defect is present in approximately 1% of asymptomatic individuals 4. It is represented by the “neck” of the Scotty dog on oblique fluoroscopic imaging.
168. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: Bogduk, Clinical Anatomy of the Lumbar Spine and Sacrum, Third Edition 1. The pars interarticularis is a part of the lamina which connects the superior and inferior articular processes. 2. Spondylolysis is the term used to describe a pars defect. - Spondylolysis was originally thought to be a defect caused by failure of union between two ossifi cation centers in the vertebral lamina. - Recent evidence however clearly shows that spondylolysis is an acquired defect caused by a fatigue fracture of the pars interarticularis. 3. Pars defects are not necessarily painful and are present in approximately 10% of asymptomatic individuals. - Nonetheless, in the presence of a pars defect, the posterior spinal elements are disconnected from the anterior spinal column and constitute a “fl ail segment”. - This may cause motion instability and the forward movement of one vertebral body on another known as spondylolisthesis. - The pars defect itself is innervated with free nociceptive nerve endings and certainly has the potential to be painful. - It has been suggested that infi ltration of the pars defect may help to determine whether or not it is involved in pain generation. - However, no studies have established how often a pars defect is the cause for back pain. 4. Fluoroscopically, the pars interarticularis is represented by the neck of the “Scotty dog” and a pars defect appears as a “collar” on the dog’s neck. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
169
169. The innervaton of the diaphragm includes 1. Vagus nerves 2. Intercostal nerves 3. Lumbar plexus 4. Cervical plexus
169. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. Vagus nerves do not innervate the diaphragm. 2. The diaphragm’s peripheral muscular fi bers are supplied by the 6th to the 11th or 12th intercostal nerves. 3. Lumbar plexus does not innervate the diaphragm. 4.The most central portion of the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerves, which arise from the two cervical plexuses (C3-C5).
170
``` 170. Afferent fi bers from the heart enter the central nervous system via the: 1. vagus nerve 2. greater splanchnic nerve 3. middle cervical ganglion 4. superior cervical ganglion ```
170. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: (Raj, Practical Management of Pain 3rd Ed., page 618) The visceral afferent fi bers of the heart are transmitted through the vagus, cervical ganglia (middle and inferior cervical nerves), and the upper fi ve thoracic ganglia (thoracic cardiac nerves)…all of which send input to the central nervous system via T1-5. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2005
171
171. Choose the correct statement(s) with respect to sensory innervation of the posterior primary division of a spinal nerve: 1. periosteum 2. Cutaneous and muscular structures 3. Facet or zygapophysial joints 4. Posterior longitudinal ligament
171. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. The posterior primary division provides sensory fi bers to periosteum. 2. The posterior primary division provides sensory fi bers to cutaneous and muscular structures. 3. The posterior primary division provides sensory fi bers to facet joints. 4. The sinuvertebral nerves supply posterior longitudinal ligament and other structures within the spinal canal.
172
``` 172. Which of the following are branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal ganglion? 1. Supratrochlear nerve 2. Infraorbital nerve 3. Frontal nerve 4. Auriculotemporal nerve ```
172. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: 1. Supratrochlear nerve is a branch of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve. 2. Infratrochlear nerve is a branch of maxillary nerve (DR M CHECK) 3. Frontal nerve is a branch of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve. 4. Auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of mandibular nerve. Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2003
173
173. Ilioinguinal nerve entrapment: 1. courses in an L1-L2 nerve distribution 2. Has an S2-S4 nerve distribution 3. May be noticed postoperatively 4. Is usually of a cyclical nature
173. Answer: B (1 & 3) | Source: Nader and Candido – Pain Practice. June 2001
174
174. Scenario:A needle is placed into the spinal canal of a cadaver. The needle enters the skin in the mid-sagittal plane of the spine and travels through the spinal canal from the midline posterior to the midline anterior.The following statements are true: 1. With regards to ligaments, the needle would cross the interspinous ligament fi rst, the supraspinous ligament second and the ligamentum fl avum third. 2. The needle would encounter the posterior longitudinal ligament only after penetrating the entire thickness of spinal cord. 3. The needle tip would encounter cerebrospinal fl uid immediately after penetrating the dura mater and just prior to penetrating the arachnoid membrane. 4. The needle would enter the dorsal epidural space immediately after exiting the ligamentum fl avum
174. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, Thirteenth American Edition. Pages 345- 350. 1. The posterior spinal ligaments consist of the supraspinous, the interspinous and the ligamentum fl avum. The supraspinous is the most superfi cial and connects the apices of the spinous processes from the C7 to the sacrum. The interspinous ligament connects adjacent spinous processes with one another and is interposed between the supraspinous and the ligamentum fl avum. The ligamentum fl avum is markedly elastic and connects the lamina of one segment to the adjacent lamina. The ligamentum fl avum is the roof of the dorsal epidural space. 2. The posterior longitudinal ligament runs the length of the spinal column from the axis to the sacrum. This ligament is within the spinal canal and is just anterior to the spinal cord and anterior epidural space. The posterior longitudinal ligament separates the intervertebral disc annulus from the spinal canal. - The anterior longitudinal ligament lies on the ventral surface of the vertebral bodies extending from the axis to the sacrum. 3. The layers of the spinal canal consist of the dura mater, the arachnoid and the pia mater. The dura is a substantial fi brous tissue that is the inner boarder of the epidural space. - Once the dura is penetrated the needle tip enters a potential space called the subdural space. This space is fi lled with a small amount of serosanguinous fl uid. The subdural space is often transcended entirely with quick penetration of the thin and closely apposed arachnoid membrane which allows access to the cerebrospinal fl uid compartment. The pia mater is closely adherent to the spinal cord and the CSF fl ows between the pia and the arachnoid. 4. The epidural space is a circular space which surrounds the spinal canal and its contents.Posteriorly in the midline, the dura is the fl oor of the epidural space and the ligamentum fl avum is the roof. Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
175
175. The following nerve(s) are branch or branches of the maxillary nerve contained within the pterygopalatine fossa: 1. Greater Palatine 2. Nasopalatine 3. Superior Alveolar 4. Inferior Alveolar
175. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1, 2 & 3. Branches of the maxillary nerve within the pterygopalatine fossa include the pharyngeal branch to the mucosa of the pharynx, the greater palatine branch to the mucosa of the posterior palate, the nasopalatine branch to the septal mucosa through the incisive canal to the anterior hard palate, and the superior alveolar branch to the second and third maxillary molars. 4. The inferior alveolar nerve is a sensory branch of the mandibular nerve that supplies the mandibular teeth,body of the mandible, and labial gingiva anterior to the bicuspid teeth
176
176. The visceral pleura receives innervation from 1. intercostal nerves 2. sympathetic fi bers with vasomotor function 3. primary nociceptive afferent fi bers 4. parasympathetic fi bers via the pulmonary plexus
176. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. The parietal pleura is supplied by the intercostal nerves at its lateral aspects, by the T1 spinal nerve at its apex, and by the phrenic nerves on the diaphragmatic surface. 2. The visceral pleura is supplied by sympathetic fi bers that have a vasomotor function. 3. It has afferent fi bers that do not have a nociceptive function, making it insensitive to noxious stimuli. 4. Visceral pleura receives parasympathetic fi bers through the pulmonary plexuses.
177
``` 177. A mandibular nerve block at the coronoid notch may result in the following: 1. Anesthesia of the cornea 2. Loss of sensation to the tongue 3. A subarachnoid injection 4. Anesthesia to the chin ```
177. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. A trigeminal nerve block at the foramen ovale can result in anesthesia to the eye. 2. The mandibular nerve block at the coronoid will include the lingular nerve which gives sensation to the tongue resulting in loss of sensation. 3. A trigeminal nerve block at foramen ovale can result in subarachnoid injection. 4. The mandibular nerve block at coronoid notch will block the mental nerve which innervates the chin. Source: Trescot AM, Board Review 2003
178
178. Choose all items that correctly match anatomic structures with their level of termination in adults. 1. Spinal cord, L1-L2 2. Preganglionic sympathetic nerves, L2 3. Spinal canal, sacral hiatus 4. Dural sac, S4
178. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: 1. In adults the spinal cord ends at L1-L2. 2. The sympathetic nerve fi ber originates in the intermediolateral grey column of the T1-L2 spinal segments. 3. The spinal canal originates at the foramen magnum and terminates at the sacral hiatus. 4. The dural sac terminates at S2 in adults – not S4.
179
179.When performing an interlaminar epidural injection, each of the following structures is traversed 1. supraspinous ligament 2. ligamentum fl avum 3. interspinous ligament 4. posterior longitudinal ligament
179. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: The supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, and ligamentum fl avum are traversed, after which continued advancement places the needle in the epidural space. 1. The supraspinous ligament is a strong, fi brous cord that connects the spinous processes from the C7 vertebra to the sacrum. The needle passes through this ligament during an interlaminar epidural injection. 2. The ligamentum fl avum connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. The needle passes through this ligament during an interlaminar epidural injection. 3. The interspinous ligaments are thin and membranous and connect adjoining spinous processes, extending from the root to the apex of each process. The needle passes through this ligament during an interlaminar epidural injection. 4. The posterior longitudinal ligament extends from the axis to the sacrum and passes over the dorsal surface of the bodies of the vertebrae and the intervertebral disks. - Although the posterior longitudinal ligament is the anterior boundary for the epidural space,it is not traversed when an epidural injection is performed. - It will only be traversed if the needle went through the spinal cord.
180
``` 180. All the following nerves pass in front of the ear to provide innervation of the scalp 1. supraorbital nerve 2. auriculotemporal nerve 3. supratrochlear nerve 4. zygomaticotemporal nerve ```
180. Answer: E (All) Explanation: - There are eight nerves involved in processing sensory information to the scalp. - Four sensory nerves pass in front of the ear to the scalp: the supratrochlear and supraorbital nerve from V1 (ophthalmic branch of trigeminal); the zygomaticotemporal nerve from V2 (maxillary branch of trigeminal); and the auriculotemporal nerve from V3 (mandibular branch of trigeminal). -Four nerves pass behind the ear: the great auricular nerve and the greater, lesser, and least occipital nerves from the cervical plexus. - All eight nerves converge toward the vertex of the scalp. 1. Supraorbital nerve from ophthalmic branch of trigeminal also passes in front of ear. 2. Auriculotemporal nerve, a branch of mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve also passes in front of the ear. 3. Supratrochlear nerve from ophthalmic branch of trigeminal passes in front of the ear. 4. Zygomatico temporal nerve from maxillary branch of trigeminal also passes in front of the ear.
181
181. The following statements regarding the sacral canal are true 1. it communicates laterally with the sacral foramina 2. the volume of sacral canal exceeds 100 mL 3. it contains the cauda equina 4. its superior border is the sacral hiatus
181. Answer: B (1 & 3) Explanation: 1. The sacral canal is the continuation of the lumbar spinal canal. It communicates laterally with the anterior and posterior sacral foramina. 2. The volume of the sacral canal, including the sacral foraminal extensions, varies between 12 and 65 mL with a mean of about 30 to 34 mL. 3. The canal contains the fi ve sacral nerve roots and the coccygeal nerve, which constitute the cauda equina. Sacral canal also contains the fi lum terminale, which exits through the sacral hiatus to attach to the back of the coccyx. 4. Inferiorly, the sacral canal terminates at the sacral
182
182. Abdominal autonomic plexuses include all the following: 1. celiac plexus 2. inferior hypogastric plexus 3. superior hypogastric plexus 4. esophageal plexus
182. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: The abdomen contains three large plexuses composed of prevertebral sympathetic ganglia, parasympathetic fi bers from the vagus or sacral parasympathetics, and visceral afferent fi bers. 1 The celiac plexus innervates the abdominal viscera. 2. The inferior hypogastric plexus also supplies the pelvic viscera. 3. The superior hypogastric plexuses supply the pelvic viscera. 4. Esophageal plexus is not (T-T5) abdominal autonomic plexus
183
183. Which of the following statements are ture regarding the brainstem? 1. It is made up of the medulla, pons and midbrain 2. It is roofed by the fourth ventricle 3. It is bounded rostrally by the thalamus 4. It is bounded ventrally by the clivus
183. Answer: E (All) Explanation: 1. The brainstem is the most caudal portion of the brain and consists of the medulla (myelencephalon), pons (metencephalon), and midbrain (mesencephalon). 2. The brainstem is roofed by the fourth ventricle. 3. The brain stem is bounded rostrally by the thalamus. 4. The brain stem is bounded ventrally by a fl at bone called the clivus. - It is bounded dorsally by the fourth ventricle and cerebellum caudally by the spinal cord.
184
``` 184. Blockade of the sympathetic efferent activity can be accomplished by which of the following? 1. Intravenous regional anesthesia 2. Intraspinal local anesthetic 3. Perivascular infi ltration 4. Somatic nerve block ```
184. Answer: E (All) Explanation: Sympathetic fi bers can be blocked at all locations. Raj, Practical Management of Pain, 3rd edition, page 655
185
185. Correct statements regarding the sympathetic nervous system include the following. 1. It has cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the anterolateral quadrant of the spinal cord 2. It has lumbar ganglia that lie on the posterolateral surface of the respective vertebrae 3. It has axons that pass via posterior spinal roots to reach paravertebral ganglia 4. It has paravertebral ganglia that extend from the second cervical vertebra to the coccyx
185. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: 1. Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons lie within the intermediolateral gray of spinal cord segments (T1-L2). 2. Lumbar ganglia lie on the anterolateral surface of the respective vertebrae. 3. Axons from these preganglionic neurons pass by way of anterior spinal roots and rami communicantes to reach paravertebral ganglia of the sympathetic chain. 4. Paravertebral ganglia are segmentally arrayed in bilateral vertical rows extending from the second cervical vertebra to the coccyx.
186
186.The true statements with regard to the superior hypogastric plexus include the following 1. is located at the level of the aortic bifurcation 2. often lies to the right of the midline 3. contains parasympathetic fi bers derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves 4. receives contributions from the L5 and S1 splanchnic nerves
186. Answer: B (1 & 3 ) Explanation: 1. The superior hypogastric plexus is situated in front of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta,the body of the fi fth lumbar vertebra, and the promontory of the sacrum. 2. Superior hypogastric plexus often lies in the extraperitoneal connective tissue, often to the left of the midline - not to the right. 3. In addition to the sympathetic fi bers that descend to form the superior hypogastric plexus, the superior hypogastric plexus contains parasympathetic fi bers derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which ascend from the inferior hypogastric plexus. 4. The superior hypogastric plexus is formed by the union of branches from the aortic plexus with contributions by the L3 and L4 splanchnic nerves.
187
``` 187. Landmarks used in performing a superior laryngeal nerve block include the 1. Transverse process of C6 2. Cricoid cartilage 3. Angle of the mandible 4. Greater cornu of the hyoid cartilage ```
187. Answer: C (2 & 4)
188
188. Serotonergic neurons are found predominately in the 1. Dorsal raphe 2. Locus ceruleus 3. Limbic system 4. Substantia nigra
188. Answer: B (1 & 3)
189
189. Landmarks for the caudal block include the 1. Sciatic notch 2. Posterior-superior iliac spines 3. Iliac crests 4. Sacral cornu
189. Answer: C (2 & 4)
190
190. What are the requirements for single system physical examination? 1. For musculoskeletal system examination primary system is musculoskeletal 2. For neurological system examination primary system is nervous system 3. Other systems to be examined for musculoskeletal system/ single system examination include lymphatic and psychiatric systems 4. Other systems for neurological examination include psychiatric and cardiovascular systems
``` 190. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: SINGLE SYSTEM EXAMINATION MUSCULOSKELETAL * Primary - Musculoskeletal * Other - Constitutional - Neurological - Cardiovascular – Peripheral - Lymphatic - Skin - Psychiatric NEUROLOGICAL * Primary - Neurological * Other - Constitutional - Musculoskeletal - Cardiovascular - Eyes ```
191
191. The following nerves usually blocked at the ankle do not contain motor fi bers? 1. Posterior tibial nerve 2. Saphenous nerve 3. Deep peroneal nerve 4. Sural nerve
191. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: Five nerves are blocked when performing an ankle block. The saphenous, superfi cial peroneal, and sural nerves are all sensory below the ankle. 1. The posterior tibial nerve causes fl exion of the toes by stimulating the fl exor digitorium brevis muscles and abduction of the fi rst toe by stimulating the abductor hallucis muscles. - The posterior tibial nerve is sensory to most of the plantar part of the foot. 2. Saphenous nerve below ankle does not contain motor fi bers. 3. Stimulation of the deep peroneal nerve causes extension of the toes by stimulating the extensor digitorum brevis muscles. - The deep peroneal nerve has a small sensory branch for the fi rst interdigital cleft. 4. Sural nerve below ankle does not contain motor fi bers.
192
192. True statements regarding epidural veins include 1. They communicate with abdominal veins via the intervertebral foramina 2. They lie in the anterolateral part of the epidural space 3. They are large and valveless 4. They are small and valveless
192. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. By way of the intervertebral foramina at each level, the vertebral plexus communicates with thoracic and abdominal veins. - Marked increases in intraabdominal pressure may compress the inferior vena cava while distending the epidural veins and increasing fl ow up the vertebrobasilar plexus. 2. The major portion of this plexus lies in the anterolateral part of the epidural space, out of reach of a correctly placed epidural needle. 3. Epidural veins are large and valveless. They are part of the internal vertebral venous plexus, which drains the neural tissue of the spinal cord, CSF, and the bony spinal canal. 4. Epidural veins are large and valveless. They are part of the internal vertebral venous plexus, which drains the neural tissue of the spinal cord, CSF, and the bony spinal canal.
193
193. Sensory innervation to the larynx is derived from 1. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve 2. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve 3. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 4. Glossopharyngeal nerve
193. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: 1. The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal cords. 2. The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the anterior subglottic mucosa. 3. The recurrent laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the larynx below the vocal cords. 4. Glossopharyngeal nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the larynx. It provides sensory innervation to tongue and pharynx. (DR M NEED TO CHECK FOR ACCURACY)
194
194. The skin of the penis is supplied by: 1. the two dorsal nerves of the penis 2. the pudendal nerve (S2-S4) 3. the ilioinguinal nerve (base of the penis) 4. the iliohypogastric nerve (L 1-L2)
194. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) | Source: Nader and Candido – Pain Practice. June 2001
195
195. Branches of the sciatic nerve include 1. Posterior tibial 2. Common peroneal 3. Sural 4. Saphenous
195. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3) Explanation: There are four main nerves in the lower extremity: the sciatic, femoral, obturator, and lateral femoral cutaneous. 1, 2. The sciatic nerve is the largest of the four and divides into the posterior tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve at the popliteal fossa. 3. The common peroneal nerve divides further into the deep and superfi cial peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve divides into the posterior tibial and sural nerves. - Thus, four of the fi ve nerves that provide sensory innervation to the ankle arise from the sciatic nerve: deep peroneal, superfi cial peroneal, posterior tibial and sural. 4. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve
196
196. The true statements about cricothyroid muscle include: 1. Is an extrinsic muscle of the larynx 2. Receives innervation from the recurrent laryngeal nerve 3. Receives innervation from the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve 4. It tenses the vocal cords
196. Answer: D (4 Only) Explanation: 1. The cricothyroid muscle is an intrinsic muscle of the larynx. 2. The cricothyroid is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve of the vagus. 3. The cricothyroid is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve of the vagus. 4. The cricothyroid muscle is the only intrinsic muscle of the larynx that tenses the vocal cords. - All other intrinsic muscles of the larynx receive motor innervation from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
197
``` 197. Landmarks for the sciatic nerve via a posterior approach include the 1. Posterior superior iliac spine 2. Coccyx 3. Greater trochanter of the femur 4. Iliac crest ```
197. Answer: B (1 & 3)
198
198.Recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis is a recognized complication of which of the following procedures? 1. Ligation of a patent ductus arteriosus 2. Stellate ganglion block 3. Mediastinoscopy 4. Use of a topical ice slush during hear surgery
198. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
199
199. Which of the following anatomic landmarks are needed in order to perform a trigeminal ganglion block? 1. External auditory meatus 2. Pupil 3. Lips 4. Mandibular notch
199. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. Needle trajectory should aim superiorly toward the anterior aspect of the external auditory meatus (in a lateral view). 2. In the coronal plane the needle should be in the directionof the mid-pupillary line. 3. The needle is inserted 2 – 2.5 cm lateral to lips. 4. The mandibular notch is used for the infrazygomatic sphenopalatine ganglion block Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2003
200
200. Which of the following are true regarding sympathetic fi bers that exit the spinal cord and connect with the sympathetic chain? 1. Are preganglionic fi bers 2. Connect with ventral root fi bers 3. Travel in white communicating rami 4. Synapse with up to 30 postsynaptic nerves
200. Answer: E (All) | Source: Raj P, Practical Management of Pain, 3rd Ed.
201
201. Innervation of the discs include all of the following 1. Sinuvertebral nerve 2. Lateral branch 3. L2 roots 4. Rami communicantes
201. Answer: D (4 Only) | Source: Rozen. Pain Practice: SEP 2001
202
202. True statements about the intervertebral disc include the following. 1. It receives blood supply from vessels in the bodies of adjacent vertebrae 2. It receives nutrients by diffusion after its blood supply diminishes 3. It receives nutrients by alternating compression and relaxation of the annulus fi brosus 4. It becomes avascular after the sixth decade of life
202. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3 ) Explanation: 1. Early in life, the blood supply to the disk is from the periphery as well as from vessels in the bodies of adjacent vertebrae, which grow through the cartilaginous plates and run toward but do not reach the nucleus pulposus. 2. After 3rd decade intervertebral disk receives nutrients by diffusion of solutes, lymph and other fl uids through the cervical portion, the vertebral end plate, and the annulus fibrosus. 3. Intervertebral disk receives nutrition by alternating compression and relaxation of the elastic container. 4. Shortly after birth, the vascular supply begins to diminish and by the third decade of life, the disk is almost avascular. Source: Kahn and Desio
203
203. The term fl oating applies to the following ribs. 1. 1st 2. 11th 3. 2nd 4. 12th
203. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: - The fi rst seven pairs of the 12 ribs are known as the vertebrosternal ribs. They connect dorsally with the vertebral column and ventrally with the sternum by means of costal cartilages. - The remaining fi ve pairs are “false” ribs and consists of two types. The 8th to 10th ribs have their cartilages attached to the cartilage of the rib above (vertebrochondral). 2 & 4. The 11th and 12th ribs are free at their anterior extremities and are referred to as fl oating or vertebral ribs because they do not attach to the sternum.
204
204. Characteristics of the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL) include the following: 1. It begins to progressively widen below the L1 vertebral level 2. It extends along the posterior surface of the body of the vertebra 3. It is composed of fi bers that are less compact than those of the anterior longitudinal ligament 4. It contributes to the anterior wall of the vertebral canal
204. Answer: C (2 & 4) Explanation: 1. The PLL is broad throughout the length of the vertebral column until it reaches the L1 vertebral level, where it begins to narrow progressively so that at the L5-S1 interspace it is one half its original width. 2. The posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL) extends along the posterior surface of the body of the vertebra from the cervical axis to the sacrum. 3. The PLL is composed of longitudinal fi bers that are denser and more compact than those of the anterior longitudinal ligament. 4. It contributes to the anterior wall of the vertebral canal.
205
205. Which of the following joints includes an intra-articular disc that creates two joint compartments? 1. Acromioclavicular joint 2. Glenohumeral joint 3. Scapulothoracic joint 4. Sternoclavicular joint
205. Answer: D (4 Only) | Source: Sizer Et Al - Pain Practice March & June 2003