ASIPP Geriatrics Questions Flashcards
1738.A 67-year-old musician presents with a long history
of low back pain, Pain is worsened with prolonged
standing and with exercise, For the last several months,
the patient has noticed that the back pain comes on with
walking less than one block and radiates to the buttocks,
The pain is relieved by sitting for several minutes, On
physical examination, there are no neurologic defi cits
and bilateral straight-leg raising maneuvers are normal.
Peripheral pulses are strong and bilaterally equal. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lumbar spinal stenosis
B. Peripheral vascular disease
C. Lumbosacral sprain
D. Disk herniation
E. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, p 796.)
The patient is describing pseudoclaudication, which is
characteristic of lumbar spinal stenosis. This arises from
compression of the exiting nerve roots by a disk,
osteophyte, or narrow canal. The leg pain is most
pronounced when walking downhill or descending stairs
and takes several minutes of sitting or fl exing f
orward before resolution. Often patients who
continue to walk with pain will stoop over to relieve the
symptoms (stoop sign). Claudication is seen in peripheral
vascular disease, but the pain that occurs with walking
resolves immediately upon stopping or standing without
sitting. Peripheral pulses may be compromised. Diffuse
idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) causes
calcifi cation of the longitudinal ligaments of the spine and
is usually found in patients with diabetes mellitus
1739.The initial starting dose for a geriatric patient requiring nortriptyline is: A. 10 mg B. 25 mg C. 50 mg D. 100 mg E. 200 mg
- Answer: A
Source: Jackson KC. Board Review 2003
1740. The leading cause of death in the elderly population is A. Heart disease B. Malignancies C. Cerebrovascular disease D. Pulmonary disease E. Trauma (e.g., Harley accidents)
- Answer: A
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2003
1741.Which of the following is true regarding hepatic changes
in the elderly:
A. Conjugation changes little with age.
B. Demethylation increases with age.
C. Liver mass decrease starting at age 40.
D. Serum albumin levels remain the same.
E. Serum blood levels of drugs with high fi rst pass metabolism
remain the same.
- Answer: A
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
1742. Exercise in the geriatric population has been found to A. reduce falls. B. increase strength C. reduce depression D. all of the above E. none of the above
- Answer: D
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
- An elderly old woman presents with a new onset, severe
right-sided headache for 1 day. She states that the vision
in her right eye has diminished, and she complains of
claudication of her jaw when she is chewing food. On
physical examination, her right temple is tender to
palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute frontal sinusitis
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Migraine headache
D. Cluster headache
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 820-822.)
Giant cell arteritis or temporal arteritis usually
appears after the age of 55 and is more common
in women than men. Patients typically present with
severe headache, malaise, fever, and tenderness
over the involved temporal artery. Patients may
have ocular symptoms due to ischemic optic neuropathy
(blindness is an irreversible complication) and complain
of jaw pain when chewing (jaw claudication). Polymyalgia
rheumatica (limb girdle stiffness and pain, weight loss,
malaise) may be seen in up to 30% of patients with
temporal arteritis. Patients suspected of having temporal arteritis require immediate corticosteroids; diagnosis is
confi rmed by temporal artery biopsy. Trigeminal neuralgia
(tic douloureux) causes severe unilateral facial pain but is
not associated with vision changes or claudication. Cluster
headaches occur mostly in men and are characterized by
periorbital or temporal pain lasting up to 2 h and
accompanied by lacrimation and ptosis. Patients complain
of several attacks a day for several weeks followed by a
period of remission.
1744.An elderly woman being treated for spinal stenosis,
presents with a new problem with the sudden onset of
severe left-sided chest pain that radiates in a bandlike
fashion to her left side and back. Pain is excruciating and
area is hyperesateric. Heart and lung examinations are
normal. No rash is visible. Electrocardiogram is normal.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gastroesophageal refl ux disease
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Herpes zoster
D. Costochondritis
E. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
- Answer: C
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 105-106.)
Herpes zoster is due to reactivation of latent
varicella virus; patients typically present with a
history of pain, tingling, or itching of the affected
area followed by an eruption of vesicles overlying
an erythematous base. Although the disease can
disseminate and produce diffuse eruptions, it typically
presents with involvement of a single dermatome. The
disease is not limited to adults or immunocompromised
patients and may be seen in children.
1745.A 66-year-old man has the chief complaint of pain and
numbness over the lateral aspect of the right thigh. He has
no back pain or diffi culty ambulating. The symptoms are
relieved by sitting. Physical examination is normal except
for impaired cutaneous sensation over the affected lateral
aspect of the right thigh. There is a negative straight-leg
raise maneuver; motor strength and deep tendon refl exes
are normal. Romberg test is negative. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Peroneal nerve palsy
B. Meralgia paresthetica
C. Vitamin B12 defi ciency
D. Sciatic nerve palsy
E. Femoral neuropathy
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, p 997.)
The patient describes symptoms due to compression of the
lateral femoral cutaneous nerve arising from the L2 and L3
roots (meralgia paresthetica). Entrapment of the nerve at
any point from hyperextension of the hip may cause
symptoms. Symptoms are usually mild, but patients may
require hydrocortisone injections medial to the iliac spine.
Patients with femoral neuropathy present with weakness
and wasting of the quadriceps muscle, sensory
impairment,and an absent patellar refl ex. The
Romberg test is performed by having the patient
stand with feet together, head erect, and eyes open.
The patient is then examined for steadiness and
then asked to close his or her eyes. A positive test
occurs when the patient displays increased unsteadiness
with the eyes closed but not with the eyes open.
A positive Romberg test may be seen in diseases that
affect the dorsal columns, such as tabes dorsalis and
vitamin B12 defi ciency
1746.An elderly woman presents with paresthesias of the
feet and an unsteady gait for several months. Other
than a previous history of anemia, the patient has no
past medical history. She takes no medications and
does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. On physical
examination, the patient is alert and oriented but cannot
recall three objects after 5 min. Her gait is unsteady and
broad-based, and she has increased muscle tone in the
lower extremities. Muscle strength is normal, but the
patient has diminished sensation to vibration from the
midcalf areas to the feet. Patellar and ankle refl exes are
absent bilaterally. The patient has bilateral extensor
Babinski refl exes and a positive Romberg test. Laboratory
data reveal a macrocytic anemia. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitamin B12 defi ciency
B. Tabes dorsalis
C. Lead poisoning
D. Vitamin B6 defi ciency
E. Vitamin E defi ciency
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 474-475.)
The patient most likely has vitamin B12 defi ciency due to
pernicious anemia (lack of intrinsic factor). Patients show
loss of posterior column sensation (vibration and position
sense), positive Romberg test, mild spasticity, and
bilateral extensor plantar refl exes (upper motor neuron).
Patients may also present with mild dementia or
psychiatric symptoms. The polyneuropathy associated
with B6 (pyridoxine) defi ciency is associated with
isoniazid use. Lead poisoning causes a motor neuropathy (i.e., wristdrop, footdrop) and requires chronic exposure
to lead as an adult. Tabes dorsalis due to tertiary syphilis
causes progressive sensory loss, ataxia, and a positive
Romberg test, but patients complain of severe lancinating
leg pain. Patients are not spastic and do not have a positive
Babinski sign. Vitamin E defi ciency is seen in liver disease,
cystic fi brosis, and other malabsorption syndromes;
patients present with ataxia and peripheral neuropathy.
1747.Compared with young adult patients undergoing stroke
rehabilitation, geriatric patients require
A. more medication to prevent recurrent stroke.
B. longer rehabilitation hospitalization.
C. more nasogastric tube feedings.
D. bladder catheterizations more frequently.
E. lesser rehabilitation hospitalization.
- Answer: B
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1748.A 70-year-old woman presents with poorly articulated phrases but understands commands. Choose correct diagnosis: A. Upper motor neuron disease B. Lower motor neuron disease C. Myelopathy D. Radiculopathy E. Broca’s aphasia
- Answer: E
Explanation:
(Seidel, 5/e, p 798.)
Upper motor neuron (UMN) disease (above the level of
the corticospinal synapses in the gray matter) is
characterized by spastic paralysis, hyperrefl exia,
and a positive Babinski refl ex (everything is up in UMN
disease). Lower motor neuron (LMN) disease (below the
level of synapse) is characterized by fl accid paralysis,
signifi cant atrophy, fasciculations, hyporefl exia, and a
fl exor (normal) Babinski refl ex (everything is down in
LMN disease). A radiculopathy occurs with root
compression from a protruded disk that causes sensory
loss, weakness, and hyporefl exia in the distribution of the
nerve root. Myelopathy causes severe sensory loss 0
posterior column sensation (position sense and vibration),
spasticity, hyperrefl exia, and positive Babinski refl exes.
Broca’s aphasia (left inferior frontal gyrus) is a nonfl uent
expressive aphasia (Broca’s should remind you of broken
speech); Wernicke’s aphasia (left posterior-superior
temporal gyri) is a receptive aphasia because patients lack
auditory comprehension (Wernicke’s should remind you
of wordy speech that makes no sense).
1749.During evaluation of an elderly woman with severe
arthritic pain, it is noted that she has a poor appetite,
insomnia, and anxiety. A likely secondary consequence
of her pain in this setting that should also be treated
includes:
A. Acute delirium
B. Clinical depression
C. Dementia
D. Failure to thrive
E. Generalized anxiety diseases
- Answer: B
Explanation:
Clinical depression is a common consequence of untreated
or undertreated pain. Signs and symptoms may include
insomnia, amxiety, agitation, aggression, loss of appetite,
and refusal of care.
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1750.Independent of bone mineral density, in elderly women, the factor contributing to an increased risk of fracture secondary to a fall includes: A. Obesity B. Daily wine consumption C. Poor visual acuity D. Use of coumadin E. Height
- Answer: C
Explanation:
(a) Kanis JA. Diagnosis of osteoporosis ad assessment of
fracture risk. Lancet 2002;359:1929-36.
(b) Dargent-Molina P, favier F, Grandjean H, et al. Fallrelated
factors and risk of hip fracture: the EPIDOS
prospective study [published erratum]
1751.Which of the following abnormality is most common in the disabled elderly population? A. Epilepsy B. Movement disorders C. Transient ischemic attacks D. Dementia E. Stroke
- Answer: B
1752.Which of the following agents would be best tolerated in a medically debilitated patient for post-herpetic neuralgia? A. Amitriptyline B. Desipramine C. Maprotiline D. Doxepin E. Trazodone
- Answer: B
1753.The major factor causing poor compliance with medical advice by the elderly is A. Drug costs B. Race issues C. Number of drugs D. Communication E. Insurance
- Answer: C
1754.In managing pain in the elderly patients, it is best to use
drugs in the following manner:
A. Start low and go slow for all medications.
B. Use high-dose, short-acting narcotics initially to get the
pain under control.
C. Avoid use of acetaminophen, due to liver toxicity.
D. Start with aspirin, which is safe and effective.
E. Start with transdermal fentanyl
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Physiologic changes with aging, including slowed
absorption, metabolism, and elimination of medications,
may lead to excess sedation, confusion, constipation, and
urinary retention in geriatric patients. Thus, low initial
doses are indicated, with slow upward titration.
Acetaminophen is safe and effective for moderate pain.
Aspirin in higher doses is associated with bleeding
complications.
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1755.In general, patients who have chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease and are undergoing pulmonary
rehabilitation should maintain an arterial oxygenation
level no less than
A. 95%
B. 93%
C. 88%
D. 85%
E. 90%
- Answer: C
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1756.The exercise program benefi cial for patients with
rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. High intensity progressive resistance exercises
B. Low-load, high-reception resistance exercise
C. Walking 3 to 4 times per week.
D. A program incorporating any of the above
E. None of the above programs
- Answer: D
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1757.A 67-year-old man presents with an episode of right
face, arm, and leg weakness that resolved on arrival to the
emergency room. Choose appropriate diagnosis:
A. Basilar artery stroke
B. Middle cerebral stroke
C. Anterior cerebral stroke
D. Transient ischemic attack
E. Posterior cerebral stroke
- Answer: D
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 962-963.)
Basilar artery stroke causes quadriplegia, sensory loss,
and cranial nerve involvement; patients may present
with coma or locked-in syndrome. Wallenberg
syndrome or lateral medullary syndrome causes
an ipsilateral weakness of the palate and vocal cords,
ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, and
ipsilateral loss of facial pain and temperature but
contralateral loss of body pain and temperature sensation.
There is no limb weakness in Wallenberg syndrome.
Anterior cerebral stroke causes unilateral leg weakness and
sensory loss. Posterior cerebral artery stroke causes an
occipital stroke and a homonymous hemianopsia. Middle
cerebral artery stroke causes hemiplegia or hemiparesis
greater in the arm than the leg, aphasia, unilateral sensory
loss, and eyes that deviate to the side of the hemispheric
lesion. Patients with lacunar infarcts may present with
different syndromes, such as dysarthria and mild
hemiparesis (clumsy-hand dysarthria). Lacunar infarcts
represent small artery occlusions; hypertension and
diabetes are risk factors for these infarcts. Patients in a
vegetative state from diffuse cortical damage have
spontaneous eye opening and movement without evidence
of awareness.
- In the elderly, scopolamine-induced delirium is
A. Absent with doses less than 0.4 mg
B. Decreased by physostigmine
C. Reversible with diazepam
D. Reversible with pyridostigmine
E. Similar to that produced by glycopyrrolate
- Answer: B
Source: American Board of Anesthesilogy, In-trainnig
examination
1759.An elderly female has swelling and pain in several
of the interphalangeal (IP) joints of her hand. X-ray
examination reveals arthritic changes. Which agent
should not be prescribed?
A. Indomethacin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Tolmetin
D. Naproxen
E. Piroxicam
- Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 631-633.
All of the drugs listed, except acetaminophen, are usually considered NSAIDs, a large group of structurally
dissimilar compounds. These drugs share the
pharmacologic properties of the prototype compound,
aspirin, in that all have analgesic, antipyretic, and antiinfl
ammatory effects. The mechanism of action that is
responsible for the effect of NSAIDs is reduction in the
formation of eicosanoids (e.g., prostaglandins,
thromboxanes) by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase.
Acetaminophen differs from the other drugs in that it is a
very weak anti-infl ammatory agent; however, it is an
effective analgesic and antipyretic
Source: Stern - 2004
1760.A 71-year-old woman presents with aphasia and severe
right-sided hemiparesis greater in the arm than the
leg. Her eyes deviate to the left. Choose appropriate
diagnosis:
A. Basilar artery stroke
B. Middle cerebral stroke
C. Anterior cerebral stroke
D. Transient ischemic attack
E. Posterior cerebral stroke
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 962-963.)
Basilar artery stroke causes quadriplegia, sensory
loss, and cranial nerve involvement; patients may
present with coma or locked-in syndrome.
Wallenberg syndrome or lateral medullary syndrome
causes an ipsilateral weakness of the palate and vocal
cords, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, and
ipsilateral loss of facial pain and temperature but
contralateral loss of body pain and temperature sensation.
There is no limb weakness in Wallenberg syndrome.
Anterior cerebral stroke causes unilateral leg weakness and
sensory loss. Posterior cerebral artery stroke causes an
occipital stroke and a homonymous hemianopsia. Middle
cerebral artery stroke causes hemiplegia or hemiparesis
greater in the arm than the leg, aphasia, unilateral sensory
loss, and eyes that deviate to the side of the hemispheric
lesion. Patients with lacunar infarcts may present with
different syndromes, such as dysarthria and mild
hemiparesis (clumsy-hand dysarthria). Lacunar infarcts
represent small artery occlusions; hypertension and
diabetes are risk factors for these infarcts. Patients in a
vegetative state from diffuse cortical damage have
spontaneous eye opening and movement without evidence
of awareness.
1761.An eldery woman presents with back pain for several
months. She denies recent trauma. She has no weight
loss or loss of appetite. She has no fever, chills, or night
sweats. Physical examination reveals a dowager hump
and mild kyphotic bowing of the spine. Serum calcium,
phosphorus, alkaline phosphatase, and parathyroid hormone levels are normal. The following is the most
appropriate next step in diagnosis of this patient:
A. Lumbar spine radiographs
B. MRI of the spine
C. CT densitometry of the lumbar spine
D. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
E. Bone scan
- Answer: D
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 1114-1115.)
Risk factors for osteoporosis include white, Asian-Pacifi c
Islander, and Native American race; Northwestern
European descent; blonde or red hair; freckles;
thin body frame; nulliparity; early menopause;
family history of osteoporosis; postmenopause;
constant dieting; calcium intake
1762.What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly? A. Parkinson’s disease B. Neoplasm C. Stroke D. Depression E. Alzheimer’s disease
- Answer: E
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
1763.An elderly man presents with the chief complaint of
leg pain, associated with headache and defi ciency with
walking. On physical examination, the patient has
bowing of the lower extremities and the right lower
extremity is longer than the left lower extremity. The
physical examination is normal, except for hearing loss
and war legs. Laboratory data reveal an isolated elevated
serum alkaline phosphatase level. The fo11owing is the
most likely diagnosis in this patient.
A. Vitamin D defi ciency
B. Paget’s disease
C. Cerebral vascular accident
D. Parkinson’s disease
E. Metastatic bone disease
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Tierney, 42/e, pp 1119-1120.)
Paget’s disease of bone
(osteitis deformans) is a disorder in which normal bone is
replaced by disorganized trabecular bone. Patients may be
asymptomatic but may present with increased hat size
(skull enlargement), hearing loss (involvement of the
ossicles of the inner ear), facial pain, headache, backache,
leg pain, growth of the lower extremities (one leg may be
longer than the other), tibial bowing, and increased blood
fl ow to the involved areas of bone growth. Alkaline
phosphatase may be elevated, and a bone scan will detect
the lytic lesions. A complication of paget’s disease is
osteosarcoma (
1764.The most commonly prescribed analgesic in the elderly
chronic pain population is:
A. Tramadol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Non-steroidal anti-infl ammatory drugs
D. Opioids
E. Anti-epileptic drugs
- Answer: C
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
1765.Polymyalgia rheumatica is:
A. Twice as common in males as females
B. Responds only to high dose steroids
C. Affects distal muscle groups
D. More common in people of southern European decent
E. Almost exclusively found in Caucasians
- Answer: E
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
1766.In patients undergoing a rehabilitation program after a
hip fracture, benefi t from weight-bearing exercises can
A. improve walking velocity
B. decrease incidence of hip dislocation
C. decrease risk of prosthetic failure
D. improve pain control.
E. improve sleeping pattern
- Answer: A
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004
1767. Post-hepatic neuralgia is: A. More common in women B. Most often involves lumbar dermatomes C. Incidence increases with age D. Gradually worsens with time E. Pain that persists for 12 month
- Answer: C
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2005
1768.Proportion of institutionalized elderly persons is
estimated to suffer from chronic pain is:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. Less than 5%
E. 90%
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Chronic pain is estimated to affect 80% of institutionalized
elderly people. Causes include skeletal pain related to
osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, cervical and lumbar
spondylosis, osteoporosis, and fractures with resultant
deformities. Neuropathic pain related to peripheral
neuropathy from diabetes mellitus, previous stroke, and
postherpetic neuralgia also occurs. Pain with peripheral
vascular and cardiovascular diseases, skin ulcers, and
cancer also occur with greater frequencies in this
population.
Source: Arch Phys Med Rehabil Vol 85, Suppl 3, July 2004