ASIPP Pregnancy and Nursing Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1600….weakness of the abductor pollicis brevis, the opponens
pollicis, and the fi rst two lumbrical muscles. Sensation
was decreased over the lateral palm and the volar
aspect of the fi rst three digits. Numbness and tingling
were markedly increased over the fi rst three digits and
the lateral palm when the wrist was held in fl exion for
30 s. The symptoms suggest damage to
A. The radial artery
B. The median nerve
C. The ulnar nerve
D. Proper digital nerves
E. The radial nerve

A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    (Moore, Anatomy, 4/e, pp 775, 821-822.)
    The patient has a classic case of carpal tunnel syndrome, in
    which the median nerve is compressed as it passes through
    the carpal tunnel formed by the fl exor retinaculum in the
    wrist. Evidence for involvement of the median nerve is
    weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles (abductor
    pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis) and lumbricals 1 to 3.
    Sensory defi cits also follow the distribution of the median
    nerve. The median nerve enters the hand, along with the
    tendons of the superfi cial and deep digital fl exors, through
    a tunnel framed by the carpal bones and the overlying
    fl exor retinaculum. Symptoms are worse in the early
    morning and in pregnancy because of fl uid retention,
    resulting in swelling that entraps the median nerve. Flexing the wrist for an extended period exaggerates the
    paresthesia (“Phelan’s” sign) by increasing pressure on the
    median nerve.
    Neither the ulnar nerve, radial nerve, nor radial artery
    passes through the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve supplies
    the third and fourth lumbricals and only the short
    adductor of the thumb. The radial nerve innervates mostly
    long and short extensors of the digits and the dorsal
    aspect of the hand. Proper digital nerves lie distal to the
    carpal tunnel but are only sensory.
    Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
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2
Q
1601. What is the most critical period for fetal exposure to a
drug?
A. 1st week of pregnancy
B. 5th week of pregnancy
C. 13th week of pregnancy
D. 24th week of pregnancy
E. 32nd week of pregnancy
A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    (Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-
    87)
    The most critical period is in the fi rst trimester,
    specifi cally weeks 4 through 10 during pregnancy.
    Source: Shah RV
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3
Q
  1. An infant born at 35 weeks’ gestation to a mother with
    no prenatal care is noted to be jittery and irritable, and
    is having diffi culty feeding. Child had coarse tremors
    on examination. The nurses report a high-pitched cry
    and note several episodes of diaarhea and emesis. It is
    suspected that the infant is withdrawing from
    A. Alcohol
    B. Marijuana
    C. Heroin
    D. Cocaine
    E. Tobacco
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Reference: Behrman, 16/e, p 530. Rudolph, 21/e, p 2196.
    Infants born to narcotic addicts are more likely than other
    children to exhibit a variety of problems, including
    perinatal complications, prematurity, and low birth
    weight. The onset of withdrawal commonly occurs during
    an infant’s fi rst 2 days of life and is characterized by
    hyperirritability and coarse tremors, along with vomiting,
    diarrhea, fever, high-pitched cry, and hyperventilation;
    seizures and respiratory depression are less common. The
    production of surfactant can be accelerated in the infant of
    heroin-addicted mother.
    Source: Yetman and Hormann
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4
Q
1603. In which stage of pregnancy do major pharmacokinetic
changes of lithium metabolism occur?
A. Postpartum and during breast-feeding
B. At delivery
C. Third trimester
D. Second trimester
E. First trimester
A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The maternal lithium level must be monitored closely
    during pregnancy and especially after delivery because of
    the signifi cant change in renal function with massive fl uid
    shift that occurs over that time period. Lithium should be
    discontinued shortly before delivery, and the drug should
    be restarted after an assessment of the usually high risk of
    postpartum mood disorder and the mother’s desire to
    breast-feed her infant.
    Source: Laxmaiah Manchikanti, MD
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5
Q
  1. True statements about addiction during pregnancy is:
    A. The prevalence of substance abuse during pregnancy is
    signifi cant
    B. Women addicted to drugs always have regular menstrual
    cycles
    C. Women addicted to drugs are unable to conceive
    D. A pregnant woman generally fi nds out that she is pregnant
    within a few weeks
    E. Less than 2% of pregnant women use illegal substances
    during pregnancy
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
  2. The prevalence of substance use during pregnancy is
    signifi cant. In a study of women in a city hospital, 59% admitted to consumption of alcohol during pregnancy.
  3. Women addicted to alcohol or other drugs may have
    irregular menstrual cycles, but still be able to conceive.
  4. A study found that 11% of pregnant women were using
    illegal substances, with cocaine as the drug of choice in
    75%.
  5. It may be several months before an addicted woman
    realizes that she is pregnant.
  6. Women of low socioeconomic status are perceived to be
    at increased risk of perinatal substance abuse and
    addiction, but there is little difference in the prevalence of
    drug and alcohol use among women enrolling in prenatal
    care in public clinics 16% and private offi ces 13%.
    Further, rates for black and white women are virtually
    identical (14% and 15%).
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6
Q
  1. A newly delivered mother wants to breast-feed her
    healthy infant, but that her obstetrician was concerned
    about one of the medicines she was taking. Which
    of the woman’s medicines, listed below, is clearly
    contraindicated in breast-feeding?
    A. Ibuprofen as needed for pain or fever
    B. Labetolol for her chronic hypertension
    C. Lithium for her bipolar disorder
    D. Carbamazepine for her seizure disorder
    E. Acyclovir for her HSV outbreak
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Reference: Behrman, 16/e, p 460. McMillan, 3/e, p477.
    Most medications are secreted to some extent in breast
    milk. Some lipid-soluble medications may be concentrated
    in breast milk. Although the list of contraindicated
    medications is short, caution should always be exercised
    when giving a medication to a breast-feeding woman.
    Medications that are clearly contraindicated include
    lithium, cyclosporin, antineoplastic agents, illicit drugs
    including cocaine and heroin, ergotamines, and
    bromocriptine (which suppresses lactation). Although
    some suggest that oral contraceptives may have a negative
    impact on milk production, the association has not been
    proven conclusively. In general, antibiotics are safe, with
    only a few exceptions. While sedatives and narcotic pain
    medications are probably safe, the infant must be observed
    carefully for sedation. All of the medications listed in the
    question are considered safe, except for lithium.
    Source: Yetman and Hormann
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7
Q
  1. During pregnancy, treatment of migraine may include:
    A. Ergot/caffeine
    B. DHE/Reglan
    C. Cafergot
    D. Amitriptyline
    E. Usually not necessary as migraine frequency and severity
    is reduced, and the above-listed drugs are contraindicated
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Acetaminophen and meperidine can be recommended for
    use during pregnancy; however, any drug presents
    potential risk during pregnancy. Aspirin may prolong
    labor, cause blood loss during pregnancy, and increase risk
    of stillbirth. Ergot may cause placental damage due to
    vasoconstrictive effect. Fortunately, migraine tends to
    remit during pregnancy. New-onset headache during
    pregnancy should be evaluated carefully for potential
    vascular or structural lesion.
    Source: Neurology for the Psychiatry specialty Board
    Review By Leon A. Weisberg, MD
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8
Q
1607. Which of the following poses the greatest risk of fetal
harm?
A. multivitamins
B. acetaminophen
C. prednisone
D. metoprolol
E. ergotamine
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-
    87 and
    http://www.fda.gov/fdac/features/2001/301_preg.html#cat
    egories)
    The FDA categories do not necessarily stratify risk, but
    actually discuss a risk/benefi t analysis. Note that Category
    A and B are probably safe. However, category C and D
    drugs may be just as dangerous as category X.
    Ergotamines are category X.
    Multivitamins are category A.
    Acetaminophen, butorphanol, nalbuphine, caffeine,
    fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone, meperidine,
    morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone, ibuprofen,
    naproxen, indomethacin, metoprolol, proxetine,
    fl uoxetine, prednisolone, prednisone are category B
    Aspirin, ketorolac, codeine, propoxyphene, gabapentin,
    lidocaine, mexiletene, nifedipine, propanolol, sumatriptan
    are category C
    Amitriptyline, imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital,
    phenytoin, valproic acid are category D
    Source: Shah RV
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9
Q
  1. Anti Infl ammatory medicines are not recommended in:
    A. During the process of labor
    B. In nursing mothers
    C. During pregnancy
    D. Those with a history of ulcerative disease
    E. All of the Above
A
  1. Answer: E

Source: Hansen HC, Board Review 2004

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10
Q
1609. The most frequent psychiatric disorder of postpartum
women is
A. An episode of mild schizophrenia
B. An episode of mania
C. Postpartum “baby blues
D. Major depression
E. Postpartum psychosis
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    (Sierles, pp 125-126. Kaplan, pp 27-28,500-501.)
    The most frequent (about 50%) postpartum disorder is a
    self-limited condition known as postpartum blues, with
    rapid swings of mood and irritability, decreased
    concentration, and tearing. Next is postpartum major
    depression (occasionally mania) in about 10% of
    postpartum women, but most severe is postpartum
    psychosis (about 1 to 2 per 1000) beginning about 2 to 3
    weeks after childbirth. It is still not clear whether
    postpartum psychosis is a discrete condition or an affective
    or schizophrenia-like condition precipitated by
    postpartum stress or endocrine changes. Postpartum
    psychiatric disorders respond favorably to treatment and
    have a good prognosis, but in all women who experience a
    postpartum depression, there is a suicide rate of 5%, an
    infanticide rate of 4%, and a recurrence rate of 25% for
    postpartum psychosis and depression after subsequent
    pregnancies.
    Source: Ebert 2004
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11
Q
  1. Studies show that methadone maintenance in the
    mother, compared to untreated opioid abusers is
    associated with
    A. Shorter gestation and increased birth weight
    B. Longer gestation and increased birth weight
    C. Shorter gestation and decreased birth weight
    D. Longer gestation and decreased birth weight
    E. All of the above
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Raj, Pain Review 2nd Edition

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12
Q
  1. Use of which the following opioids by breast-feeding
    mothers via PCA depresses the behavior of the
    infant more than the equianalgesic dose of morphine
    A. Fentanyl
    B. Meperidine
    C. Nalbuphin
    D. Buprenorphine
    E. Tramado
A
  1. Answer: B

Source: Raj, Pain Review 2nd Edition

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13
Q
  1. This following term describes translating codes from
    one system to another (i.e., DSM-IV to ICD-9-CM)
    A. encoder
    B. prospective payment system
    C. crosswalk
    D. chargemaster
    E. CPT
A
  1. Answer: C
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14
Q
1613. A pregnant patient in the 2nd trimester complains of
diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Your drug of choice
is:
A. Gabapentin
B. Mexiletine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Oxycodone
E. Amitripytline
A
  1. Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Oxycodone is category B and is considered safe.
    Amitriptyline, although generally indicate for diabetic
    neuropathy, is category D.
    The others are category C.
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15
Q
  1. A 28 African American male presents to the emergency
    room agitated and complaining of severe knee pain
    and swelling. Urine toxicology screen reveals cocaine.
    His mother demands to speak to you and volunteers
    that he has sickle cell anemia. Which of the following is
    most appropriate for pain management?.
    A. Ketorolac 60 mg q6 hours
    B. Acetaminophen 650 mg q2-3hours
    C. Meperidine 50mg q2hours
    D. Codeine 30mg q6 hours
    E. Hydromorphone 0.2mg-0.4mg q6-10minutes in a patient
    controlled analgesia form
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Sickle cell disease represents an alteration in both beta
    subunits of hemoglobin from glutamate to valine. It affl ict
    about 1 in 500 African American, or 0.15%. Under certain
    circumstances the red blood cells sickle in shape and cause
    thrombosis in the microcirculation and tissue hypoxia.
    Clinically this manifests as a painful vasooclusive crisis in
    the chest, abdomen, limbs, bones, penis, kidneys, etc… In
    the joints patients may develop a painful, swollen joint.
    Predisposing factors include dehydration, hypothermia,
    exertion, acidosis, hypoxemia, and, infection. Cocaine is
    associated with an increased basal metabolic rate. In this
    patient, this may have precipitated a sickle cell crisis.
    The question illustrates the ethics of prescribing opioids
    to a patient with a severe medical condition and a drug
    history. Ketorolac and NSAIDS have a ceiling effect and
    have only a modest effect in sickle cell crises. The patient
    may be dehydrated given his drug use and may have
    underlying renal dysfunction-both of which may preclude
    NSAIDs. Acetaminophen at this dose would exceed the
    4000 mg limit for short term users and the 3100 mg limit
    for chronic users. Its modest analgesic effects would not
    benefi t such a painful crisis. Meperidine is a weak opioid
    analgesic and at the dose required, may cause a buildup of
    normoperidine. This metabolite may cause a seizure.
    Codeine is relatively weak as an analgesic. The PCA would
    be most appropriate. Hydromorphone may be better than
    morphine in some circumstances due to its longer effect,
    less emetogenic, and greater potency Other therapies
    include oxygen, intravenous fl uids, warm temperatures,
    and hydroxyurea..
    Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2006
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16
Q
  1. A 32-year-old woman who had epidural analgesia
    (bupivacaine and morphine) for vaginal delivery of a 9-
    lb, 6-oz baby boy complains of numbness and footdrop
    24h after delivery. The most likely cause is
    A. transient neurologic defi cit due to compression of the
    nerves by the baby during delivery
    B. permanent neuropathy from pelvic neural compression
    C. herniated intervertebral disk
    D. ischemia of the conus medullaris
    E. myelopathy due to epidural analgesia
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    (Bonica)
    Maternal obstetric neuropathy after vaginal
    delivery is reported to occur in 1 in 2500 deliveries. The
    obturator, sciatic, or pudendal plexus can be injured by
    continuous pressure of the presenting part during labor or
    by forceps. The defi cit is usually unilateral, but may be
    bilateral. One to two days after delivery, the patient may complain of burning, aching pain in the distribution of
    the injured nerve. There may be some motor impairment.
    The neuropathy is usually transient, and complete
    recovery often occurs after several weeks.
    Source: Kahn and Desio
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17
Q
  1. All of the following are accurate statements with
    managing opioid-dependent pregnant patients
    experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the drug is
    discontinued, EXCEPT:
    A. Methadone frequently is used to treat acute withdrawal
    from opioids
    B. Current federal regulations restrict the use of methadone
    for the treatment of opioid addiction to specially registered
    clinics
    C. Methadone may be used by a physician in a private practice
    for temporary maintenance or detoxifi cation when
    an addicted patient is admitted to the hospital for an
    illness other than opioid addiction
    D. Methadone may never be used by a private practitioner
    in an outpatient setting when administered daily.
    E. Methadone may be used by a private practitioner in an
    outpatient setting when administered daily for a maximum
    of three days
A
  1. Answer: D
    Explanation:
    1.Methadone frequently is used to treat acute withdrawal
    from opioids.
    2.Current federal regulations restrict the use of methadone
    for the treatment of opioid addiction to specially
    registered clinics.
    3.Methadone may be used by a physician in private
    practice for temporary maintenance or detoxifi cation
    when an addicted patient is admitted to the hospital for an
    illness other than opioid addiction. This includes
    evaluation for preterm labor, which can be induced by
    acute withdrawal.
    4.Methadone may also be used by a private practitioner in
    an outpatient setting when administered daily for a
    maximum of 3 days while a patient awaits admission to a
    licensed methadone treatment program.
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18
Q
  1. Elevated estrogen levels during the menstrual cycle
    A. Decreased LH levels
    B. Downregulate FSH receptors on granulosa cells
    C. Increase FSH cells
    D. Increase the ciliation of the epithelial cells of the oviduct
    E. Decrease synthesis and storage of glycogen in the vaginal
    epithelium
A
  1. Answer: D
    Explanation:
    (Junqueira, 9/e, pp 425-430. McKenzie and Klein, pp 344-
  2. Guyton, l0/e, pp 930-933.)
    Estrogen levels increase during the maturation of ovarian
    follicles, which results in a concomitant increase in
    ciliation and height of the oviductal lining cells. Increases
    in the number of cilia serve to facilitate movement of the
    ovum. Increased estrogen levels also decrease FSH levels
    and cause an LH surge. Elevated estrogen levels result in
    increased secretion of lytic enzymes, prostaglandins,
    plasminogen activator, and collagenase to facilitate the
    rupture of the ovarian wall and the release of the ovum
    and the attached corona radiata. Following ovulation,
    during the luteal phase of the cycle, the theca and
    granulosa cells are transformed into the corpus luteum
    under the infl uence of LH. Ovulation occurs near the
    middle of the menstrual cycle and is associated with an
    increase in basal body temperature that appears to be
    indirectly regulated by elevated estrogen levels, with IL-I
    functioning as the endogenous pyrogen. Estrogen also
    upregulates FSH receptors on granulosa cell membranes
    and enhances synthesis and storage of glycogen in the
    vaginal epithelium.
    Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
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19
Q
1618. The fetal hydantoin syndrome is characterized by all
except:
A. Microcephaly
B. Mental defi ciency
C. Short stature
D. Craniofacial deformities
E. Variable dimorphic features
A
  1. Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The hydanantion syndrome (phenytoin) is associated with
    microcephaly, mental defi ciency, craniofacial deformities, and variable dysmorhic features, but not short stature.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
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20
Q
1619. Which of the following drugs is most compatible with
breast feeding?
A. Amitritypline, FDA category D
B. Imipramine, FDA category D
C. Ergotamine, FDA category X
D. Diazepam, FDA category D
E. Valproic acid, FDA category D
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    (Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-87)
    The FDA categories are concerned with risk of fetal harm.
    The American Academy of Pediatrics has categorized
    medications in relation to their safety to the infant
    following ingestion by the mother.
    Refer to this article:
    http://aappolicy.aappublications.org/cgi/content/full/pedia
    trics;108/3/776/T5
    Source: Shah RV
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21
Q
  1. A full-term male infant displays projectile vomiting 1
    h after suckling. There is failure to gain weight during
    the fi rst two weeks. The vomitus is not bile-stained
    and no respiratory diffi culty is evident. Examination
    reveals an abdomen neither tense nor bloated. The
    most probable explanation is
    A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    B. Duodenal atresia
    C. Patent ileal diverticulum
    D. Imperforate anus
    E. Tracheoesophageal fi stula
A
  1. Answer: A
    Explanation:
    (Moore, Developing Human, 6/e, p 276.)
    Blockage of the foregut in the newborn produces projectile
    vomiting. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis,
    occurring in 0.5 to 1.0% of males and rarely in females,
    involves hypertrophy of the circular layer of muscle at the
    pylorus. This usually does not regress and must be treated
    surgically. During the fi fth and sixth weeks of
    development, the lumen of the duodenum is occluded by
    muscle proliferation but normally recanalizes during the
    eighth week. Failure of recanalization results in duodenal
    atresia. Because this occurs distal to the hepatopancreatic
    ampulla, the vomitus will occasionally be stained with bile.
    Annular pancreas, rare in itself, seldom completely blocks
    the duodenum. Imperforate anus results in intestinal
    distention with bloating.
    Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
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22
Q
  1. A 43-year-old woman as brought to a hospital emergency
    room by her brother. Visiting the halfway house in
    which she lived, he had found her to be lethargic,
    with slurred speech. The patient had a long history
    of treatment for psychiatric problems, and the brother
    feared that she might have overdosed on one or more
    of the several drugs that had been prescribed for
    her. Physical examination revealed tachycardia with
    irregular heart rate, shallow respirations, decreased
    bowel sounds, dilated pupils, and hyperthermia. An
    ECG revealed a widened QRS complex with diffuse T
    wave changes. If this patient had taken a drug overdose
    the most likely causative agent was
    A. Clozapine
    B. Fluoxetine
    C. Lithium
    D. Thioridazine
    E. Zolpidem
A
  1. Answer: D
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23
Q
1622. In treatment for acute withdrawal from sedativehypnotics
in a pregnant women, the following drugs
are used, EXCEPT:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Diazepam
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Lorazepam
E. Morphine
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    In acute withdrawal from sedative-hypnotics in pregnant
    women, any medication with cross-dependence can be
    used.
    An initial dose is given, usually 15 to 90 mg of
    phenobarbital or an equivalent dose of another sedativehypnotic
    such as diazepam or chlordiazepoxide, and the better to arrow on the side of slightly over- rather than
    under-medicating. Reducing the dose by 10% of the total
    each day provides a comfortable taper. The taper can be
    accomplished more rapidly over 5 days by reducing the
    dose by 20% per day if there are no medical or obstetric
    complications.
    Advanced sedative-hypnotic withdrawal with markedly
    abnormal vital signs or delirium should be treated rapidly
    and with suffi ciently large doses of medication to suppress
    with withdrawal period. Medications with a rapid onset of
    action should be used and may be given intravenously for
    immediate effect. Lorazepam and diazepam have a rapid
    onset of action when given intravenously, although they
    have a shorter duration of action than when given orally,
    since fi rst past liver metabolism is bypassed. For example,
    one may start with Lorazepam, 1 to 4 mg intravenously
    every 10 to 30 minutes until the patient’s agitation or
    delirium improves, so that the patient is calm but awake
    and the heart rate decreases to around 100 per minute.
    After stabilization with rapid acting medications, the
    patient can be switched to equivalent dose of a long-acting
    medication such as phenobarbital, oral diazepam,
    clonazepam, or chlordiazepoxide.
    Benzodiazepines and barbiturates can adversely affect the
    fetus when given during pregnancy, so this should be taken
    into account when beginning treatment for acute
    withdrawal symptoms.
    The risk to both mother and fetus from untreated
    sedative-hypnotic withdrawal usually is greater than the
    potential risk to the fetus from exposure to these
    medications in a controlled setting.
    patient is monitored for at least 6 to 8 hours. The
    treatment medication is repeated at 1 or 2 hour intervals,
    as indicated by the signs of withdrawal the patient exhibits.
    After 8 hours, an approximation can be made of the total
    dose the patient will require for a 24-hour period. It is
24
Q
  1. Of those infants born with a congenital malformation,
    what percentage will have a clear environmental link?
    A.
A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    (Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-
    87)
    Approximately 3% of newborns have a signifi cant
    congenital malformation. Of those born with a
    malformation, 25% have a known genetic cause. Of those
    infants born with a malformation, only 2-3% will have a
    clear environmental link. One of the major limitations in
    evaluating a medication’s potential for causing harm to a
    developing fetus is the degree of species specifi city for
    congenital defects. One example is the drug thalidomide.
    This drug did not demonstrate any problems in nonprimates,
    but was a signifi cant teratogen to human
    offspring.
    Source: Shah RV
25
Q
1624. The most common cause of pain in buttocks pain in
pregnancy is:
A. Sacroiliac pathology
B. Lumbar radiculopathy
C. Urinary tract infections
D. Ilioinguinal entrapment
E. Lumbar facet arthropathy
A
1624. Answer: A
Explanation:
Sacroiliac pathology is the most common cause of
buttocks pain.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
26
Q
1625. In general, medicines that are safe for lactating mothers
are:
A. Highly protein bound
B. Fat soluble
C. Long acting
D. Low molecular weight
E. Unionized state
A
1625. Answer: A
Explanation:
Highly protein bound medications are in general less
likely to cross into the breast milk.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
27
Q
  1. A nursing mother with a history of severe migraines
    prior to her pregnancy, presents to your clinic to
    discuss headache prophylaxis. You tell her:
    A. there are no appropriate prophylactic medicines for
    nursing mothers and she should switch to bottle.
    B. beta blockers have been used in nursing mothers with
    minimal neonatal effect.
    C. the amitriptyline she used before she was pregnant was
    fi ne to resume.
    D. topiramate has no effects on the baby and she will lose
    weight faster.
    E. ergotamine should be used at the onset of a headache
A
  1. Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Although many of the standard prophylaxis medicines are
    contraindicated, beta blockers has been used without
    apparent problems. TCAs are not suggested, ergotamines
    have been associated with neonatal convulsions, and
    topiramate has moderate breast milk excretion. Depakote,
    though, might be a reasonable choice.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
28
Q
1627. Neural tube defects may occur with which of the
following antiseizure drugs?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Vigabratin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Valproic acid
E. Primidone
A
  1. Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Reference: Katzung, pp 411, 1029.
    An increased incidence of spina bifi da may occur with the
    use of valproic acid during pregnancy. Cardiovascular,
    orofacial, and digital abnormalities may also occur.
    The main issue with the use of Phenobarbital or
    primidone (metabolite is Phenobarbital) for the fetus is
    neonatal dependence on barbiturates.
    Source: Stern - 2004
29
Q
  1. In patients with preeclampsia
  2. therapeutic magnesium levels are between 10 and
    15meq/L
  3. decreased levels of thromboxane are thought to be a
    possible etiologic factor
  4. the central nervous system shows decreased excitability
  5. hypotonia in a neonate born to a preeclamptic patient
    may be due to high magnesium levels.
A
  1. Answer: D (4 Only)
    Explanation:
    The therapeutic magnesium level in treating preeclampsia
    is 4 to 6 meq/L. Levels above 10 meq/L are associated with
    loss of deep tendon refl exes. High thromboxane levels are
    thought to be a possible cause of preeclampsia, and
    substances, such as aspirin, which decrease thromboxane
    levels also decreases the incidence of preeclampsia. The
    central nervous system is hyperexcitable in preeclampsia.
    High levels of magnesium in a neonate may cause
    hypotonia as well as respiratory depression and apnea.
    Source: Miller, 4/e. pp 2061-2063
30
Q
  1. Opioids recommended for lactating patients include
  2. Morphine
  3. Hydromorphone
  4. Hydrocodone
  5. Meperidine
A
1629. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
Explanation:
Meperidine is contraindicated for lactation because
normeperidine collects in the neonate
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
31
Q
  1. For a woman with a radiculopathy in early pregnancy,
    which the following are appropriate treatments?
  2. Carbamazine
  3. Epidural steroids
  4. Amitryptiline
  5. Ibuprofen
A
  1. Answer: C (2 & 4)
    Explanation:
    Anticonvulsants and tricyclics are contraindicated in early
    pregnancy. Epidural steroids are safe, and NSAIDs in early
    pregnancy are probably OK.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
32
Q
  1. You are treating a pregnant heroin addict who wants
    to be sure that her baby is not harmed. Your best
    management would be:
  2. Maintain the patient on high-dose methadone
  3. Withdraw the patient from opioids using clonidine
  4. Withdraw the patient from heroin using methadone
  5. Maintain the patient on low-dose methadone
A
  1. Answer: D (4 Only)
    Explanation:
    Heroin addicts who are pregnant should be maintained on
    low-dose methadone (10-40 mg a day) to prevent
    withdrawal and uncontrolled use of narcotics and possible
    miscarriage and fetal death.
    Source: Psychiatry specialty Board Review By William M.
    Easson, MD and Nicholas L. Rock, MD
33
Q
  1. Which of the following characterize normal CNS
    development in humans
  2. Spinothalamic myelination complete by 1st month after
    delivery
  3. Thalamocortical projections complete by 37 weeks post
    conception
  4. C-fi ber maturation complete by birth
  5. Nociceptors are present in newborns
A
  1. Answer: C (2 & 4)
34
Q
  1. Signs leading to the diagnosis of preeclampsia include
  2. proteinuria
  3. hypertension
  4. generalized edema
  5. hyperglycemia
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Preeclampsia is a syndrome that occurs after the 20th week
    of pregnancy. Diagnosis is made when the parturient has
    the following three signs and symptoms: blood pressure
    greater than 140/90, proteinuria with urine protein greater
    than 2 g/day, and generalized edema. Hyperglycemia is
    not one of the diagnostic signs.
    Source: Stoelting, Anesthesia and Co-Existing Disease, 3/e.
35
Q
  1. Neurologic effects of magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)
    include
  2. decreased irritability of the central nervous system
  3. decreased release of acetylcholine at the motor end
    plate
  4. reduced sensitivity to acetylcholine at the motor end
    plate
  5. relaxant effect on uterine and vascular smooth muscle
A
  1. Answer: E (All)
    Explanation:
    Magnesium sulfate is a CNS depressant and has all the
    listed effects in a toxemic parturient. Relaxation of the
    uterus may help improve uterine blood fl ow.
    Source: Stoelting, Anesthesia and Co-Existing Disease, 3/e.
    pp 562-563.)
36
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of acute pancreatitis?
  2. auto-digestion of the pancreas by premature release of
    proteolytic enzymes is thought to be the pathophysiology
  3. the pain is severe, poorly localized in the epigastrium or
    left upper quadrant, dull in quality, constant, and may
    linger for 3-7 days
  4. the most common etiology is alcohol abuse and gallstones
  5. treatment is primarily medical and supportive
A
  1. Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Acute pancreatitis has several etiologies (Table 5-3) but
    cholelithiasis and alcohol abuse are the most common.
    The pain is severe. It peaks in 15-60 minutes and lasts 3-7
    days. The pain is poorly localized to the epigastrium or left
    upper quadrant, steady, dull or drilling. Radiation may
    occur to the back. Pain may be relieved with forward
    fl exion.
    Diagnosis is clinical and supported by elevated serum
    amylase and/or lipase levels. The pathophysiology is that
    the pancreas prematurely releases proteolytic enzyme that
    induce auto digestion. Therapy is mainly supportive and
    medical
    Source: Shah RV, Board Review 2006
37
Q
  1. A nursing mother with a history of migraines presents
    with her typical migraine headache. Appropriate
    medications include:
  2. Sumatriptan
  3. Ibuprofen
  4. Hydrocodone
  5. Ergotamines
A
  1. Answer: A ( 1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Sumatriptan has no known harmful effects. NSAIDs are
    category 3. Opioids do transfer to breast milk but have
    minimal effect. Ergotamines are contraindicated because
    of
    GI effects and possible seizures.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
38
Q
  1. A pregnant woman, 34 weeks gestation, fractures
    her pelvis in a motor vehicle accident. Appropriate
    treatment options for pain management include:
  2. Meperidine PC
  3. Epidural infusion of bupvacaine
  4. Ketoralac parenterally
  5. Transdermal fentanyl
A
  1. Answer: E (All)
    Explanation:
    Meperidine may be associated with fetal and maternal
    accumulation of normeperidine; although not the best
    choice, the drug is not contraindicated. NSAIDs should be
    avoided after 32 weeks. Local anesthetics and fentanyl have
    been safely used during late pregnancy.
    Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
39
Q
  1. Pregnant patients should avoid:
  2. Valproic acid
  3. Ergotamines
  4. Benzodiazepines
  5. Phenyton
A
1638. Answer: E (All)
Explanation:
All of these medicines are contraindicated in pregnant
patients.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2005
40
Q
  1. In a neonate
  2. the percentage of total body water is greater than in an
    adult
  3. the volume of distribution of water-soluble drugs is
    greater than in an adult
  4. renal function is diminished, impairing the ability to
    handle free water and solutes
  5. drugs redistributed to the fat will have a longer clinical
    effect
A
1639. Answer: E (All)
Explanation:
(Miller, 4/e. pp 2100-2102)
All the above are correct.
Source: Curry S.
41
Q
  1. True statement about physical examination fi ndings in
    pregnant women with drug abuse are as follows:
  2. Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is an early sign of
    HIV infection.
  3. Finding a new murmur on examination of the heart
    may indicate endocarditis
  4. A cough productive of black sputum indicates crack
    smoking
  5. Poor dentition may indicate ongoing drug use, with
    little concern for dental hygiene
A
  1. Answer: E (All)
    Explanation:
    * Pinpoint pupils on examination of the head and neck
    indicate opioid intoxication. Atrophy of the nasal mucosa
    preparation of the nasal septum indicates snorting of
    drugs, most often cocaine or methamphetamine.
    * Finding a new murmur on examination of the heart
    may indicate endocarditis
    * A cough productive of black sputum indicates crack
    smoking
    * Poor dentition may indicate ongoing drug use, with
    little concern for dental hygiene
    * Oral pharyngeal candidiasis is more frequent in HIV
    positive women, and HIV infection is associated with
    addiction
    * Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is an early sign of
    HIV infection.
    * Palpation of the abdomen may reveal an enlarged or
    shrunken liver due to alcohol hepatitis or infectious
    hepatitis from transmission by sharing contaminated
    needles
    * Constipation from opioid abuse may be apparent on
    abdominal examination
    * Neurological evaluation can reveal altered mental status
    due to intoxication or acute alcohol withdrawal
    * Hyperrefl exia and tremors may prompt consideration of
    acute alcohol withdrawal
42
Q
  1. Cardiovascular changes that occur in obstetric patients
    include
  2. an increase in cardiac output
  3. an increase in heart rate and stroke volume
  4. a decrease in systemic vascular resistance
  5. a decrease in intravascular fl uid volume
A
  1. Answer: A (1,2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Cardiac output increases in obstetric patients by about 40
    percent during the fi rst trimester, and this is maintained
    throughout pregnancy. The factors that increase cardiac
    output include increases in heart rate, contractility, and
    stroke volume and a decrease in systemic vascular
    resistance. These changes probably are mediated by
    ovarian and placental hormones. Intravascular fl uid
    volume increases by approximately 35 percent, plasma
    volume more so than erythrocyte volume, which leads to
    the anemia of pregnancy.
    Source: Stoelting, Anesthesia and Co-Existing Disease, 3/e.
    pp 539 – 540
43
Q
1642. Disease states associated with airway abnormalities
include
1. Pierre Robin syndrome
2. Preeclampsia
3. Treacher Collins syndromes
4. Gastroschisis
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Perre Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia
    (small mouth) and glossoptosis (protruding tongue). The
    primary reason for airway diffi culty in patients with
    preeclampsia is laryngeal and oropharyngeal edema.
    Mucosal fragility is another feature that may make airway
    management diffi cult. Children with Treacher Collins
    syndrome have micrognathia and often a cleft palate.
    Gastroschisis is rarely associated with other
    abnormalities. Omphalocele, by contrast, has a high
    association of other abnormalities, including macroglossia.
    Source: Stoelting, Anesthesia and Co-Existing Disease, 3/e,
    pp 564, 575, 596, 605.)
44
Q
1643. Drug kinetics may be altered in infants, with infants
having
1. Increased total body water
2. Smaller volumes of distribution
3. Larger extracellular fl uid space
4. Higher peak blood levels
A
  1. Answer: B (1 & 3)

Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004

45
Q
1644. Which of the following are pain conditions that can
occur during pregnancy?
1. Sacro-iliac joint pain
2. iliohypogastric neuralgia
3. transient osteoporosis of the hip
4. migraine
A
  1. Answer: E (All)
    Explanation:
    (Shah RV. The management of nonobstetric pains in
    pregnancy. Reg Anesth Pain Med. 2003 Jul-
    Aug;28(4):362-3 and Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Nonobstetric
    Pain during Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth
    and Analg 1997; 85: 1074-87)
    The incidence of iliohypogastric neuralgia in pregnancy is
    approximately 1 in 3-5 thousand. Patients are typically
    affected in their 2nd or 3rd trimester. Progressive uterine
    enlargement may place traction on the iliohypogastric
    nerve; this nerve may become entrapped as it traverses the
    anterolateral abdominal musculature. Iliohypogastric
    neuralgia typically presents as severe pain in the ipsilateral
    lower abdominal quadrant, fl ank, inguinal region, and
    superolateral hip area. The physical exam may
    demonstrate hyper- or hypoesthesia in the distribution of
    the nerve. The symptoms of iliohypogastric neuralgia may
    be confused with visceral pain: renal colic, diverticulitis,
    ovarian cysts, or appendiceal perforation. If the pain is
    mistakenly thought of as a surgical abdomen, unnecessary
    surgery may be performed. Premature labor may be
    induced and both mother and infant could be harmed.
    Bone marrow edema syndrome is another condition that
    is important to recognize. Like iliohypogastric neuralgia,
    pregnant women in their 2nd or 3rd trimester are
    affected4; the pain decreases upon delivery. Pain is referred
    along the ipsilateral hip and worsens with weight bearing.
    The etiology is still unknown, but chemical mediators,
    humoral factors, intermittent compression of the
    obturator nerve by the infant’s head, and pelvic venous
    stasis have all been implicated. Diagnosis can be made
    with magnetic resonance imaging. The pain typically
    responds to conservative care: restricted weight bearing,
    analgesics, and physical therapy. Regional blocks are not
    indicated and rarely, core decompression of the femoral
    head is required.
    Sacroiliac joint pain (due to hormonally induced
    ligamentous laxity (relaxin)) and migraines, both have a
    high prevalence during pregnancy.
    Source: Shah RV
46
Q
  1. Which of the following measures would reduce the risk
    of maternal secretion of drug into the breast milk?
  2. reducing the drugs lipid solubility
  3. increasing the drug’s molecular weight
  4. increasing drug polarity
  5. reducing protein binding
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    (Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-
    87)
    Increasing lipid solubility, reducing molecular weight,
    reducing protein binding, and reducing drug ionization
    (or making a drug unionized) would facilitate drug
    secretion into breast milk. Hence, only choices 1,2,3 would
    reduce the risk of maternal secretion, but choice 4, would
    facilitate maternal secretion into breast milk.
    Source: Shah RV
47
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated with
    decreased clearance of ester-type local anesthetics?
  2. Cirrhotic liver disease
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Renal insuffi ciency
  5. Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    * Pregnancy is associated with decreased
    pseudocholinesterase activity; however, this reduction in
    activity is minimal such that the rate of hydrolysis of estertype
    anesthetics is suffi cient to limit signifi cant placental
    transfer to the fetus.
    * Severe liver disease is associated with a decreased
    concentration of pseudocholinesterase. Likewise, uremic
    patients have decreased serum levels of
    pseudocholinesterase, which may interfere with the
    metabolism of ester local anesthetics.
    * Pulmonary disease does not affect the clearance of local
    anesthetics, provided blood fl ow to the liver is not lowered
    by hypoxia.
48
Q
  1. True statements about methadone maintenance in a
    pregnant woman include the following:
  2. Methadone maintenance is the treatment of choice.
  3. It is not unusual for the methadone dose requirements
    to increase during the third trimester of pregnancy
  4. Women can breastfeed while on methadone maintenance
    as long as they are not abusing any drugs
  5. Methadone maintenance patients may require higher
    doses of additional opioids due to the development of
    tolerance.
A
  1. Answer: E (All)
    Explanation:
    * Studies have shown that a daily methadone dose over 60
    mg is most effective.
    * It is not unusual for the methadone dose requirements
    to increase during the third trimester of pregnancy. This is
    due to large plasma volume, decreased plasma protein
    binding, increased tissue binding, increased methadone
    metabolism, and increased methadone clearance in the
    mother. As a result, the half-life of methadone is
    shortened late in pregnancy and the woman may
    experience mild withdrawal symptoms unless her
    methadone dose is adjusted. Splitting the total daily
    methadone requirement into 2 doses, given in the
    morning and evening, is preferred if possible as it provides
    a more even blood level throughout the day.
    * Breastfeeding should be encouraged to promote
    mother infant bonding and to provide optimal nutrition
    in passive immunization to the child. The patients may
    require higher doses of additional opioids due to the
    development of tolerance.
    * The medication should be adjusted according to the
    patient’s reported level of pain, as assessed through the use
    of a pain rating scale.
49
Q
  1. Opioid neonatal withdrawal syndrome is characterized
    by the following:
  2. It occurs in 60% to 80% of infants with intrauterine
    exposure to heroin or methadone
  3. Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome is treated with a
    substitute opioid, such as tincture of opium, paregoric,
    or methadone
  4. Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome is treated with a
    CNS depressant such as phenobarbital
  5. Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome occurs in less
    than 20% of infants with intrauterine exposure to
    heroin or methadone
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Neonatal withdrawal syndrome occurs in 60% to 80% of
    infants with intrauterine exposure to heroine or
    methadone.
    The most comprehensive assessment is the scoring system
    proposed by Finnagen and Kaltenbach. This scale assesses
    21 symptoms with weighted scores, which are evaluated at
    2 hours after birth and then every 4 hours. Scoring is
    quantitative; so all symptoms observed during the
    intervals should be counted. If the severity score is greater
    than 8, the infant should be scored every 2 hours until the
    severity score decreases, then scoring should resume every
    4 hours.
    Pharmacotherapy should be initiated when the total score
    is greater than 8 for three consecutive evaluations.
    Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome is treated with a
    substitute opioid, such as tincture of opium, paregoric, or
    methadone, or with a CNS depressant such as
    phenobarbital.
50
Q
  1. In the newborn
  2. Albumen levels are higher than in the adult
  3. Local anesthetics are more protein bound
  4. Drugs have increased affi nity for fetal hemoglobin
  5. Drug free fractions are increased
A
  1. Answer: D (4 Only)

Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is true
  2. The neonatal dose of medications in breast milk is only
    1-2% of that of the maternal dose
  3. neonatal drug allergy may play a role in adverse reactions
    to medications in breast milk
  4. slower neonatal drug metabolism plays an important
    role in toxicity to drugs in breast milk
  5. early breast feeding in the fi rst few post-partum days
    poses a large risk of adverse drug complications to the fetus from maternal drug consumptions
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    (Rathmell, JP. Mgmt of Non-obstetric Pain during
    Pregnancy and Lactation. Anesth and Analg 1997; 85:
    1074-
    87)
    The neonatal dose of most medication obtained through breast feeding is 1-2% of the maternal dose. Even with
    such low dose exposures, neonatal drug allergies and
    slower drug metabolism must be taken into consideration.
    Breast milk in the fi rst few days post- partum is usually a
    small amount of colostrums, thus the infant is posed no
    signifi cant risk of exposure to drugs used during the
    delivery period.
    Source: Shah RV
52
Q
1651. Compared to children and adults, drug clearance in
neonates may be delayed because of
1. Immature hepatic enzymes
2. Decreased renal blood fl ow
3. Reduce glomerular fi ltration
4. Increased protein binding
A
1651. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
Explanation:
Protein binding is decreased in the newborn compared to
the adult
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004
53
Q
  1. True statements about neonatal withdrawal syndrome
    from methadone are as follows:
  2. Neonatal withdrawal syndromes are characterized by
    hyperactivity, irritability, hypertonia, diffi culty sucking
    or excessive sucking, and high pitched cries.
  3. Neonates with intrauterine drug exposure should be followed
    in the hospital for 3 to 4 days after the delivery to
    monitor for signs of an abstinence syndrome.
  4. Timing of withdrawal onset depends on the time of the
    last drug exposure, and metabolism and excretion of
    the drug.
  5. If more than 7 days have elapsed between the last
    maternal use and delivery, the incidence of neonatal
    withdrawal is high.
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    If more than 7 days have elapsed between the last maternal
    use and delivery, the incidence of neonatal withdrawal is
    low.
54
Q
1653. Diabetes mellitus and its effects on the fetus include a
greater incidence of
1. pregnancy-induced hypertension
2. respiratory distress of the newborn
3. malpresentations
4. small size for gestational age
A
  1. Answer: A (1, 2, & 3)
    Explanation:
    Parturients who are suffering from diabetes mellitus often
    have babies who are large for gestational age. This may
    lead to malpresentations or other diffi culties during
    vaginal deliveries. There is also a greater incidence of
    uteroplacental insuffi ciency. For these and other reasons,
    these patients often undergo elective and emergency
    cesarean sections.
    Source: Stoelting, Anesthesia and Co-Existing Disease, 3/e.
    pp 564-565
55
Q
  1. True statements of treatment for acute withdrawal from
    sedative-hypnotics in pregnant women including the
    following:
  2. This is accomplished in an outpatient setting, which allows
    family to interact and provide support
  3. This should be accomplished in an inpatient setting,
    which allows for medical supervision in collaboration
    with an obstetrician
  4. Treatment is different for withdrawal for each sedative-
    hypnotic, such as barbiturates, benzodiazepines,
    and alcohol
  5. Uncontrolled withdrawal symptoms may be life-threatening
    to both mother and fetus
A
  1. Answer: C (2 & 4)
    Explanation:
    * Treatment for acute withdrawal from sedative-hypnotics
    in a pregnant woman should be accomplished in an
    inpatient setting, which allows for medical supervision in
    collaboration with an obstetrician.
    * Uncontrolled withdrawal symptoms may be lifethreatening
    to both mother and fetus
    * Treatment is identical for withdrawal from all sedativehypnotics,
    including barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and
    alcohol, because all drugs in this class exhibit crossdependence.