chapter 10 Flashcards

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1
Q

What does ‘PCR’ stand for?

A

Answer: Polymerase chain reaction

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2
Q

List the three steps in PCR

A
  • Denature
  • Anneal
  • Extend
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3
Q

3 Explain the role of a primer in PCR.

A

The primers are complimentary to either rend of the section of DNA to be copied. They act as the starting point for elongation of the DNA strands.

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4
Q

What is the advantage of using Taq polymerase over other DNA polymerases?

A

Taq polymerase is a heat tolerant polymerase, its optimum temperature is 72oC, and will not denature at 96oC when the DNA is melted.

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5
Q

Explain the role of restriction enzymes in DNA profiling.

A

Answer: When restriction enzymes are added to DNA, it cuts the strand into different lengths depending on the base sequence of the specific DNA sample. The length of these pieces can be analysed and compared with other DNA samples.

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6
Q

Will the shorter or longer lengths of DNA travel the greatest distance during electrophoresis? Explain your answer.

A

Answer: The shorter lengths will travel further. They encounter less resistance from the agarose gel.

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7
Q

List three methods of visualising DNA after electrophoresis.

A
  • Ethidium bromide is added and an ultraviolet light is shone over the gel to see the DNA fluoresce.
  • Methylene blue binds to the DNA and stains it a deep blue.
  • DNA probes with a radioactive or fluorescent molecule that binds to the DNA.
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8
Q

Draw a simplified structure of:
a deoxynucleotide triphosphate

dideoxyribonucleotide triphosphate.

A

textbook 275

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9
Q

Explain why temperatures of approximately 96°C are sufficient to denature the DNA.

A

96°C is hot enough to break the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together without disrupting the individual strands.

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10
Q

DNA sequencing makes it possible for suitable primers to be chosen for PCR.’ Discuss this statement.

A

DNA sequencing has allowed the determination of the precise order of nucleotides in a sample of DNA. Primers need to be specific to a sequence of DNA to allow the DNA segment to be copied. Knowing the precise order of nucleotides allows for the primers to be made so they can attach to the segment needed to be copied.

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11
Q

Identify two situations when it may be unethical to use genetic information. For each situation, discuss the reasons for and against its use.

A

Applying for a job. It is unethical to access genetic information to determine if applicants have any genetic disease that may make one person more suited than another. This does not allow everyone equity to the job. The employer may want to know if their desired candidate will have good health.
Insurance. It is unethical for insurance companies to access genetic information prior to approving health insurance of life insurance. The insurance companies may want to access this information to increase premium rates, but this breaches confidentiality.

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12
Q

Define ‘genome’. Describe how sequencing the genome can be used to provide evidence for evolution

A

The complete set of DNA in each cell of an organism is called the genome. Sequencing the genome and comparing sequences of human genome with the genome of other organisms, researchers are able to identify regions of similarity and difference. This provides evidence for evolution because the more similar the sequences, the organisms are more closely related.

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13
Q

Define ‘endogenous retrovirus’ and ‘non-coding DNA’.

A

Endogenous retroviruses are viral sequences that have become part of an organism’s genome. Non-coding DNA are sequences of nucleotides that have no apparent function and appear to serve no purpose.

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14
Q

Describe how endogenous retroviruses are used as evidence for evolution.

A

Endogenous retroviruses appear in the non-coding sections of DNA. As they are inherited, they will appear in the same location of DNA in different species that share a common ancestor. The more aligned the location of the ERVs are, the more similar the two species are.

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15
Q

What do the genes on mtDNA code for

A

: Mitochondrial DNA contains 37 genes. 24 genes contain the code for making transfer RNA molecules and 13 genes have instructions for making some enzymes needed for the reactions of cellular respiration.

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16
Q

Explain why not all retroviruses are endogenous retroviruses, and why only endogenous retroviruses are useful in providing evidence for evolution.

A

Answer: Retroviruses copy their DNA or RNA into the host cell through reverse transcription. The retroviruses will only become endogenous when the DNA or RNA is reverse transcribed into the gametes. When retroviruses become endogenous, the viral sequence will be passed on to the offspring from the common ancestor, so when comparing different species that share a common ancestor, the ERV would be found at the same location in the chromosome of both species.

17
Q

Compare and contrast mitochondrial DNA and nuclear DNA.

A

Compare: Both are composed of nucleotides and hold the code to build proteins (genes).
Contrast: Mitochondrial DNA is inherited maternally whereas nuclear DNA is inherited from both parents. Nuclear DNA contains tens of thousands of genes, whereas mitochondrial DNA contains only 37 genes

18
Q

State the relationship between DNA, RNA, amino acids and proteins.

A

: DNA contains the code for building proteins. The DNA is transcribed into mRNA and tRNA is used to translate the code into a sequence of amino acids at the ribosome. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Determining the sequence of amino acids can allow for the determination of the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.

19
Q

Define ‘ubiquitous protein’.

A

Answer: A ubiquitous protein is one of a group of proteins that appears to be in all species. It performs the same function in each species it is found in.

20
Q

Give an example of a ubiquitous protein.

A

Answer: Cytochrome C.

21
Q

5 What is bioinformatics?

Answer:

A

Bioinformatics is the use of computers to describe the molecular components of living things. It uses biochemical analysis to gain information about DNA and proteins and computer software to store and analyse it.

22
Q

Briefly outline the steps in building a DNA sequence.

A
  • DNA is extracted from cell nuclei.
  • DNA is broken into pieces and the pieces copied many times.
  • Double-stranded DNA separated into single strands.
  • Primer added and binds to one strand.
  • The second DNA strand is recreated by adding nucleotides in the correct sequence.
  • A terminator nucleotide stops the nucleotide sequence.
  • Strands can then be compared to determine the nucleotide sequence.
23
Q

Outline the steps in the polymerase chain reaction•

A

DNA is heated to 96°C to separate the two strands of the molecule (denaturation).

Cooling occurs so that the
• Primers are added and attach to each strand (annealing)

The enzyme DNA polymerase is used to join new complimentary nucleotides to the section or originating with the primers. It is not a full length of original DNA as it starts at the primer and not at the end of the DNA. taq ploymerase used now as heat resistant

• Heating occurs to separate the strands of the new DNA molecules and the process is repeated.

24
Q

Describe how mtDNA has been used to provide evidence for evolutionary relationships between species.

A

: mtDNA is inherited only from the mother. The mtDNA is a copy of that which was in the female parent’s egg cell. mtDNA mutates more often than nuclear DNA, and the amount of mutation of mtDNA is roughly proportional to the amount of time that has passed. Similarities and differences in the mtDNA of species can thus show evolutionary relationships.

25
Q

List the key areas that need to be ethically considered when deciding whether to gain or use genetic information.

A
  • Confidentiality
  • Autonomy
  • Privacy
  • Equity
26
Q

Define ‘gene flow’.

A

: Gene flow is the movement of genetic material from one population to another.

27
Q

List four barriers to gene flow.

A

Answer: Geographical barriers include oceans, mountain ranges, large lake systems, deserts and expansive ice sheets. Sociocultural barriers include economic status, educational background and social position

28
Q

Define ‘natural selection’.

A

Answer: The process by which a species becomes better adapted to its environment; those individuals with favourable characteristics have a survival advantage and so pass on those characteristics to subsequent generations.

29
Q

List the steps involved in evolution through natural selection.

A
  • Variation exists in the species
  • More offspring are produced than can possibly survive to maturity
  • There is a struggle for existence
  • Individuals with characteristics best suited to the environment have a better chance of surviving and reproducing
  • Favourable characteristics are passed on to the next generation
30
Q

Describe what a selective agent is, and give an example.

A

Answer: A selective agent is the environmental factor acting on the population. Examples include malaria or tuberculosis.

31
Q

genetic drift

A

Answer: The occurrence of characteristics in a small population as a result of chance rather than natural selection.

32
Q

founder effect

A

Answer: A type of genetic drift where a new population is formed by a small number of individuals. The founding population shows marked allele differences from the original population.

33
Q

bottleneck effect.

A

Answer: An extreme form of genetic drift that occurs when the size of a population is severely reduced due to a sudden event such as a natural disaster. The allele frequencies of the survivors may not reflect that of the original population.

34
Q

List the steps involved in speciation.

A
  • Variation
  • Isolation
  • Selection
  • Speciation