Chap 3 And 4 Review Flashcards
1
Q
- The _______ receive(s) incoming signals from other neurons
a. soma
b. terminal buttons
c. myelin sheath
d. dendrites
A
D.dendrites
2
Q
- A(n) ___________ facilitates, or mimics the activity of a given neurotransmitter system
a. axon
b. SSRI
c. agonist
d.antagonist
A
C. agonist
3
Q
- Multiple sclerosis involves a breakdown of the _
a, soma
b. myelin sheath
c. synaptic vesicles
d. dendrites
A
B. Myelin sheath
4
Q
- An action potential involves Na* moving__________ the cell and K* moving
Moving _________the cell.
a. inside; outside
b. outside; inside
c. inside; inside
d. outside; outside
A
A. inside; outside
5
Q
- Our ability to make our legs move as we walk across the room is controlled by the
nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. somatic
c. sympathetic
d.parasympathetic
A
B.somatic
6
Q
- If your _
is activated, you will feel relatively at ease.
a. somatic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. Spinal cord
A
C. parasympathetic nervous system
7
Q
- The central nervous system is comprised of
a. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
b. organs and glands
c. somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. brain and spinal cord
A
D.brain and spinal cord
8
Q
- Sympathetic activation is associated with__________
a. pupil dilation
b. storage of glucose in the liver
c. increased heart rate
d. both A and C
A
D. both a and C
9
Q
- The ________ is a sensory relay station where all sensory information, except for smell, goes before being sent to other areas of the brain for further processing.
a. amygdala
b. hippocampus
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus
A
D. thalamus
10
Q
- Damage to the _________ disrupts one’s ability to comprehend language, but it leaves one’s ability to produce words intact.
a. amygdala
b. Broca’s Area
c. Wernicke’s Area
d. occipital lobe
A
C. Wernicke’s area
11
Q
- A(n) _________ uses magnetic fields to create pictures of a given tissue.
a. EEG
b. MRI
c. PET scan
d. CT scan
A
B. MRI
12
Q
- Which of the following is not a structure of the forebrain?
a. thalamus
b. hippocampus
c. amygdala
d. substantia nigra
A
D. substantia nigra
13
Q
- Cocaine has two effects on synaptic transmission: it impairs reuptake of dopamine and it causes more dopamine to be released into the synaptic cleft. Would cocaine be classified as an agonist or antagonist? Why?
A
As a re-uptake inhibitor cocaine blocks the normal activity of dopamine at the receptor the function, causing more dopamine to be released into the synapse is agonist because it mimics and strengthens the effects of the neurotransmitter cocaine would be considered an agonist because by preventing the enzymatic degration of the neurotransmitters, it increases the potential time that these neurotransmitters might be active in the synapse
14
Q
- Drugs such as lidocaine and novocaine act as Nat channel blockers. In other words, they prevent sodium from moving across the neuronal membrane. Why would this particular effect make these drugs such effective local anesthetics?
A
The action potential is initiated by an influx of NA plus into the neuron if this process is prevented, then no action potentials in neurons in a given area will occur. Therefore, any painful stimuli would not result in action potentials carrying that information to the brain.
15
Q
- Examine Figure 3.14, illustrating the effects of sympathetic nervous system activation. How would all of these things play into the fight or flight response?
A
Most of these effects, directly impact energy availability and redistribution of key resources in heighten sensory capacity the individual experiencing these affects would be better prepared to fight or flea
16
Q
- Before the advent of modern imaging techniques, scientists and clinicians relied on autopsies of people who suffered brain injury with resultant change in behaviour to determine how different areas of the brain were affected.
What are some of the limitations associated with this kind of approach?
A
The same limitations associated with any case study would apply here. In addition it is possible that the damage cause changes in other areas of the brain which might contribute to the behavioural deficits such changes would not necessarily be obvious to someone performing an autopsy as they might be functional and nature rather than structural.
17
Q
- Which of the techniques discussed would be viable options for you to determine how activity in the reticular formation is related to sleep and wakefulness? Why?
A
The most viable techniques are fMRI and PET because of their ability to provide information about brain activity and structure simultaneously
18
Q
- The view that development is a cumulative process, gradually adding to the same type of skills is known as
a. nature
b. nurture
c. continuous development
d. discontinuous development
A
C.continuous development
19
Q
- Developmental psychologists study human growth and development across three domains. Which of the following is not one of these domains?
a. cognitive
b. psychological
c. physical
d. psychosocial
A
B.psychological
20
Q
- How is lifespan development defined?
a. The study of how we grow and change from conception to death.
b. The study of how we grow and change in infancy and childhood.
c. The study of physical, cognitive, and psychosocial growth in children.
d. The study of emotions, personality, and social relationships
A
A. the study of how we grow and change from conception to death
21
Q
- The idea that even if something is out of sight, it still exists is called___________
a. egocentrism
b. object permanence
c. conservation
d. Reversibility.
A
B.object permanence
22
Q
- Which theorist proposed that moral thinking proceeds through a series of stages?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Erik Erikson
c. John Watson
d. Lawrence Kohlberg
A
D.Lawrence Kohlberg
23
Q
- According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, what is the main task of the adolescent
a. developing autonomy
b. feeling competent
c. forming an identity
d. forming intimate relationships
A
C. forming an identity
24
Q
- Which of the following is the correct order of prenatal development?
a. zygote, fetus, embryo
b. fetus, embryo zygote
c. fetus, zygote, embryo
d. zygote, embryo, fetus
A
D. zygote embryo fetus
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8. The time during fetal growth when specific parts or organs develop is known as
a. critical period
b. mitosis
c. conception
d. Pregnancy
A. Critical.
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9. What begins as a single-cell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge at conception?
a. embryo
b. fetus
c. Zygote
d. Infant
C. Zygote
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10. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes is an example of
a. gross motor skills
b. fine motor skills
c. large motor skills
d. small motor skills
B. Fine motor skills.
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11. The child uses the parent as a base from which to explore their world in which attachment style?
a. secure
b. insecure avoidant
c. insecure ambivalent-resistant
d. disorganized
A. secure
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12. The frontal lobes become fully developed
a. at birth
b. at the beginning of adolescence
c. at the end of adolescence
d. by 25 years old
D. By 25 years old
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13. Who created the very first modern hospice?
A. Elizabeth Kubler – Ross.
B. Cicely Saunders
C. Florence Wald
D. Florence Nightingale
B. Cicely Saunders
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14. Which of the following is the order of stages in Kübler-Ross's five-stage model of grief?
a. denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance
b. anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance, denial
c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
d. anger, acceptance, denial, depression, bargaining
C. denial, angler, bargaining, depression, acceptance
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15. Describe the nature versus nurture controversy, and give an example of a trait and how it might be influenced by each?
The nature versus nurture controversy seeks to understand whether our personalities and traits are the product or their genetic makeup and biological factors, or whether they are shaped by our environment, which includes such things as our parents peers and culture today psychologist agree that both nurture and nature interact to shape who we become, but the debate over the relative contributions of each continuesand example would be a child learning to walk nature influences when the physical ability occurs, but culture can influence when a child masters the skill
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16. Compare and contrast continuous and discontinuous development.
Continuous development, Caesar development as a cumulative process: changes are gradual on the other hand, discontinuous development sees our development as taking place in specific steps or stages: changes are sudden
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17. Why should developmental milestones only be used as a general guideline for normal child development?
Children develop at different rates for example, some children may walk and talk as early as eight months old while others may not do so until well after their first birthday each child’s unique context will influence when he reaches these milestones
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18. What is the difference between assimilation and accommodation? Provide examples of each.
Assimilation is when we take an information that is comparable to what we already know accommodation is when we change our schemata based on new information and example of assimilation is a child schema of a“dog “based on the family’s golden retriever being expanded to include two newly adopted golden retrievers, and example of accommodation is that same child’s schema of a “dog” being adjusted to exclude other four-legged furry animals, such as sheep and foxes
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19. Why was Carol Gilligan critical of Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
Gilligan criticized Kohlberg because his theory was based on the response of upper class, white men and boys arguing that it is biased against women while Kohlberg concluded that women must be deficient in their moral reasoning abilities, Gilligan disagreed suggesting that female moral reasoning is not deficient just different
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20. What is egocentrism? Provide an original example.
Egocentrism is the inability to take the perspective of another person. This type of thinking is common and young children in the pre-operational stage of cognitive development and example might be that upon seeing his mother cry. A young child gives her his favourite stuffed animal to make her feel better.
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21. What are some known teratogens, and what kind of damage can they do to the developing fetus?
Alcohol is a teratogen excessive drinking can cause mental retardation in children. The child can also have a small head and abnormal facial features features which are characteristics of foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) another teratogen is nicotine smoking while pregnant can lead to low birth, weight, premature birth still birth, and SIDS
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22. What is prenatal care and why is it important?
Prenatal care is medical care during pregnancy that monitors the health of both the mother and fetus. It’s important to receive prenatal care because it can reduce complications to the mother and foetus during pregnancy.
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23. Describe what happens in the embryonic stage of development. Describe what happens in the fetal stage of development.
In the embryonic stage, basic structures of the embryo start to develop into areas that will become the head chest and abdomen the heart begins to be an organs form and begin to function the neural tube forms along the back of the embryo, developing into the spinal cord and brainin the foetal stage, the brain and body continue to develop fingers and toes develop along with hearing and internal organs form
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24. What makes a personal quality part of someone's personality?
The particular quality or trait must be part of the enduring behaviour pattern so that it is a consistent or predictable quality
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25. Describe some of the newborn reflexes. How might they promote survival?
The sucking reflex is the automatic unlearned sucking motions that infants do with their mouths. It may help promote survival because this action helps the baby take in nourishment. The rooting reflex is the newborn response to anything that touches her cheek. When you stroke a babies cheek she will naturally turn her head that way, and begin to suck. This may aid survival because it helps newborns, locate a source of food
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26. Compare and contrast the four parenting styles and describe the kinds of childhood outcomes we can expect with each.
With the authoritative style children are given, reasonable demands and consistent limits. Warmth and affection are expressed the parent listens to the child’s point of view, and the child initiates positive standards. Children raised by authoritative. Parents tend to have high self-esteem and social skills. Another parenting style is authoritarian: the parent place is a high value on conformity and obedience the parents are often strict tightly monitor their children and express little warmth. This style can create anxious, withdrawn and unhappy kids. The third parenting style is permissive: parents make few demands rarely use punishment and give their children, free rein children raised by permissive parents to lack self discipline which contributes to poor grades and alcohol abuse however they have higher self-esteem better social skills and lower levels of depression. The fourth style is the uninvolved parent: they are different uninvolved, and sometimes called neglectful. The children raised in this parenting style are usually emotionally, withdrawn, fearful, anxious, perform poorly in school and are at increased risk of substance abuse.
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27. What is emerging adulthood and what are some factors that have contributed to this new stage of development?
Emerging adulthood is a relatively new period of lifespan development from 18 years old to the mid 20s characterize as a traditional time in which identity exploration focusses on work and love according to Arnett, changing cultural expectations, facilitate the delay to full adult hood. People are spending more time exploring their options so they are delaying marriage and work as they change majors and jobs multiple times putting them on a much later timetable than their parents.
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28. Describe the five stages of grief and provide examples of how a person might react in each stage.
The first stage is denial. The person receives news that he is dying and either does not take it seriously or tries to escape from the reality of the situation situation. He might say something like “cancer could never happen to me. I take good care of myself this has to be a mistake” the next stage is anger he realizes time is short and he may not have a chance to accomplish what he wanted in life. It’s not fair. I promised my grandchildren that we would go to Disney World and now I’ll never have the chance to take them “the third stage is bargaining in this stage. He tries to delay the inevitable by bargaining or pleading for extra time usually with God, family members or medical care providers “God just give me one more year so I can take that trip with my grandchildren they’re too young to understand what’s happening and why I can’t take them“the fourth stage is depression. He becomes sad about his impending death “I can’t believe this is how I’m going to die. I’m in so much pain what’s going to become of my family when I’m gone” the final stages acceptance this stage is usually reached in the last few days or weeks before death. He recognizes that death is inevitable “I need to get everything in order, and say all of my goodbyes to the people I love. “
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29. What is the purpose of hospice care?
Personal Application Questions
Hospice is a program of services that provide medical social and spiritual support for dying people and their families
