Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL1190 LECTURE > CH8 > Flashcards

CH8 Flashcards

1
Q

What bones does the scapula articulate with?

A
  • clavicle at acromioclavicular joint
  • humerus at glenohumeral/shoulder joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what bones does the clavicle articulate with?

A
  • scapula at acromioclavicular joint
  • manubrium of sternum at sternoclavicular joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

do the pectoral girdles articulate with the vertebral column?

A

No, are held in position and stabilized by a group of large muscles that extend from the vertebral column and ribs to the scapula instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the function of the pectoral girdle?

A

attaches the bones of the upper limbs to the axial skeleton by a series of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the function of the conoid tubercle on the clavice?

A

serves as attachment point for conoid ligament which attaches clavicle and scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the function of the impression for the costoclavicular ligament on the clavicle?

A

attachment point for the costoclavicular ligament that attaches clavicle and first rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is the acromioclavicular joint formed?

A

articulation of acromion and acromial end of clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the function of the glenoid cavity?

A

shallow depression that accepts the head of the humerus to form the glenohumeral/shoulder joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which part of the clavicle is its weakest point?

A

the junction of the two curves of the clavicle is its weakest point, the clavicular midregion is the most frequent fracture site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which part of the scapula forms the high point of the shoulder?

A

the acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the function of the coracoid process on the scapula?

A

tendons of muscles and ligaments attach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the function of the supraspinous fossa on the scapula?

A

surface of attachment for the supraspinatus muscle of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the function of the infraspinous fossa on the scapula?

A

surface of attachment for the infraspinatus muscle of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the subscapular fossa on the scapula?

A

surface of attachment for the subscapularis muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

glenohumeral joint bones?

A

head of humerus + glenoid cavity of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what did the anatomical neck of the humerus used to be?

A

former site of the epiphyseal (growth) plate in an adult humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the function of the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus?

A

area serves as a point of attachment for the tendons of the deltoid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which three sites do the ulna and radius connect with one another?

A
  • interosseous membrane joins shafts of the two bones
  • roximally, the head of the radius articulates with the ulna’s radial notch = proximal radioulnar joint
  • Distally, the head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of the radius=distal radioulnar joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What part of the ulna is called the “elbow”?

A

trochlear notch of the ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the carpal tunnel?

A

anterior concave space formed by carpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Narrowing of the carpal tunnel, due to such factors as inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what articulations form the elbow joint?

A

(1) the trochlear notch of the ulna with the trochlea of the humerus
(2) the head of the radius with the capitulum of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are your knuckles?

A

the distal heads of the metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

carpometacarpal joints?

A

proximal bases of metacarpal bones articulate with the distal row of carpal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

interphalangeal joints?

A

joints between phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the pubic symphysis?

A

slightly moveable fibrocartilage joint between anterior surfaces of the hip bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sacroiliac joints?

A

pelvic bones unit posteriorly with sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the bony pelvis?

A

The complete ring composed of the hip bones, pubic symphysis, sacrum, and coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the function of the bony pelvis?

A
  • bony pelvis provides a strong and stable support for the vertebral column and pelvic and lower abdominal organs
  • pelvic girdle of the bony pelvis also connects the bones of the lower limbs to the axial skeleton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the three parts of the hip bones?

A
  • superior ilium
  • inferior and posterior ischium
  • inferior and anterior pubis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is a hip pointer?

A

Bruising of the anterior superior iliac spine and associated soft tissues, such as occurs in body contact sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what do the spines of the ilium do?

A

serve as points of attachment for the tendons of the muscles of the trunk, hip, and thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the function of the greater sciatic notch?

A

the sciatic nerve passes, along with other nerves, blood vessels, and muscles, along the greater sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what part of the ischium starts hurting after sitting on a hard surface?

A

the prominent ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what bones surround the obturator foramen?

A

the ramus of the ischium and the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the acetabulum?

A

the socket for the head of the femur, where the three parts of the hip bone converge and ossify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when might the angle of the pubic arch change?

A
  • In the later stages of pregnancy, the hormone relaxin (produced by the ovaries and placenta) increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis to ease delivery of the baby
  • Weakening of the joint, together with an already altered center of gravity due to an enlarged uterus, also changes the mother’s gait during pregnancy
38
Q

what is the greater pelvis?

A

portion of the bony pelvis superior to the pelvic inlet
- part of the lower abdomen; it contains the superior portion of the urinary bladder (when it is full) and the lower intestines in both genders and the uterus, ovaries, and uterine tubes of the female

39
Q

what is the lesser pelvis?

A

portion of the bony pelvis inferior to the pelvic inlet
- contains the rectum and urinary bladder in both genders, the vagina and cervix of the uterus in females, and the prostate and seminal glands in males

40
Q

what is pelvimetry?

A

the measurement of the size of the inlet and outlet of the birth canal, which may be done by ultrasonography or physical examination
- Measurement of the pelvic cavity in pregnant females is important because the fetus must pass through the narrower opening of the pelvis at birth

41
Q

How is the pubic arch different from males and females?

A

males: less than 90° angle

females: Greater than 90° angle

42
Q

How is the pelvic outlet different between males and females?

A

males: narrower

females: wider

43
Q

In general, how are male bones different from female bones?

A

the bones of males are larger and heavier and possess larger surface markings than those of females of comparable age and physical stature

  • Most of the structural differences in the pelves are adaptations to the requirements of pregnancy and childbirth
44
Q

what embryonic layer did most of the skeleton come from?

A

mesenchymal cells, connective tissue cells derived from mesoderm

45
Q

what embryonic layer did most of the skull come from?

A

ectoderm, develops from mesenchyme around the developing brain that condense and form models of bones in areas where the bones themselves will ultimately form

46
Q

what two major portions compose the development of the skull?

A
  1. neurocranium
  2. viscerocranium
47
Q

what is neurocranium?

A

mesodermal in origin, forms the cranial cavity bones

48
Q

what is viscerocranium?

A

ectodermal in origin, forms facial bones

49
Q

what two parts make up the neurocranium?

A
  1. cartilaginous neurocranium
  2. membranous neurocranium
50
Q

what is cartilaginous neurocranium?

A

consists of hyaline cartilage developed from mesenchyme at the cranial base of the developing skull. It later undergoes endochondral ossification to form the bones of the cranial base.

51
Q

what is membranous neurocranium?

A

consists of mesenchyme and later undergoes intramembranous ossification to form the flat bones that make up the roof and sides of the skull. During fetal life and infancy the flat bones are separated by fontanels

52
Q

what two parts make up the viscerocranium?

A
  • cartilaginous viscerocranium
  • membranous viscerocranium
53
Q

what is the cartilaginous viscerocranium?

A

derived from the cartilage of the first two pharyngeal (branchial) arches
- Endochondral ossification of these cartilages forms portions of the jaw bones, ear bones and hyoid bone.

54
Q

what is the membranous viscerocranium?

A

derived from mesenchyme in the first pharyngeal arch and, following intramembranous ossification, forms the facial bones.

55
Q

what are the vertebrae and ribs derived from?

A

portions of cube-shaped masses of mesoderm called somites, mesenchymal cells from these regions surround the notochord

56
Q

what is the notochord?

A

a solid cylinder of mesodermal cells that induces (stimulates) the mesenchymal cells to form the vertebral bodies, costal (rib) centers, and vertebral arch centers
- induces formation of nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus

57
Q

what is a hip fracture?

A
  • a break in the proximal end of the femur (head, neck, and trochanteric regions)
  • may also involve the bones that form the acetabulum
  • Complications of hip fractures include blood clots, pneumonia, muscle atrophy (decrease in muscle mass), postoperative infection, and bedsores
58
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for all body systems?

A
  • Bones provide support and protection for internal organs
  • Bones store and release calcium, which is needed for proper functioning of most body tissues
59
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the integumentary system?

A

Bones provide strong support for overlying muscles and skin

60
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the muscular system?

A
  • Bones provide attachment points for muscles and leverage for muscles to bring about body movements
  • Contraction of skeletal muscle requires calcium ions
61
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the nervous system?

A
  • Skull and vertebrae protect brain and spinal cord
  • Normal blood level of calcium is needed for normal functioning of neurons and neuroglia
62
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the endocrine system?

A

Bones store and release calcium, needed during exocytosis of hormone-filled vesicles and for normal actions of many hormones

63
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Red bone marrow carries out hemopoiesis (blood cell formation)
  • Rhythmic beating of the heart requires calcium ions
64
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the lymphatic system and immunity?

A

Red bone marrow produces lymphocytes, white blood cells that are involved in immune responses

65
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the respiratory system?

A
  • Axial skeleton of thorax protects lungs
  • Rib movements assist in breathing
  • Some muscles used for breathing attach to bones via tendons
66
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the digestive system?

A
  • Teeth masticate (chew) food
  • Rib cage protects esophagus, stomach, and liver
  • Pelvis protects portions of the intestines
67
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the urinary system?

A
  • Ribs partially protect kidneys
  • Pelvis protects urinary bladder and urethra
68
Q

what is the contribution of the skeletal system for the reproductive system?

A
  • Pelvis protects ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus in females
  • Pelvis protects part of ductus deferens and accessory glands in males
  • Bones are an important source of calcium needed for milk synthesis during lactation
69
Q

what is hemiarthroplasty?

A

The procedure of replacing either the femoral head or the acetabulum with artificial devices/prostheses

70
Q

what is total hip arthroplasty?

A

Replacement of both the femoral head and acetabulum

71
Q

why is the angle of the femoral body greater in females?

A

female pelvises are broader

72
Q

why are the knee joints closer to the midline than the hip joints?

A

the body of the femur angles medially

73
Q

what is the fovea capitis?

A

a small central depression on the rounded head at the proximal end of the femur

74
Q

what is the function of the fovea capitis?

A

connects the fovea of the femur to the acetabulum of the hip bone

75
Q

What landmark is commonly used to locate the site for intramuscular injections into the lateral surface of the thigh?

A

greater trochanter of the femur

76
Q

what is patellofemoral stress syndrome?

A
  • increased pressure on the joint causes aching or tenderness around or under the patella
  • pain typically occurs after a person has been sitting for a while, especially after exercise
  • worsened by squatting or walking down stairs
77
Q

what is the only bone of the foot that articulates with the fibula and tibia?

A

the talus

78
Q

how do the talus, calcaneus, and the other tarsal bones interact during walking?

A

the talus transmits about half the weight of the body to the calcaneus. The remainder is transmitted to the other tarsal bones.

79
Q

why is the first metatarsal thicker?

A

it bears more weight than the others

80
Q

how do fractures of the metatarsals occur?

A

when a heavy object falls onto or rolls over the foot.

Such fractures are also common among dancers, especially ballet dancers. If a ballet dancer is on the tip of her toes and loses her balance, the full body weight is placed on the metatarsals, causing one or more of them to fracture.

81
Q

what do the arches on the foot do?

A

The arches enable the foot to support the weight of the body, provide an ideal distribution of body weight over the soft and hard tissues of the foot, and provide leverage while walking

  • they yield as weight is applied and spring back when the weight is lifted, thus storing energy for the next step and helping to absorb shocks
82
Q

what are the arches found on the foot?

A
  • longitudinal arch
  • transverse arch
83
Q

what is the longitudinal arch?

A

arch on foot that runs along longitudinal plane of foot

  • medial part
  • lateral part

The medial portion of the longitudinal arch is so high that the medial portion of the foot between the ball and heel does not touch the ground when you walk on a hard surface.

84
Q

what is the transverse arch?

A

arch on foot that is found between medial and lateral aspects of the foot

85
Q

what happens to the foot arches when someone wears high-heeled shoes?

A

the distribution of weight changes so that the ball of the foot may carry up to 80% and the heel 20%. As a result, the fat pads at the ball of the foot are damaged, joint pain develops, and structural changes in bones may occur.

86
Q

what is flatfoot?

A

the height of the medial longitudinal arch may decrease or “fall” when ligaments and tendons that hold the foot arches in position are weakened

  • causes of which include excessive weight, postural abnormalities, weakened supporting tissues, and genetic predisposition
87
Q

what is clawfoot?

A

the medial longitudinal arch is abnormally elevated. It is often caused by muscle deformities, such as may occur in diabetics whose neurological lesions lead to atrophy of muscles of the foot.

88
Q

Mr. Smith’s dog Rover dug up a complete set of human bones in the woods near his house. After examining the scene, the local police collected the bones and transported them to the coroner’s office for identification. Later, Mr. Smith read in the newspaper that the bones belonged to an elderly female. How was this determined?

A

There are several characteristics of the bony pelves that can be used to differentiate male from female: (1) The pelvis in the female is wider and more shallow than the male’s; (2) the pelvic brim of the female is larger and more oval; (3) the pubic arch has an angle greater than 90º; (4) the pelvic outlet is wider than in a male; (5) the female’s iliac crest is less curved and the ilium less vertical. Age of the skeleton can be determined by the size of the bones, the presence or absence of epiphyseal plates, the degree of demineralization of the bones, and the general appearance of the “bumps” and ridges of bones.

89
Q

A proud dad holds his 5-month-old baby girl upright on her feet while supporting her under her arms. He states that she can never be a dancer because her feet are too flat. Is this true? Why or why not?

A

Infants do have “flat feet” because their arches have not yet developed. As they begin to stand and walk, the arches should begin to develop in order to accommodate and support their body weight. The arches are usually fully developed by age 12 or 13, so Dad doesn’t need to worry yet!

90
Q

The local newspaper reported that Farmer White caught his hand in a piece of machinery last Tuesday. He lost the lateral two fingers of his left hand. His daughter, who is taking high school science, reports that Farmer White has three remaining phalanges. Is she correct, or does she need a refresher?

A

There are 14 phalanges in each hand: two bones in the thumb and three in each of the other digits. Farmer White has lost five phalanges on his left hand (two in his thumb and three in his index finger), so he has nine remaining on his left and 14 remaining on his right for a total of 23.

BIOL1190 LECTURE (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions