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BIOL1190 LECTURE > CH7 > Flashcards

CH7 Flashcards

1
Q

what is orthopedics?

A

branch of medical science concerned with the prevention or correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system

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2
Q

what are the main shape types of bone?

A
  1. long bones
  2. short bones
  3. flat bones
  4. irregular bones
  5. sesamoid bones
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3
Q

why are long bones slightly curved instead of just straight?

A
  • A curved bone absorbs the strain of the body’s weight at several different points, so that it is evenly distributed
  • If bones were straight, the weight of the body would be unevenly distributed, and the bone would fracture more easily
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4
Q

What are some examples of long bones?

A
  • tibia
  • fibula
  • humerus
  • ulna
  • radius
  • femur
  • phalanges
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5
Q

what tissue do long bones mainly consist of?

A

compact bone tissue

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6
Q

what tissue do short bones mainly consist of?

A

spongy bone tissue

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7
Q

what are some examples of short bones?

A
  • carpals
  • tarsals
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8
Q

Which type of bone primarily provides protection and a large surface area for muscle attachment?

A

flat bones because they’re generally thin and flat

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9
Q

what are some examples of flat bones?

A
  • cranial cavity bones
  • sternum
  • ribs
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10
Q

what are some examples of irregular bones?

A
  • vertebrae
  • hip bones
  • some facial bones
  • calcaneus
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11
Q

where do sesamoid bones usually develop?

A

in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension, and physical strain, such as the palms and soles

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12
Q

what is the function of sesamoid bones?

A
  • protect tendons from excessive wear and tear
  • often change the direction of pull of a tendon, which improves the mechanical advantage at a joint
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13
Q

when are surface markings of bone most prominent?

A

in the adult skeleton

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14
Q

what are the two major types of surface markings?

A
  1. depressions and openings
  2. processes
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15
Q

what is a fissure?

A

Narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones through which blood vessels or nerves pass

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16
Q

what is a foramen?

A

Opening through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass

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17
Q

what is a fossa?

A

shallow depression

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18
Q

what is a sulcus?

A

Furrow along bone surface that accommodates blood vessel, nerve, or tendon

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19
Q

what is a meatus?

A

tubelike opening

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20
Q

what is a condyle?

A

Large, round protuberance with a smooth articular surface at end of bone, forms joints

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21
Q

what is a facet?

A

Smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex articular surface, forms joints

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22
Q

what is a head?

A

Usually rounded articular projection supported on neck (constricted portion) of bone, forms joints

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23
Q

what is a crest?

A

Prominent ridge or elongated projection, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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24
Q

what is an epicondyle?

A

Typically roughened projection above condyle, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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25
Q

what is a line?

A

Long, narrow ridge or border (less prominent than crest), forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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26
Q

what is a spinous process?

A

sharp, slender projection, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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27
Q

what is a trochanter?

A

very large projection, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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28
Q

what is a tubercle?

A

variably-sized rounded projection, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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29
Q

what is a tuberosity?

A

Variably-sized projection that has a rough, bumpy surface, forms attachment points for connective tissue such as ligaments and tendons

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30
Q

what is the cranial base?

A

the floor of the cranial cavity

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31
Q

what is the function of the cranial cavity bones?

A
  • protect brain
  • stabilize position of brain and vessels
  • outer surfaces provide attachment areas for muscles
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32
Q

what is a black eye?

A

bruising around the eye, commonly due to an injury to the face rather than an eye injury
- In response to trauma, blood and other fluids accumulate in the space around the eye, causing the swelling and dark discoloration

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33
Q

what is mastoiditis?

A
  • inflammation of mastoid air cells due to untreated middle ear infections
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34
Q

what structures pass through the foramen magnum?

A
  • medulla oblongata connects with spinal cord in this foramen
  • vertebral and spinal arteries
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35
Q

why is the sphenoid bone referred to as the keystone of the cranial base?

A

it articulates with all the other cranial cavity bones of the cranial base, holding them together

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36
Q

what structure is found in the sphenoid bone’s sella turcica?

A

the pituitary gland

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37
Q

why is the ethmoid bone so spongy?

A

for an extensive surface area in nasal cavity, where olfactory nerves work

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38
Q

what structure attaches to crista galli?

A

the falx cerebri, the membrane that separates the two cerebral hemispheres (halves) of the brain

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39
Q

what is the function of the conchae?

A
  • greatly increase the vascular and mucous membrane surface area in the nasal cavity, which warms and moistens (humidifies) inhaled air before it passes into the lungs
  • cause inhaled air to swirl; many inhaled particles become trapped in the mucus that lines the nasal cavity, cleanses inhaled air before it passes into the rest of the respiratory passageways.
  • superior nasal conchae increase the surface area for the sense of smell
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40
Q

what is cleft palate?

A

failure of palatine processes of maxillary bones uniting, may also involve incomplete fusion of the horizontal plates of the palatine bones

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41
Q

what is cleft lip?

A
  • split in the upper lip
  • usually occurs with cleft palate
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42
Q

what bone does the maxilla not articulate with?

A

mandible

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43
Q

what is the hard palate?

A
  • bony roof of the mouth, and is formed by the palatine processes of the maxillae and horizontal plates of the palatine bones
  • separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
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44
Q

What is the distinctive functional feature of the mandible among almost all the other skull bones?

A
  • the only skull bone that can move
45
Q

what is TMJ dysfunction?

A
  • dull pain around the ear, tenderness of the jaw muscles, a clicking or popping noise when opening or closing the mouth, limited or abnormal opening of the mouth, headache, tooth sensitivity, and abnormal wearing of the teeth
  • caused by improperly aligned teeth, grinding or clenching the teeth, trauma to the head and neck, or arthritis
  • Treatments include application of moist heat or ice, limiting the diet to soft foods, administration of pain relievers such as aspirin, bite plate to reduce grinding
46
Q

what is a deviated nasal septum?

A

nasal septum doesn’t run along midline of nasal cavity, bends to one side

47
Q

what happens if someone has a deviated nasal septum?

A

can block airflow into the constricted side of the nose, making it difficult to breathe through that half of the nasal cavity

  • If severe, it may block the nasal passageway entirely
  • If inflammation occurs, it may cause nasal congestion, blockage of the paranasal sinus openings, chronic sinusitis, headache, and nosebleeds
48
Q

what is the function of the nasal septum?

A

divides nasal cavity into right and left sides

49
Q

what are the three components of the nasal septum?

A
  • vomer
  • septal nasal cartilage
  • perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
50
Q

what are the bones that form each orbit?

A
  • frontal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
  • zygomatic
  • lacrimal
  • maxilla
  • palatine
51
Q

what are the five major openings associated with each orbit?

A
  • optic canal
  • superior orbital fissure
  • inferior orbital fissure
  • supraorbital foramen/notch
  • lacrimal fossa
52
Q

what are the four main sutures of the skull?

A
  • coronal
  • sagittal
  • lambdoid
  • squamous
53
Q

what is the function of the paranasal sinuses?

A
  • allow the skull to increase in size without a change in the mass (weight) of the bone
  • increase the surface area of the nasal mucosa, thus increasing the production of mucus to help moisten and cleanse inhaled air
  • serve as resonating (echo) chambers within the skull that intensify and prolong sounds, thereby enhancing the quality of the voice
54
Q

what is sinusitis?

A

inflammation of mucous membrane of one or more paranasal sinuses
- caused by microbrial infection, allergic rxns, nasal polyp, deviated nasal septum
- sinus headache, congestion, inability to smell, fever

55
Q

what are fontanels?

A

areas where unossified mesenchyme develop into dense connective tissue regions between incompletely developed cranial bones
- become sutures when intramembranous ossification happens

56
Q

what is the function of the fontanels?

A
  • serve as spacers for the growth of neighboring skull bones
  • provide some flexibility to the fetal skull, allowing the skull to change shape as it passes through the birth canal
  • permitting rapid growth of the brain during infancy
57
Q

what is the function of the hyoid bone?

A
  • supports tongue
  • provides attachment sites for tongue muscles and muscles of neck and pharynx
58
Q

In what way is the hyoid bone different from all other bones of the axial skeleton?

A

only bone in body that does not articulate with any other bone

59
Q

why is the hyoid bone carefully examined during autopsy when manual strangulation is suspected?

A

hyoid bone and the cartilages of the larynx and trachea are often fractured during strangulation

60
Q

Which curves of the adult vertebral column are concave (relative to the anterior side of the body)?

A
  • thoracic curve
  • sacral curve
61
Q

Which curves of the adult vertebral column are convex (relative to the anterior side of the body)?

A
  • cervical curve
  • lumbar curve
62
Q

what is the function of the vertebral column’s curves?

A
  • increase its strength
  • help maintain balance in the upright position
  • absorb shocks during walking
  • protect the vertebrae from fracture
63
Q

why are the thoracic and sacral curves primary curves?

A

they retain the original curvature of the embryonic vertebral column

64
Q

why are the cervical and lumbar curves secondary curves?

A

they begin to form later, several months after birth

65
Q

what is an intervertebral disc?

A

a pad of fibrous cartilage located between bodies of two vertebrae
- outer fibrous ring consisting of fibrous cartilage-annulus fibrosus
- inner soft, pulpy, highly elastic substance-nucleus pulposus
- superior and inferior surfaces of the disc consist of a thin plate of hyaline cartilage

66
Q

what is the function of the intervertebral discs?

A
  • form strong joints
  • permit various movements of the vertebral column
  • absorb vertical shock
  • Under compression, they flatten and broaden
67
Q

how do intervertebral discs contribute to change in height throughout the day?

A

Over the day, the discs compress and lose water from their cartilage, so that we are a bit shorter at night

While we are sleeping there is less compression and rehydration occurs, so that we are taller when we awaken in the morning

68
Q

what is the decrease in vertebral height with age a result from?

A
  • bone loss in vertebral bodies, not a decrease in thickness of intervertebral discs
69
Q

how does yoga help the intervertebral discs?

A
  • intervertebral discs are avascular, rely on blood vessels from vertebrae
  • yoga and stretching exercises decompress discs and increase general blood circulation
70
Q

what forms the vertebral arch?

A
  • pedicles
  • lamina
71
Q

what processes of vertebra serve as points of attachment for muscles?

A
  • spinous process
  • the two transverse processes
72
Q

what processes of a vertebra form joints with other vertebrae above or below?

A
  • two superior articular processes
  • two inferior articular processes
73
Q

what are intervertebral joints?

A

articulations formed between the vertebral bodies and articular facets of successive vertebrae

74
Q

what are articular facets of the vertebrae?

A

articulating surfaces of the articular processes covered by hyaline cartilage

75
Q

what are some age-related changes in the vertebral column?

A
  • reduction in the mass and density of the bone
  • reduction in the collagen-to-mineral content within the bone
  • bones become more brittle and susceptible to damage
  • articular surfaces lose their cartilage covering
76
Q

what are osteophytes?

A

rough bony growths formed in place of lost hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces of vertebrae

77
Q

Which joint permits you to move your head to signify “no”? Which bones are involved?

A

atlas and axis, atlanto-axial joint

78
Q

why does the head feel heavier in forward head posture?

A

forward head posture causes a shift in the body’s center of gravity, resulting in increased pressure on the cervical spine

79
Q

Which joint permits you to nod your head to signify “yes”? Which bones are involved?

A

atlanto-occipital joint, atlas and occipital bone

80
Q

what injury is the usual cause of death from whiplash injuries?

A
  • dens of axis is driven into medulla oblongata of the brain
81
Q

Which parts of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs?

A

the superior and inferior transverse costal facets

82
Q

why are the lumbar vertebrae the largest?

A

because the amount of body weight supported by the vertebrae increases toward the inferior end of the backbone

83
Q

what is caudal anesthesia?

A

Anesthetic agents that act on the sacral and coccygeal nerves are sometimes injected through the sacral hiatus,

84
Q

what are the costal cartilages?

A

strip of hyaline cartilage that serve to attach ribs to sternum

85
Q

what is the function of the costal cartilages?

A
  • contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage
  • prevent various blows to the chest from fracturing the sternum and/or ribs
86
Q

what are true/vertebrosternal ribs?

A

ribs that have costal cartilages and attach directly to the sternum

87
Q

what are sternocostal joints?

A

articulations formed between the true ribs and the sternum

88
Q

what are false ribs?

A

ribs with costal cartilages that either attach indirectly to the sternum or do not attach to the sternum at all

89
Q

what are vertebrochondral ribs?

A

false ribs where cartilages attach to one another and then to cartilages of 7th pair of ribs

90
Q

what are vertebral/floating ribs?

A

ribs which their costal cartilages at their anterior ends do not attach to the sternum at all, ribs attach only posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae

91
Q

what is costochondritis?

A

Inflammation of one or more costal cartilages, characterized by local tenderness and pain in the anterior chest wall that may radiate

  • symptoms mimic the chest pain (angina pectoris) associated with a heart attack
92
Q

where might ribs break?

A
  • at point where greatest force is applied
  • weak point, the site of greatest curvature just anterior to the costal angle
93
Q

what is a herniated disc?

A
  • rupture of an intervertebral disc’s annulus fibrosus so that nucleus pulposus protrudes into vertebral cavity
94
Q

why do herniated discs most often occur in the lumbar area?

A

the lumbar region bears much of the weight of the body, and is the region of the most flexing and bending

95
Q

why do herniated discs cause pain?

A

nucleus pulposus slips posteriorly toward the spinal cord and spinal nerves, movement exerts pressure on the spinal nerves, causing local weakness and acute pain

96
Q

what is scoliosis?

A

lateral bending of the vertebral column, usually in the thoracic region

causes:
- from birth
- malformed vertebrae
- chronic sciatica
- poor posture
- one leg shorter than another

97
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of scoliosis?

A
  • uneven shoulders and waist
  • one shoulder blade more prominent than the other
  • one hip higher than the other
  • leaning to one side
  • breathing difficulties
  • chronic back pain and arthritis
98
Q

what is kyphosis?

A

an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column that produces a “hunchback” look
- caused by rickets and poor posture
- common in females with advanced osteoporosis

99
Q

what is lordosis?

A

an increase in the lumbar curve of the vertebral column

  • may result from increased weight of the abdomen as in pregnancy or extreme obesity, poor posture, rickets, osteoporosis, or tuberculosis of the spine
100
Q

what is spina bifida?

A

a congenital defect of the vertebral column in which laminae of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and unite at the midline

101
Q

what is spina bifida occulta?

A

least serious form of spina bifida, no symptoms
- only sign is small dimple with a tuft of hair in the overlying skin

102
Q

what is spina bifida cystica?

A

types of spina bifida involve protrusion of meninges (membranes) and/or spinal cord through the defect in the laminae

  • presence of a cystlike sac protruding from the backbone
103
Q

what is spina bifida with meningocele?

A

presence of a cystlike sac protruding from the backbone, contains the meninges from the spinal cord and cerebrospinal fluid

104
Q

what is spina bifida with meningomyelocele?

A

presence of a cystlike sac protruding from the backbone, the spinal cord and/or its nerve roots are in the sac

105
Q

What is associated with an increased risk of spina bifida?

A

low levels of folic acid during pregnancy

106
Q

immy is in a car accident. He can’t open his mouth and has been told that he suffers from the following: black eye, broken nose, broken cheek, broken upper jaw, damaged eye socket, and punctured lung. Describe exactly what structures have been affected by his car accident.

A

Inability to open mouth—damage to the mandible, probably at temporomandibular joint; black eye—trauma to the ridge over the supraorbital margin; broken nose—probably damage to the nasal septum (includes the vomer, septal nasal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid) and possibly the nasal bones; broken cheek—fracture of zygomatic bone; broken upper jaw—fracture of maxilla; damaged eye socket—fracture of parts of the sphenoid, frontal, ethmoid, palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal, and maxilla (all compose the eye socket); punctured lung—damage to the thoracic vertebrae, which have punctured the lung.

107
Q

Bubba is a tug-of-war expert. He practices day and night by pulling on a rope attached to an 800-lb anchor. What kinds of changes in his bone structure would you expect him to develop?

A

Due to the repeated and extensive strains on his bone surfaces, Bubba would experience deposition of new bone tissue. His arm bones would be thicker and with increased raised areas (projections) where the tendons attach his muscles to bone.

108
Q

A new mother brings her newborn infant home and has been told by her well-meaning friend not to wash the baby’s hair for several months because the water and soap could “get through that soft area in the top of the head and cause brain damage.” Explain to her why this is not true.

A

The “soft area” being referred to is the anterior fontanel, located between the parietal and frontal bones. This is one of several areas of fibrous connective tissue in the skull that has not ossified; it should complete its ossification at 18–24 months after birth. Fontanels allow flexibility of the skull for childbirth and for brain growth after birth. The connective tissue will not allow passage of water; thus no brain damage will occur through simply washing the baby’s hair.

BIOL1190 LECTURE (15 decks)

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