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ANZbSOPs > Ch3: Normal Procedures > Flashcards

Ch3: Normal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What much each flight crew carry on each flight?

A

● Flight crew licence including medical validity certificate
● Passport (international only)
● Visas as required
● Identity card

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2
Q

During normal cockpit preparation, the activation of some systems may create a
hazard outside the aircraft. Flight crew shall ensure that any such system is clear,
prior to (3):

A

● resetting CBs
● starting the APU
● connecting electrical power to the aircraft.

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3
Q

CAUTION: Prior to taxi, a ground clearance shall be obtained before operating which systems (4):

A

– any hydraulic system is pressurised
– any wing flap or slat is moved
– an engine start
– any reverse lever is actuated.

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4
Q

When two systems are fitted, their use should be ________.

A

alternated

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5
Q

Assumed temperature reduced-thrust take-offs are not permitted towards _______.

A

runway WIP in which personnel or equipment are within the runway strip

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6
Q

The take-off briefing is required before every take-off. It shall consist of three
components.

A
  1. emergency briefing
  2. departure briefing (T-CTWO)
  3. performance briefing
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7
Q

A preparation phase is required prior to the briefing being delivered. The preparation
for departure requires that (5):

A

● FCOM procedures are complete
● FMC has been loaded and checked
● navigation aids are set
● each pilot has read the departure airport’s Route Guide pages
● any questions about the preparation phase have been resolved.

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8
Q

When do TC-TWO?

A

After preparation phase

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9
Q

WARNING: In the event of an emergency when the aircraft is moving during
pushback or pull-forward, either the flight crew or Headset Operator shall identify the requirement to immediately stop the
aircraft as follows:

A

Flight crew or Headset Operator, “STOP! STOP! STOP!”

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10
Q

During engine start, words used for unscheduled shut down?

A

“Cut Cut Cut”

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11
Q

After disconnect, the Headset Operator will stand clear within view of the flight
deck and signal that it is safe to taxi the aircraft. Flight crew will acknowledge this
clearance (day / night):

A 
● by day, with a thumbs-up signal from the appropriate side
● by night or in conditions of low visibility, by flashing an appropriate external
light once (eg taxi or runway turn-off light).
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12
Q

To recall the Headset Operator after disconnect, flash an appropriate external light _____ times.

A

three

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13
Q

At all times when manoeuvring on the ground the PF and PM must have access to an ________.

A

airport chart

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14
Q

When taxiing at high gross weight, or for a long distance, speed should be restricted
to _____kt or less.

A

20

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15
Q

When turning on a wet taxiway, or when making a sharp turn under any conditions,
speed should not exceed ____ kt.

A

10

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16
Q

Taxi speed shall never exceed _____ kt.

A

30

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17
Q

Unless circumstances permit, a “Ready” for take-off call should not be made, or
runway entry and line-up clearance accepted, until the _____ has been received. Take-off will not commence until a _______ has been received.

A

cabin clearance

cabin clearance

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18
Q

Prior to crossing a runway (2):

A

● pilots shall check and state:
– receipt of a crossing clearance
– stop-bar lights (where installed) are extinguished
– runway and final approach are clear of traffic
● select strobe lights ON and consider using other exterior lights, such as runway
turn‒off lights, until crossing is complete.

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19
Q

When an aircraft is manoeuvring under its own power to a gate, an approved _________ must be used.

A

guidance system (either a visual docking system or ground marshaller)

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20
Q

If the actual or forecast wind is greater than ______ kts, the parking brake shall remain set, unless in consultation with ground personnel operational conditions, (eg high brake temps) require the parking brake be released.

A

25

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21
Q

When a known condition that could endanger ground crew exists (eg hot brakes), the aircraft _____ will be left on as a warning not to approach the aircraft, except to establish contact via service interphone and determine subsequent action.

A

rotating beacon

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22
Q

What type of departure is preferred?

A

An RNAV based procedure

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23
Q

Can a visual departure be flown?

A

Yes, when conditions permit

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24
Q

Before take-off, pilots shall check (5):

A

● take-off performance data is valid for the runway and take-off position
● commanded thrust is valid
● WXR/TERR set as required
● relationship between the FMC position and runway position is reasonable on
the EHSI/ND
● FMAs are correct.

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25
Q

Distractions during the line-up phase are a leading cause of runway incursions. To
mitigate these distractions, only the items listed shall be carried out whilst entering a
runway (4):

A

● confirm runway and final approach are clear of traffic
● stop-bar lights (where installed) are extinguished
● select strobe lights ON
● select/verify transponder TA/RA.

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26
Q

Select _______ ON after take-off clearance received.

A

landing lights

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27
Q

No turns shall be commenced below _____ ft AAL, except as required by departure or emergency procedures.

A

500

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28
Q

Aircraft shall be operated at a maximum of ______ kt, or minimum clean speed if
greater, when below _____ feet to mitigate the effect of bird-strike damage.

A

250kts

5000 ft

29
Q

The pilot of an EDTO operation shall ensure the _______ for enroute alternates appearing in the despatch release confirm the availability of those alternates prior to the __________.

A

weather and NOTAMs

EDTO entry point

30
Q

On international flights a fuel log is to be maintained. At each reporting point
throughout the cruise, fuel remaining versus flight-planned fuel required is to be
recorded in the CFP. For flights having multiple short waypoint spacing, CFP entries
shall be made at ATC boundary changes and at intervals not exceeding ______ minutes.

A

30

31
Q

When, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, it is calculated that any
change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less
than planned fixed fuel reserve (30 minutes holding fuel) the PIC shall declare _______.

A

“MINIMUM FUEL”

32
Q

If the predicted fuel reserves available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made will be less than the fixed fuel reserve (30 minutes
holding fuel), the PIC shall declare _________ .

A

a fuel emergency “MAYDAY MAYDAY

MAYDAY FUEL”

33
Q

The approach briefing should be completed prior to _____ but not later than _____ ft.

A

TOD

20,000ft

34
Q

A preparation phase is required prior to the briefing being delivered. The preparation
for arrival requires that (6):

A

● FCOM procedures are complete
● FMC has been loaded and checked
● navigation aids are set
● each pilot has read the destination airport’s Route Guide pages
● the touchdown zone limits should be discussed
● any questions about the preparation phase have been resolved.

35
Q

Cabin Clearance

At or above 20,000 ft flight crew will (2):

A

● generate a single chime and ensure the seat belt sign is illuminated
● make the announcement: “Flight attendants, prepare the cabin for landing”.

36
Q

Cabin Clearance

At or above 10,000 ft flight crew will (1):

A

● generate a double chime. This is the indication to the flight attendants that the
aircraft is about to enter a critical phase of flight.

37
Q

If a cabin clearance for landing is not received by the appropriate time, flight crew shall make a PA instructing the flight attendants to _____________.

A

immediately take their seats for landing

38
Q

Visual Approaches

To facilitate a possible change to an instrument approach procedure, the crew shall (2):

A

● tune appropriate approach aids

● set inbound course (as applicable).

39
Q

A landing performance calculation shall be completed for all landings where landing
distance is expected to be significantly increased as a result of (4):

A

● environmental conditions
● aircraft weight
● aircraft configuration
● elevation

40
Q

Regardless, a landing performance calculation shall be completed for all landings at runways with a LDA less than ______ m.

A

2500m

41
Q

Flap extension should not normally be commenced until at or near __________.

A

the minimum

speed for the current flap configuration

42
Q

With autothrottle disengaged, or during non-normal flap operation, it is recommended that the crew delay setting the new command speed until the flaps reach the ________ .

A

selected position

43
Q

On approach with autopilot engaged the PF shall guard the thrust levers and primary
flight controls from at least _____ft AAL.

A

1000

44
Q

when the visibility is less than 800 m shall be flown:
– by the _______, unless command training is being carried out
– with a maximum crosswind component of kts
– _______ when equipment permits
– to an ________ where possible.

A

PIC as PF
15kts
autocoupled
autoland

45
Q

Autolands may only be carried out at _______ airfields. Refer to Route
Guide.

A

company-approved

46
Q

All ILS/GLS approaches planned to terminate in an autoland shall follow _____
procedures.

A

LMO

47
Q

Before any RNAV(GNSS) approach is flown, or VNAV mode is used to fly an NPA
promulgated on a ground-based aid the ________ shall be carried
out.

A

Approach Integrity Check

48
Q

Except for approaches specified in the Route Guide, circling approaches are
to be flown not lower than published MDA or _____ ft AAL, whichever is the higher. Visibility shall be the greater of _____m or published minimum visibility.

A

1000ft

5000m

49
Q

When visual reference has been established on a circling approach, descent below
published MDA or 1000 ft AAL (whichever is the higher) is at the discretion of the
PIC, provided that (3):

A

● visual reference can be maintained throughout the circling approach; and
● the landing threshold or approach lights or other marking identifiable with the
approach end of the runway are visible; and
● the aircraft can make a continuous descent to land using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres.

50
Q

Stable gate configuration requirements (3)

A

● gear selected down by 2,000 ft AAL
● landing flap selected by 1,500 ft AAL
● landing checklist complete by 1,000 ft AAL

51
Q

Stable gate height?

A

1000ft AAL

52
Q

An approach is considered stabilised when all of the following criteria are met:
● the aircraft is established on the correct _______
● the aircraft speed is not more than __ kt above, or __ kt below, target airspeed.
Target airspeed is the commanded airspeed for the existing flap setting.
● the aircraft is in the correct landing _________
● sink rate is no greater than ft per minute; if an approach requires a sink
rate greater than ______ft per minute, a special briefing should be conducted.
● thrust setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration (not ______ ).

A

flight path

10 above / 5kt below target airspeed

landing configuration

1,000ft per minute

not idle

53
Q

An _____ shall be filed for any unstable approach.

A

OSR

54
Q

Pilots should aim to touch down between ___ m and ___m from the landing
threshold.

A

300-450m

55
Q

Touchdown shall occur within the ______.

A

touchdown zone

56
Q

A _______ shall be carried out if a landing will not be achieved within the _______
.

A

go-around

touchdown zone

57
Q

The touchdown zone commences ____m beyond the landing threshold and ends at the lesser of (3):

A

150m
● 900 m from the landing threshold, or
● the end of the first third of the landing distance available, or
● touchdown zone limit markings or lights

58
Q

During the landing roll:
● ________ should be used
● the primary method of disarming the autobrakes is via the
● more than reverse ____ thrust shall be used until landing performance is assured
● Reversers shall not be stowed until engines have stabilized at reverse _____
● speedbrakes shall not be stowed above ________

A 
autobrakes
toe brakes
idle
idle
taxi speed
59
Q

It is company policy that aircraft complete a sucessful autoland at least once every
___ days.

A

30

60
Q

Take-off and landing of company aircraft is NOT permitted if:
● _________, ________ or is falling
at the airport
● braking action is reported as worse than ______ .

A

moderate or heavy freezing rain, heavy freezing drizzle, or heavy sleet

POOR

61
Q

The PIC must, when in doubt about the aerodynamic cleanliness of the aircraft
within _____ minutes of take-off, either have a carried out or request a further __________.

A

five minutes

contamination check or further de-icing/anti-icing treatment

62
Q

Operational responsibility, with regard to de-icing/anti-icing, transfers from the certifying engineer or authorised person to the PIC at the moment _______.

A

the aircraft starts moving by its own power

63
Q

Company aircraft shall not take off or land when the following adverse weather
conditions exist in the vicinity of the airport and cannot be avoided:
● ______ of a severity that, if encountered, would exceed the performance
capability of the aircraft type, and/or
● _______ activity, and/or
● Severe ______ conditions, and/or
● __________ conditions

A

Wind shear
Heavy thunderstorm
frontal
Line-squall

64
Q

If the turbulence is assessed as severe, the crew must contact _________ as soon as practical.

A

Maintenance Operations Centre (MOC)

65
Q

All wake turbulence encounters are to be reported by _____ as soon as practicable.

A

OSR

66
Q

Lightning strikes generally occur in cloud or below the anvil of a thunderstorm from
______ ft above the freezing level to _____ ft below the freezing level (-10°C to 5°C).

A

5000ft

2500ft

67
Q

When a lightning strike occurs, crew shall complete (3):

A

● A Technical Log/eLog
● An OSR. Include the Technical Log/eLog number.
● A Lightning Strike Event Questionnaire

68
Q

A high-visibility vest and ear protection is provided on each aircraft and ______ be
worn by flight crew at all airports when carrying out exterior checks.

A

must

ANZbSOPs (4 decks)

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