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ANZbSOPs > Ch2: Flight Deck Management > Flashcards

Ch2: Flight Deck Management Flashcards

1
Q

Having implemented a decision, the subsequent situation

should be _________ and, if necessary, the course of action _______.

A

evaluated

reviewed

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2
Q

Any crew member observing a deviation from expected aircraft or crew performance
must __________.

A

challenge the other crew members and ensure the situation is resolved

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3
Q

Crew should be familiar with the approximate

__________ for each phase of flight.

A

pitch attitude and thrust setting

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4
Q

The critical phases of flight are defined as:

A

● all operations from off blocks to 10,000 ft
● when within 1,000 ft of any level-off or transition
● approaching/commencing descent
● from 10,000 ft to on blocks.

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5
Q

No flight crew member shall perform any duty during a critical phase of flight
except those duties ________.

A

required for the safe operation of the aircraft

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6
Q

During critical phases of flight paperwork, PAs and non-operational conversation should be _______.

A

kept to a minimum.

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7
Q

WARNING: Any uncertainty regarding control of the aircraft shall be
____________.

A

immediately questioned and satisfactorily resolved.

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8
Q

Should the PIC become incapacitated during flight, the what order indicates the
officer to command the aircraft for the remainder of the flight?

A
  1. The next senior Captain assigned to flight-crew duties for the particular flight,
    provided the route, type and recency qualifications are fulfilled.
  2. The senior Captain travelling as a passenger, provided all company
    requirements including route, type, recency, rest and flight-time limits are
    fulfilled.
  3. The next most senior pilot on the aircraft who is qualified on the particular
    aircraft type and can fulfil the recent experience requirements, irrespective of
    what duties are assigned.
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9
Q

The third pilot (Captain, F/O or S/O) may carry out either the Captain’s or the
F/O’s pre-flight duties, prior to the reading of the

A

Before Start checklist

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10
Q

S/Os shall not occupy a pilot seat of an aircraft conducting an air operation
below an altitude _______.

A

of FL200 or transition, whichever is higher

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11
Q

Unless command training is being carried out, the PIC is to be PF when (3):

A

– on take-off / approach the visibility is less than 800 m
– on CAT II/III approaches
– any time an autoland is flown.

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12
Q

The decision to give the F/O or S/O command practice is always the prerogative
of the ____.

A

PIC

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13
Q

Command Practice: S/Os cannot log _____, but they can log _________

A

command practice

instrument time

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14
Q

F/Os must have completed ____ hours on type or ____ sectors before they can
complete the take-off and landing, unless:

A

200hrs on type or 150 sectors unless:
– the PIC is a standards Captain; or
– the aerodrome is an A, B, or C category; and
– the weather is above alternate minima; and
– the runway is not contaminated; and
– the crosswind component does not exceed 50% of the flight-manual limit;
and
– windshear has not been reported in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

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15
Q

The PF and PM must be in their respective seats prior to the reading of the ______.

A

Before

Start checklist

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16
Q

Both pilot seats shall not be occupied by second officers, except during ______
.

A

a seat change

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17
Q

The flight deck security door must be locked for all flights from “_______” on
departure until “_____” on arrival, except;

A

doors closed/doors open
except as provided for in the DDG and in
accordance with the flight deck access procedures in the CSM.

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18
Q

If a pilot on a two-person crew is to leave the flight deck, a second person must be present in the flight deck and remain there until ______.

A

the pilot returns

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19
Q

The second person, as authorised by the PIC, may be? (3).

A
  • a flight attendant

- deadheading crew member - other Air New Zealand staff member travelling on the flight deck

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20
Q

Only right-hand-seat qualified Captains may perform F/O duties from the righthand
seat below ______ or ______, whichever is higher.

A

10,000 ft or transition

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21
Q

When an augmented crew consists of a Captain and two F/Os and the Captain
is off the flight deck, the F/O designated in charge may occupy ______.
However, the PF must occupy the _____ pilot’s seat.

A
  • either seat

- right

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22
Q

Seat changes shall not occur below _____ or ______, whichever is the higher.

A

10,000 ft

transition

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23
Q

Does the autopilot need to be engaged for a seat change?

A

Yes

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24
Q

Should a speaker be on an audible for seat changes?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Flight crew are required to have their seat belts fastened when occupying the
appropriate flight-deck seat between _______ and ______.

A

engine start and shutdown

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26
Q

Full safety harness must be worn (7):

A

● during take-off and from at least five minutes prior to landing
● when the aircraft is flying at less than 1,000 ft AGL
● during an instrument approach for landing
● during turbulent conditions, or when turbulence is expected
● in an emergency
● when the aircraft is taxiing (except operating crew members occupying an
observer’s seat)
● when either pilot seat is unoccupied.

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27
Q

Supplemental oxygen shall be used continuously whenever the cabin altitude
exceeds _______.

A

10,000 ft

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28
Q

A resting flight-crew member shall use oxygen continuously

when the cabin altitude exceeds ________.

A

14,000 ft

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29
Q

Between 10,000 and 14,000 ft oxygen

shall be used continuously during the ____ minutes preceding return to duty.

A

15

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30
Q

Above _____ ft both pilots should be at the controls. A demand oxygen mask shall
be used should one pilot need to leave an assigned duty station.

A

35,000

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31
Q

Above _____ ft one pilot shall use a demand oxygen mask at all times.

A

41,000

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32
Q

In areas where flight levels are assigned in metres, NZCAA has approved operations at ____ m (41,339 ft) without the requirement for one pilot to be on continuous
oxygen.

A

12,600

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33
Q

Removal of any CB

collar, warning label or tag can only be performed by an ___________ .

A

authorised engineer

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34
Q

Deliberate shutdown of serviceable equipment by opening of CBs is not permitted, except as required by ________.

A

checklist procedures

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35
Q

Flight-crew reset of tripped fuel-pump and fuel-pump-control CBs is _______
(both on the ground and during flight).

A

prohibited

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36
Q

Reset of any other tripped CB is not recommended unless, in the judgement of the
Captain, the situation resulting from the CB trip has a ______________.

A

significant adverse effect

on safety

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37
Q

CB Blue cap?

A 
Identifies a CB to be pulled by flight crew if required during a
checklist procedure (eg CVR CB)
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38
Q

CB Red collar?

A

Identifies a CB that is pulled due to the system being deactivated either permanently or long term.
Note: There is no requirement to record in the Aircraft Log
(either by Notice to Crew or deferred item in the Technical
Log/eLog) if a system has been deactivated and the CB
identified with a red collar.

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39
Q

CB White collar?

A

Identifies a CB that is pulled to deactivate a system under the provisions of the DDG

Note: Spare white CB collars are located in the flight deck.

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40
Q

CB Pink collar?

A

Used to identify and deactivate aircraft electrical systems during maintenance and rectification, it prevents inadvertent closure of the CB. The shape and colour of this collar identifies the CB has been pulled for maintenance only, and should be removed before flight.

Only engineers are permitted to install and remove CB collars.

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41
Q

CB Yellow cap?

A

Identifies circuit-breakers for systems which are routinely deactivated for maintenance purposes.

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42
Q

Warning lights shall be selected to bright during ______ .

A

daylight and in other high ambient light conditions.

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43
Q

Screen brilliance, warning and cockpit lighting shall be ______ on completion
of flight.

A

fully dimmed

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44
Q

The use of landing lights is compulsory below ______ ft when no operational
restrictions apply.

A

10,000

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45
Q

Landing lights may remain off (3):

A

● during circuit training at the instructor’s discretion
● in unusual weather conditions (such as fog) when their use may reduce forward
visibility
● under operations as outlined in the FCOM or DDG for the aircraft type.

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46
Q

Strobe lights shall be selected ON when ________.

A

entering the duty runway, and shall remain ON while airborne and no operational restrictions apply.

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47
Q

Logo lights, if fitted, should be ______ for all night operations unless

A

ON
their use causes an
annoyance to passengers.

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48
Q

Relamping of push switches that incorporate integral annunciator or warning lights is _____ permitted.

A
  • not permitted
  • Crew must ensure that any such lamp is either replaced by an engineer
    prior to despatch, or entered as a defect in the Technical Log/eLog.
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49
Q

Briefings for ______, _____ (international operations only), _______ , and ______
are mandatory and detailed in the appropriate phase-of-flight section.

A

take-off
cruise
crew changeover
descent-approach

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50
Q

The PIC will ensure that passengers seated on the flight deck or crew-rest-area
seats are appropriately briefed with respect to ______ and _______ .

A

emergency equipment and evacuation procedures.

51
Q

Can the PIC delegate the PIC-FA1 briefing?

A

Yes

52
Q

Is the PIC-FA1 briefing mandatory for each flight?

A

Yes

53
Q

PIC must check crew complement on __________ and advise _______ ASAP of any discrepancy before the load sheet is sent.

A

Provisional Load Data message Load Control

54
Q

When a non-normal event with the aircraft or with crew or passengers has occurred,
it may be appropriate to hold an __________ .

A

operational debrief

55
Q

Format guide for an operational brief?

A

A As soon as possible. Preferably prior to the crew dispersing.
P Participate. All crew shall participate.
P Purpose. State the reason for the debrief.
R Review. Review the events that led up to the occurrence. Stick to the facts.
O Operation. What effect did the occurrence have on the safety of the operation?
A Ask questions. Welcome questions.
C Check. Make sure everyone is clear what happened and why actions were
taken. Discuss any follow-up required.
H Help. Make sure all are aware of help available from various agencies should
anyone feel they need it.

56
Q

What is the lastline-

of-defence phrase?

A

“Captain, you must listen”

57
Q

If the lastline-of-defence phrase is used—unless in the Captain’s view it is absolutely imperative to
continue the course of action ________

A

discontinued and the situation reassessed by the crew.

58
Q

Whenever the lastline-of-defence phrase is used, a confidential _______ is to be raised.

A

OSR

59
Q

4 steps prior to last line-of-defence phase?

A
  • Enquiry
  • Advocacy
  • Assertion
  • Risk or Danger?
60
Q

Small items that may fall through gaps in the pedestal—such as pens, paper clips and staples—must never be placed on the _______

A

pedestal.

61
Q

The loss of cutlery, pens or any item on the flight deck must be recorded in the ________

A

Technical Log/eLog.

62
Q

Metal cutlery is not permitted on the _______3.

A

flight deck

63
Q

Where possible, meal trays shall be passed to crew members around the ______ .

A

outer shoulder

64
Q

Fluids (including soups) shall never be passed over the .

A

pedestal

65
Q

Meal trays and/or fluid containers shall never be placed on the ______.

A

pedestal

66
Q

If a food or fluid spillage occurs on the flight deck, a _______ entry and ___
are required.

A

Technical Log/eLog OSR

67
Q

Events of unintentional sleep are regarded as _______ and require an _____ to
be submitted.

A

incapacitation

OSR

68
Q

Use Controlled Rest only during _____ and

must not interfere with _______ .

A
  • low workload periods of cruise flight

- operational duties

69
Q

Do not use Controlled Rest if ________.

A

an operational procedure requiring a cross check
is anticipated, e.g. fuel cross feed, receipt of ATC clearance, change to flight
plan etc.

70
Q

Limit the Controlled Rest period including recovery to no longer than __ minutes, to
minimise the effect of sleep inertia.

A

45

71
Q

After Controlled Rest allow a _____ before resuming duties. Resume duties no later than ___ minutes prior to top of descent.

A
  • short recovery period

- 30

72
Q

Controlled Rest safety measures (3)?

A

● Use the shoulder harness and position the seat to prevent interference with the
controls.
● Take steps to ensure the non-resting pilot remains awake. This may include
systems for monitoring crew activity, appropriate alarm/reminder systems, or
coordination with cabin crew for monitoring.
● Conduct the crew changeover brief at the conclusion of the rest.

73
Q

Crew members are encouraged to submit a _____ any time a lack of alertness is identified as a ______ .

A

Fatigue Report

safety threat

74
Q

Remember, when using any level of automation, pilots always have the capability
to:

A

– ask the other operating crew for help
– revert to a lower level
– disengage
– reactivate.

75
Q

During approach, the PF should keep one hand on the ______, even with the autothrottle engaged.

A

thrust levers

76
Q

If the PF does ____ not the MCP selection, the PM shall ____ any resultant FMA
change.

A

call

call

77
Q

When a mode change is selected or occurs, appropriate annunciation must be verified by both pilots on their individual ____. Comment is only required when the FMA is _______ with the selected or anticipated mode.

A

FMA

inconsistent

78
Q

When the autopilot is in use, any MCP selections that affect flight path shall be made and called by the ____.

A

PF

79
Q

When an autopilot is engaged the PF directs FMC changes, which ____ pilot may action.

A

either

80
Q

When manually flying the ___ directs FMC changes, which the ___ actions.

A

PF

PM

81
Q

Who should make FMC changes below 10000ft even if the autopilot is engaged?

A

PM

82
Q

If FMC modification will affect current track, commanded altitude or altitude
constraints, the pilot actioning the modification shall call “_____” and the pilot
checking the modification shall call “______”.

A

verify

execute

83
Q

When an autopilot is engaged the ___ calls and actions MCP changes. When
manually flying the __ directs MCP changes which the actions, except that the
PF may engage an ______.

A

PF
PF
PM
autopilot.

84
Q

The word “___” shall be used for values

A

set

85
Q

The word “_____” shall be used for MCP and thrust selections.

A

select

86
Q

The ____ is responsible for the disposition of the navaids at all times and shall direct
the ___ to tune the aids as required.

A

PF

PM

87
Q

During periods of low cockpit workload, when the autopilot is engaged, can either pilot tune the appropriate aids?

A

Yes

88
Q

4 types of notification about a NAVIAD (either through NOTAM or ATIS)

A

● unserviceable
● on test
● unmonitored
● operating, but ground checked only—awaiting flight check.

89
Q

Can ILS LOC or G/S be used for approach guidance if it has been notified under any four of the conditions?

A

No

90
Q

An approach shall be discontinued if __________ as to the aircraft ______ exists

A

any uncertainty as to aircraft position exists.

91
Q

VOR/NDB
If either of these aids is notified as being “unserviceable”, “on test”, “pilot
monitored” or “unmonitored”, they ______ to be used for an associated approach procedure.

A

are not

92
Q

VOR/NDB
If either of these aids is notified as being “operational, but ground checked only
—awaiting flight check”, they ____ be considered operational for navigation and
approach purposes.

A

may

93
Q

The safety height (SH) shown on the CFP is based on the Jeppesen Grid MORA
data. This SH value clears all reference points within ____ nm each side of track
by _____ ft where the highest reference points are 5,000 ft AMSL or lower; or by
_______ ft where the reference points are greater than 5,000 ft AMSL.

A

50nm
1,000ft
2,000ft

94
Q

No checklist action is to be commenced below ____ ft AAL.

A

400

95
Q

All approaches are to be flown using a ______ profile from the _____.

A

continuous descent

FAF/FAP

96
Q

Circling approaches are to be flown not lower than the ______ or
AAL, except as specified in the ______ for specific airports.

A

state minima or 1,000 ft AAL

Route Guide

97
Q

An instrument approach shall not be commenced, nor a landing approach
continued, below 1,000 ft AAL with any ___________ .

A

unresolved discrepancies or

operational issues

98
Q

All GPWS cautions and warnings shall be acted upon in accordance with the _____
procedure.

A

QRH

99
Q

One pilot should select the EFIS Terrain (TERR) display ON when operating below
________, or any other time when terrain is considered a threat.

A

transition

100
Q

At least one HSI or ND should be operated in the ______ mode.

A

MAP

101
Q

Not all non-compulsory reporting points lie on the great circle track between the two supporting compulsory reporting points—some non-compulsory reporting points are, in fact, turning points. Thus a non-compulsory reporting point or waypoint ___________ from the FMC or LEGS page data unless the maintenance of the cleared route can be guaranteed.

A

must not be deleted

102
Q

When a waypoint is deleted, a ________ check is to be made of the new CDU displayed track and distance.

A

reasonableness

103
Q

The track displayed should be reasonably close to the Jeppesen or CFP track, and
the distance should be within ____ nm. If not, the FMS waypoint coordinates must be
cross-checked against the Jeppesen chart, TDM for Flex-track operation, or CFP to
establish where the anomaly lies.

A

2nm

104
Q

At ILS/GLS G/S intercept a check on reasonableness shall be made using one of ? (3)

A

● published FAF distance and altitude, where available
● raw data obtained from other ground-based aids. Distance to threshold may
need to be adjusted for non-co-located DME
● verified FMS position data.

105
Q 
For aircraft not equipped with an auto-comparator, conduct a cross-check of primary altimeters at intervals of 
approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_ (normally coincident with a waypoint crossing). A minimum of \_\_\_\_ altimeters  should agree within \_\_\_\_ ft. Failure to meet this tolerance requires that the altimeter system be reported as defective, and ATC notified.
A

one hour
two
200

106
Q

The crew should notify ATC of any contingency (such as equipment failure or
inclement weather) that affects the ability to maintain cleared flight level. ATC shall be notified if any of the following occur (4)

A

● failure of all automatic altitude-control systems
● loss of a primary altimeter
● inability to maintain cleared flight level
● failure of both transponders.

107
Q

The following errors are required to be reported by OSR:
● AAD equal to or greater than ___ ft
● ASE equal to or greater than ___ft
● TVE equal to or greater than ___ ft.

A

300ft
245ft
300ft

108
Q

The flight crew are responsible for advising ________ of any failure or malfunction of GNSS, ADS-C or CPDLC equipment, using backup communications if necessary, as soon as it becomes apparent.

A

Air Traffic Control

109
Q

All transmitting functions of any personal electronic device shall be turned off prior to commencing the _____________ phase and shall remain off until the completion of the ___________. The only exception to this policy is ______ may be used on the flight deck for ___________ at the Captain’s discretion.

A

flightdeck pre-flight preparation
Shutdown Checklist
cellphones
calls of an operational nature

110
Q

Where PEDs are not secured in the cockpit by using an installed mounting device, the PED must be stowed for _____ and _____ , either in the appropriate aircraft stowage, or in pilots’ personal flight bags.

A

takeoff

landing

111
Q

Sequence of use:

  1. L/No 1 VHF -
  2. R/No 2 VHF -
  3. C/No 3 VHF -
A

L/1 - All ATC and air-to-air frequencies
R/2 - All company communications, ATIS reception and monitoring of 121.5
C/3 - ACARS

112
Q

A pre-flight HF check shall be carried out when (2)

A

● required under CPDLC procedures; or
● the HF sets have been turned off. In this case, check the radios tune and
transmissions can be heard.

113
Q

For international operations pre-departure clearances received by radio shall be recorded on the ________ .

A

communications log

114
Q

After receive the pre-departure clearance crews shall (4)

A

● review the clearance
● verify the FMC has been correctly loaded
● check the MCP altitude is correctly set
● check the transponder code is correctly set.

115
Q

Intl Ops: On augmented crew operations,

the log must be reviewed at crew _____ .

A

changeover

116
Q

Intl Ops: On FANS equipped aircraft the comms log check at crew changeover must include reviewing the ______ pages.

A

ATC log/review

117
Q

All routine datalink communications shall be reviewed, and then transferred to the ________. Oceanic and re-route clearances shall be _________
for the duration of the flight.

A

communications log

printed and retained

118
Q

To act as a reminder during an _____ change to system configuration any
EICAS message generated should be _________, e.g. autothrottle disconnected,
packs-off take-off, or non-standard fuel-pump configuration due to fuel-balancing
procedure.

A

intentional

left displayed

119
Q

Can we use QFE?

A

No

120
Q

When operating in areas with transition below 10,000 ft (such as Europe and
Tahiti) QNH may be set when cleared ________ , provided that flight-level reports are not required and __________ is not anticipated.

A

to descend to an altitude

level-off prior to transition level

121
Q

Do two pilots need to check metric altitude conversions?

A

Yes

122
Q

On departure, low-altitude VNAV constraints may be ______ from the FMC and set on the ______ . Any VNAV constraints removed must be discussed during the ________.

A

removed
MCP
departure briefing

123
Q

When using V/S or FLCH For altitude settings, for arrivals via DME or TAA steps , or STARS that incorporate a progressive
descent, set ______ or _______, whichever is ________.

A

step altitude
cleared altitude
higher

ANZbSOPs (4 decks)

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