Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CSCS (Exercise Science section) > ch0.3 - study card vocabulary > Flashcards

ch0.3 - study card vocabulary Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is catastrophe theory?

A

a relationship between the level of arousal and manifestation of cognitive anxieties once crossing the arousal threshold, which changes focus to what cannot be executed in competition and thus a decline in performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how can specificity of loading help bone health?

A

external stimuli increasing bone density in specific joints likely to experience bone loss or mineral thinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the implications of greater tendon stiffness?

A

greater stiffness = greater force required for transmission to a muscle to produce a recoil response, and useful for transmitting forces through tendons and into muscles at a high rate under strain – either from high velocity or from an opponent; essential in improving performance in some sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the end goal of exergonic reactions?

A

to perform some kind of work via released energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when does catabolism occur?

A

heavy training volumes, reduced caloric intake, and times of high life stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the adaptations to aerobic exercise?

A

increased cardiac output, reduced heart rate at rest, and (during submaximal exercise intensities) increased stroke volume per heartbeat, and a significant increase in density in the microvasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a side effect of creatine supplementation?

A

acute effects that include gastrointestinal issues such as gas or mild bloating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what function does oyxgen deficit provide?

A

insight into contributions of the anaerobic energy system during intense bouts of exercise, plus weaknesses in individual athletes that can be improved via training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the contractile phase of the cardiac cycle?

A

systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

for what purposes does the systole phase eject blood?

A

either delivering oxygen-rich blood to working tissues or sending blood into the lungs to be oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what kind of muscle fibers are fast oxidative and glycolytic?

A

type IIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does the GTO inhibit tension overload?

A

emitting electrical signals from its sensory neuron to an inhibitory neuron in the spinal cord, which inhibits the motor neuron in the same muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the primary neurotransmitter involved in muscular contraction?

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what causes excitation of the sarcolemma?

A

an action potential releases and arrives at a nerve terminal, then acetylcholine is released from the nerve terminal and diffuses across the neuromuscular junction (a muscle contraction will occur when enough acetylcholine is released and an action potential is released across the sarcolemma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is troponin responsible for?

A

initiating the movement of troponin from the myosin binding site after Ca+ has initiated a conformational change (then the myosin cross bridge can be carried out, allowing contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what kind of chemical cascade takes place during muscular contraction?

A

a chemical cascade causes a conformational change in tropomyosin that allows for the myosin filament to bind with the actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does the tropomyosin position relative to troponin and the actin filament?

A

the head of tropomyosin wraps helically around troponin on the actin filament, thereby preventing formation of the myosin cross bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

reciprocal inhibition allows an athlete to achieve what?

A

allows for maximal contraction to occur in an agonist muscle group while inhibiting and actually forcing relaxation to occur in the antagonist muscle group, which then allows an athlete to achieve relaxation and enhance mental focus by alternating through relax-contract cycles throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what concentration of hemoglobin is oxygen carried through circulation with?

A

3mL per liter of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

during exercise, how is carbon dioxide transported?

A

out of the cell via diffusion and into the plasma for transport to the lungs for clearance – buffering CO2 relies on bicarbonate and water, which requires catalyzation by carbonic anhydrase in order to buffer the hydrogen ions accumulating in the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is the buffering of CO2 supported?

A

through the natural acid-base buffering capacity of hemoglobin in order to maintain blood pH balance. once exercise intensity reaches a level where aerobic metabolism is insufficient to maintain pH balance, lactic acid accumulates and is referred to as OBLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is diffusion?

A

movement of gases from areas high concentration to areas of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the cause of diffusion?

A

due to the partial pressure exerted by each molecule of gas; during exercise, the partial pressure of the gases are altered depending on their location in the circulatory system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the gas pressures at the alveolus level and venous level respectively?

A

alveolus: PO2 = 100 mm Hg and PCO2 = 40 mm Hg; venous: PO2 = 40 mm Hg and PCO2 = 46 mm Hg (after unloading into muscle tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what determines whether the gases (CO2/O2 or PCO2/O2) move into or out circulation during exercise?

A

the changes in pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the carbohydrate recommendations for aerobic and anaerobic athletes respectively?

A

aerobic: 8g to 10g / kg; anaerobic: 5g to 6g / kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is a benefit of a process goal?

A

causes an athlete to engage in the behaviors necessary day to day without becoming too focused on the result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what kinds of muscle striations are there and why?

A

smooth muscle, obliquely striated muscle and striated muscle (striated contains actin and myosin; others don’t)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does optimal functioning theory state?

A

individuals will have different levels of anxiety and arousal that let them perform at their optimal abilities; there is a standardized mood state evaluation, such as state anxiety inventory, to quantify arousal state and correlate info to the physical performance of the athlete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does association refer to?

A

normally refers to connections between different states, but in sport psychology it refers to being aware of the body’s physical status during competition or training; maintaining focus on the task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does dissociation refer to?

A

an athlete disconnecting from the physical tasks in order to block out fatigue, discomfort and pain; leads to decreased physical performance however, in one sense due to increased anxiety about fatigue or pain or task performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is counterconditioning?

A

the use of somatic and cognitive responses in order to reduce an athlete’s performance-related anxiety; this is achieved through systematic desensitization where an athlete visualizes a stressful competitive situation and in order to counter the stress response engages in progressive muscle relaxation; over time application of this to situations causing mild anxiety can be effective in combating anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does metabolic acidosis refer to?

A

a condition that occus when the body produces too much acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what induces metabolic acidosis?

A

rapid decrease in blood pH due to increased H+ ions; this response can be used to determine training capacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is lactate a byproduct of?

A

anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in what organs is lactate used as a fuel source?

A

heart and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when does anaerobic glycolysis occur?

A

in a state of reduced oxygen availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what drives fast glycolysis?

A

the conversion of pyruvate into lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does reaching lactate threshold imply for muscular contraction?

A

slowing of muscular contractions (possibly until cessation of movement) until lactate can be cleared and homeostasis restored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is required for aerobic glycolysis?

A

pyruvate to enter mitochondria, then when oxygen is present the pyruvate is oxidized and enters into the krebs cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what governs the differentiation between the two types of glycolysis?

A

what takes place in the mitochondrion – if oxygen is present, aerobic glycolysis will take place through oxidative phosphorylation, but if oxygen isn’t available the pyruvate will undergo fermentation to produce sufficient ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is an action potential?

A

an electrical impulse that is triggered by the rapid depolarization of the cell membrane of a neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the four segments of sarcomere?

A

A-band, H-zone, I-band, and Z-line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does the A-band contain?

A

actin and myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where is the H-zone and what does it contain?

A

center of sarcomere, contains only myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the I-band made of and what does it contain?

A

made of two continguous sarcomeres, contains only actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where is the Z-line located?

A

middle of the I-band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the essential features of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

pumping Ca+ ions into the muscle when an action potential is released into sarcomere (for muscle contraction), and storing calcium ions there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is negative punishment?

A

the removal of something highly valued to deter undesired behavior; the antithesis of positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

function of arterioles?

A

controlling factor of blood flow in and out of capillary beds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are synonyms for reducing blow flow and allowing greater blood flow?

A

vasoconstriction and vasodilation respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when is the lactate threshold thought to occur?

A

at 4mL per dL of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is diastole?

A

period of the cardiac cycle when the heart fills with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which kind of veins carry deoxygenated blood, and which carry oxygenated blood?

A

systemic: deoxygenated, pulmonary: oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the smallest division of the blood vessel?

A

capillary; role is to exchange gases, fluids, nutrients, hormones, electrolytes and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does the atrioventricular node’s delay of the sinoatrial node’s signal do?

A

allows for the complete ejection of blood from the atria into the ventricles, prior to the contraction of ventricles that sends blood from the heart to the lungs or body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what does the sinoatrial do for heart rhythm?

A

establishes normal heart rhythm, referred to as sinus rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

why is there an increase in signal velocity from the atrioventricular bundle toward the ventricles?

A

out of necessity as the left and right branches communicate directly with the purkinje fibers + the signals are directly responsible for the contraction of the left+right ventricles, which eject blood systemically or into lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

where is the signal from the atrioventricular node sent and why is this necessary?

A

to the left and right bundle branches, necessary because this is a point of conduction between the atria and the ventricles; crucial in maintaining cardiac rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does the parasympathetic regulate?

A

mental acuity, focus, heart rate, and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are arteries?

A

muscular blood vessels that function to take blood away from the heart (systemic) or to the lungs (pulmonary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

why do arteries operate under varying rates of pressure?

A

due to the cardiac cycle of systole (high pressure) and diastole (low pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

why are arteries significant for determining blood pressure and pulse rate?

A

proximity to contractions of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the electron transport chain?

A

the process of electrons being moved from electron donors to electron acceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how does the electron transport chain generate energy during oxidative phosphorylation?

A

the formation of a pH gradient along with the electron potential that can move across the inner mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how is energy resynthesized in the electron transport chain during oxidative phosphorylation?

A

through the activity of ATP synthase, which converts electrical activity into mechanical energy and results in the phosphorylation of adenosine diphosphate into ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

pyruvate is a product of what?

A

anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

in anaerobic glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is reduced to what?

A

two pyruvate molecules, which can produce energy through two separate mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

in anaerobic glycolysis, what is one mechanism pyruvate can produce energy?

A

via conversion into acetyl-coenzyme A, which is the primary means of entering Krebs cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

in anaerobic glycolysis, what is the other mechanism pyruvate can produce energy?

A

via conversion to oxaloacetate in order to produce intermediaries involved in the Krebs cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

the oxidative system can utilize all three macros as substrate but is predominantly oriented to what?

A

using fats while at rest (about 70%) and carbs during low-moderate exercise intensities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

when will the oxidative system convert proteins to glucose via gluconeogenesis?

A

rarely; generally during periods of starvation and exercise bouts greater than 90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how many molecules of ATP will oxidative phosphorylation generate?

A

40, after two rotations through Krebs, using one molecule of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

the sarcomere is defined by what?

A

the area occurring between two z-lines; they can be thought of as the location where all muscular contractions take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what does substrate-level phosphorylation refer to?

A

reactions that are enzymatically driven and lead to the generation of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is another name for substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

anaerobic glycolysis or fast phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how does substrate-level phosphorylation operate?

A

via the transfer and direct donation of a phosphoryl (PO3) group to adenosine diphosphate to form ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

where does substrate-level phosphorylation occur?

A

in the cytoplasm of the cell as part of glycolysis, and can also be active in mitochondria as part of the krebs cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

can substrate-level phosphorylation only be active during anaerobic glycolysis?

A

no, can be active during anaerobic and aerobic activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how is the onset of blood lactate defined?

A

the point in which exercise intensity causes blood lactate to accumulate at a rate faster than can be buffered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

how is onset of blood lactate caused?

A

first, release of H+ ions into blood due to ATP hydrolysis. second, reduction of available bicarbonate in the blood due to increased physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what does the P-wave represent?

A

atrial depolarization, which involves the electrical signal from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node and spreading from the right to the left atrium (this can cause atrial contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how is atrial contraction caused during atrial depolarization?

A

electrical signal moves from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node and spreading from the right to the left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the pulmonary division of the arteries responsible for?

A

delivering deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and returning oxygenated blood back to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the systemic division of the arteries responsible for?

A

carrying oxygenated blood away from the heart and returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in terms of deoxygenated blood, what is the role of pulmonary and systemic arteries?

A

pulmonary: deliver dexoygenated from heart to lungs, systemic: return deoxygenated blood back to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

lactate deydrogenase is the catalyst for what?

A

conversion of pyruvate to lactate and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

other than the conversion of pyruvate, what is the role of lactate dehydrogenase?

A

conversion of NADH to NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the significance of lactate dehydrogenase?

A

without it, the system would be strictly oxygen dependent, which would limit the intensity of possible physical activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what does the T-wave represent?

A

the repolarization of the left and right ventricles of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

abnormalities in cardiac rhythm would be indicated by what kind of test?

A

EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

why is the T-wave in an EKG of primary interest?

A

because electrical impulses (positive and negative) that occur here can be used as leading indicators for early detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

a hyper acute T-wave is possibly the first manifestation of what kind of issue?

A

acute myocardial infarction or heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what does ischemia mean?

A

ischemia = “stopping blood” or not having enough blood, coronary ischemia = not having enough blood in coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is an indicator for coronary ischemia?

A

inverted T-wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

why is the pleura an essential anatomical structure in lung anatomy?

A

it’s heavily involved in reducing surface tension via a small amount of pleural fluid, which makes breathing easier and helps inflate alveoli to potentiate gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

how does the pleura help potentiate gas exchange?

A

by improving the oppositional proximity of the lungs to the chest wall, which provides flexibility in all the various breathing patterns that can ocur – and assists with gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is ATP composed of?

A

an adenine group, a ribose group, and three molecules of inorganic phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

how is glycolysis driven?

A

by enzymes, similar to PCr; glycolysis can supply greater energy over time because more available energy-generating resources from stored glycogen or free floating glucose are in the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what are mitochondria responsible for?

A

aerobic metabolism; they are where pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase, which can go to Krebs after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how many strands may a muscle fiber (fasciculi covered by perimyseum) consist of?

A

150 individiual strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

where does a motor neuron transmit signals from and what is it the site of?

A

from the spinal cord to the muscles; it’s the site of an action potential release into the neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is adenosine triphosphatase responsible for?

A

catalyzing the decomposition of ATP to ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what does the dephosphorylation of ATP to ADP do?

A

releases energy into a system in order to carry out additional chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

do the enzymes that dephosphorylate ATP have multiple reactions?

A

no, each enzyme has a specific effect and generally only does a single reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what kinds of insights would biological age provide to a trainer?

A

sexual development, structural musculoskeletal age, and neurological maturity through movement assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how does the krebs cycle generate energy?

A

through the oxidation of acetyl CoA derived from the three macros

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what insights does oxygen uptake provide?

A

overall work capacity, rate of fatigue, anaerobic/aerobic thresholds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is the cori cycle?

A

metabolic pathway in which lactate produced from anaerobic glycolysis is moved to the liver, converted to glucose, and returned to working muscles to be used as energy and again converted to lactate via gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

why is the cori cycle utilized?

A

to prevent lactic acidosis, which is a form of metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

why is the sarcoplasm analogous to the cytoplasm of other organisms?

A

this is where elements of muscular contraction are located such as glycogen, fat, various enzymes, mitochondria, and the sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

why are the bonds of ATP molecules broken down via hydrolysis?

A

to utilize the energy from these bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what does hydrolysis require to break down the bonds of ATP molecules?

A

one molecule of water and several enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

how does ATP changed after hydrolysis?

A

reduces ATP from the original eergy state to adenosine diphosphate and ends with adenosine monophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is the bronci’s relation to conduction?

A

primary bronchi are part of the conducting zone in the respiratory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

how are the primary bronchi formed?

A

from the trachea, and divided into left and right branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

why does no gas exchange takes place in the primary bronchi?

A

they serve as the primary conductor for air passage into the bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what are the side effects of caffeine?

A

restlessness, trouble sleeping/insomnia, hyperactivity, heart palpitations or arrythmias, and frequent urinations, reductions in performance over time due to overstimulation of nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

how do beta-adregenergic agonists increase energy expenditure?

A

by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, rate of respitation, increased activity of cyclic-AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

why may beta-adrenerergic agonists be problematic for athletes?

A

HR, blood pressure, heart conditions due to abnormal cardiac rhythm

121
Q

does anabolism build up neutral materials?

A

no, anabolism builds up materials that have been reduced from catabolic processes to meet the organism’s homeostatic needs

122
Q

how does anabolism generate new muscle tissue?

A

form new amino acids from previously catabolized amino acids

123
Q

why are acute adapations to altitude training necessary?

A

to stabilize respiration and heart rate, while chrnic adaptations primarily impact cellular function

124
Q

what are the acute adaptations to altitude?

A

increase in pulmonary ventilation and cardiac output in resting and exercising states

125
Q

what are the chronic adaptations to altitude training?

A

oriented toward delivering sufficient oxygen to the working tissues which requires increased myoglobin concentrations (5-15%), greater diffusion capacity though pulmonary membranes, increased capillary density in trained muscle, and increased buffering capacity of lactate through hyperventilation and greater availability of bicarbonate

126
Q

what are the drawbacks to altitude training?

A

length of time the chronic adaptations persist – they generally normalize after a month?

127
Q

what are endergonic reactions initiated by?

A

previously released energy being absorbed by reactants in order to initiate a status change

128
Q

are anabolic processes endergonic or exergonic?

A

they require the release of energy to begin the process of amino acid assimilation and tissue rebuilding, so endergonic

129
Q

is muscular contraction endergonic or exergonic?

A

the release of energy substrate is required to initiate the biochemical cascade that causes muscular contraction, so endergonic

130
Q

for how long does EPOC cause a significant change in resting metabolic rate?

A

6-12 hours after training

131
Q

why does the endocrine system secrete hormones?

A

to assist neuro restoration, blood glucose regulation, tissue growth, and muscular recovery

132
Q

reducing practice time due to improved performance is an example of what kind of reinforcement?

A

negative reinforcement

133
Q

increasing a desired activity is an example if what kind of reinforcement?

A

positive reinforcement

134
Q

what is a limitation of lock-and-key theory?

A

cannot take into account allosteric binding and cross reactivity

135
Q

what functions are steroid hormones involved with?

A

water balance, inflammatory responses, metabolic control, and immunity

136
Q

how are peptides synthesized?

A

in the nucleus of the cell from various proteins, which are utilized as a signal or template precursors for other hormones or cascades

137
Q

allosteric binding sites?

A

non-primary binding sites that allow for other non-hormonal substances to bind on a receptor and either increase or decrease activity at the site

138
Q

how do allosteric binding sites encourage or discourage binding?

A

using homeostatic feedback (feedback pertaining to homeostasis)

139
Q

functions of growth hormone?

A

maintain blood glucose, uptake of amino acids, release of fatty acids from adipose, stimulate muscle and bone growth

140
Q

most significant side effect of growth hormone use?

A

acromegaly

141
Q

how is bioenergetics defined?

A

conversion of macronutrients from food ingestion into useable energy substrates that allow the organism and its systems to perform work

142
Q

potential downside of a coach attending to mechanical advantage?

A

overlook the development of weaknesses by overemphasizing mechanical advantage

143
Q

cardiomyocytes are?

A

specialized muscle cells that allow for cardiac signals to be conducted quickly and consistently, which allows the heart to maintain constant rhythm

144
Q

what is minute ventilation responsible for?

A

increasing or decreasing the rate of ventilation based on the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood when exercising

145
Q

how does minute ventilation clear CO2 from blood?

A

respiration must increase and once levels have been normalized or exercise has ceased the rate of ventilation will decrease

146
Q

what does the QRS complex represent?

A

rapid depolarization of the left and right ventricle

147
Q

why is the signal segment in the QRS complex much larger in amplitude than the P-wave?

A

because of the larger mass of the ventricles of the hearts in comparison to the atria

148
Q

causes of overtraining?

A

training too often, excessive volume and intensity, poor nutrition / reduced calorie intake, inadequate rest provisions

149
Q

physiological symptoms of overtraining?

A

frequent illness, minor injuries that don’t resolve, extreme fatigue

150
Q

calcium ATPase is what?

A

enzymatic regulator of calcium movement into and out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which causes muscular relaxation

151
Q

in muscular contraction, the removal of CA+2 from the cell reduces the number of fibers that can cross bridge for contraction – why?

A

to induce muscular relaxation

152
Q

what kind of things should youth be taught?

A

movement variety, work capacity development, guarding against overtraining or overuse

153
Q

why are women shorter than men?

A

reduced growth cycles during puberty

154
Q

during the adolescent growth phase, what are the primary sites of growth?

A

along the diaphysis of a long bone and in the growth cartilage

155
Q

during the adolescent growth phase, along the long bone, where are the three surfaces?

A

at the joint surfaces, the apophyseal insertions of muscle tendons, and along the epiphyseal plates

156
Q

what causes bone growth to cease in the adolescent growth phase?

A

ossification of the epiphyseal plates

157
Q

what kind of factors will taking into account training age benefit?

A

guarding against overuse or injury, assessing acclimation to program

158
Q

what are the primary program considerations to minimize structural differences of female athletes?

A

injury prevention for knee, improving upper body strength

159
Q

why do female athletes have a greater risk of knee injury?

A

angle of the femur formed from the hip to the knee – this creates natural sheer forces at the knee and can lead to a variety of injuries

160
Q

sarcopenia?

A

natural occurrence in a reduction in cross-sectional muscle fiber mass as a result of aging; most significantly impacts older adult women

161
Q

how does sarcopenia occur?

A

result of reduced or complete inactivity, which results in a loss of neural drive to the type II fast twitch motor units

162
Q

what are the primary factors affecting sarcopenia?

A

activity levels over time, reduced neural capacity, poor nutrition, and hormonal alterations

163
Q

how is mean arterial pressure assessed?

A

MAP = [(SDP-DBP)/3] + DBP

164
Q

what use does mean arterial pressure serve?

A

an indicator for the rate of perfusion throughout the cardiac cycle, either at rest or during activity

165
Q

what is an athlete’s benefit of knowing mean arterial pressure?

A

to know if there are issues with moving blood into working tissues; can alert to possible disease if perfusion issue is identified

166
Q

what is alveolar pressure?

A

pressure when the glottis is open and there is no air movement in or out of the lungs

167
Q

how does alveolar pressure change?

A

pressure must drop below atmospheric pressure during inspiration and above atmospheric pressure during expiration

168
Q

what is the electron transport chain?

A

a component of the oxidative system that uses redox reactions that transfer electrons from donors to acceptors via an electrochemical gradient

169
Q

what chemicals does the electron transport chain produce ATP with?

A

NADH and FADH2

170
Q

how many molecules of ATP does NADH produce?

A

3

171
Q

how many molecules of ATP does FADH2 produce?

A

2

172
Q

why is the ETC important?

A

maintaining the necessary ATP stores during aerobic exercise

173
Q

primary difference between overreaching and overtraining?

A

duration of the time period that the training state persists; functional overreaching can force athlete beyond ability to adapt and recover, producing overstressing on all physiological systems, which causes supercompensation

174
Q

what is total peripheral resistance?

A

the measure of the vascular resistance in the systemic circulation

175
Q

what is total peripheral resistance caused by?

A

the opening and closing of vessels throughout the systemic circulation (vasoconstriction and vasodilation)

176
Q

how is total peripheral resistance determined?

A

via the equation of [total peripheral resistance] = (mean arterial pressure - mean vascular pressure) / Q where Q = (cardiac output)

177
Q

in physical terms, how is work defined?

A

the product of the application of force on an object and the distance it’s displaced in the direction the force is applied

178
Q

quantifying work helps a coach gauge what training variables?

A

levels of volume, loading intensity, and specific movement patterns

179
Q

how does quantifying work help across athletic populations?

A

a larger athlete may perform considerably more work than a smaller athlete due to the size differential

180
Q

how is valsalva perrformed?

A

forced exhalation against a closed glottis, which prevents air from leaving lungs, causes abdominals and ribcage to contract, and causes air pressure to increase in the upper torso

181
Q

what is a concentration gradient

A

the process of particles, which are sometimes called solutes, moving through a solution or gas from an area with a higher number of particles to an area with a lower number of particles. (the areas are typically separated by a membrane.)

182
Q

how does the diffusion of gases (through respiratory exchange) occur?

A

diffusion of CO2 and O2 through the alveoli in the lungs occurs according to a concentration gradient.

183
Q

how is the respiratory concentration gradient formed?

A

formed by molecules from a higher concentration region into a region with a lower concentration of those molecules, which is dictatedby partial pressure of the gases as well as concentrations in capillaries and alveoli. this process does not occur actively; it’s passively driven by the motion of molecules as they transition from regions of higher/lower concentration.

184
Q

what is a moment arm

A

distance from a muscle’s line of action to the joint’s center of rotation, oriented in the direction of the force being produced

185
Q

the humerus and biceps acting on the resistive force of a dumbbell during a bicep curl is an example of what?

A

moment arm

186
Q

why is pleural pressure significant?

A

it maintains the tension between the chest wall and the pleura of the lungs, allowing fro inspiration and expiration

187
Q

why is pleural pressure slightly negative?

A

to compensate for the expansion capacities of the lungs while also allowing the lungs to maintain pressures below atmospheric level

188
Q

why should pleural pressure never equal or exceed atmospheric pressure?

A

the lungs will collapse, which is referred to as pneumothorax (defined as “an abnormal collection of air in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall”)

189
Q

what are alveoli?

A

the terminal ends of the respiratory tree

190
Q

where is the primary site for gas exchange in the respiratory system?

A

alveolar ducts and sacs; the alveolar membrane serves as the gas exchange surface

191
Q

where are alveoli located?

A

alveolar sacs and alveolar ducts

192
Q

systemic circulation does what to deoxygenated blood?

A

returns it from the rest of the body via alveolar blood vessels; through passive diffusion the carbon dioxide that has been carried from the body’s tissue is unloaded; concurrently the oxygen is being diffused into the red blood cells and will be carried into working tissues via pulmonary circulation

193
Q

what is a fulcrum?

A

simple point of rotation for a lever

194
Q

how is length of a moment arm dictated?

A

length of a fulcrum, which dictates total force required to overcome resistive force

195
Q

how is mechanical advantage determined?

A

fulcrum position

196
Q

what are the resistive forces that can act on the body?

A

gravity, and static and kinetic frictions during activities such as running/swimming/jumping

197
Q

leg extensions and bicep curls occur in what plane of movement?

A

saggital

198
Q

what is torque?

A

capacity of a force to generate rotation on a fulcrum

199
Q

what is increasing the rate of torque dependent on?

A

rate of force production, which requires a range of training interventions incl. speed/acceleration training and higher loading intensities

200
Q

what are the synergists of a barbell curl?

A

brachialis and brachioradalis, as well as stabilizing muscles along the scapula that work to maintain structural and force integrity of the humerus and scapula

201
Q

what processes does metabolism include?

A

muscle growth, hormona balance, fat loss, and literally any process undertaken to maintain homeostasis. it’s the result of all activities, or LACK thereof, taken part of by an athlete.

202
Q

how should female athletes be programmed for?

A

not much different than male ones bc after correcting for body mass differences total power output and strength is similar

203
Q

what benefits do risk assessments provide coaches?

A

contraindications, training limits, and whether or not medical clearance is necessary

204
Q

what kind of fibers will contract first in a contraction?

A

smaller, lower force, fatigue-resistant units (size principle)

205
Q

the hamstring action during a squatting movement provides what kind of muscle action?

A

antagonist via stabilization

206
Q

first class lever?

A

muscle force and resistive force on opposite sides of fulcrum

207
Q

second class lever?

A

requires muscular and resistive forces to occur on the same side of the fulcrum

208
Q

third class lever?

A

muscular and resistive forces on same side of fulcrum, through a distance shorter than distance trhough which resistive force is acting

209
Q

structural changes that change within muscle in response to resistance training?

A

increased myofibrillar volume, increased density of cytoplasm, increased sarcoplasmic and t-tubule density, increased enzyme activity; also due to muscular growth – reduced mitochondria density, reduced capillary density, increased lactate buffering capacity

210
Q

what are the primary connective tissue adaptations from demand on tissues in response to increased strength/growth?

A

tendon junctions that occur between two bony surfaces, body of the tendon and ligament, fascia covering a hypertrophied muscle thickening and stiffening

211
Q

what is oxygen uptake?

A

amount of oxygen transported and unloaded into working tissues

212
Q

what factors influence oxygen uptake?

A

training intensity, selected exercise method, duration of session

213
Q

why does exercise selection influence oxygen uptake measurement?

A

chosen method may involve smaller muscle groups (arm ergometer) or larger groups (treadmill) that require varying amount of oxygen to supply tissues worked

214
Q

METS = ?

A

metabolic equivalent of task, used to assess energy expenditure of various tasks

215
Q

what is a limitation of METS?

A

assumptions are made wrt a specific individual; cannot account for differences which include fat mass, fat free mass, exercise intensity, and overall conditioning of the person

216
Q

movements that occur in the frontal plane?

A

pull-ups, dips, and squats

217
Q

how is VO2max evaluated?

A

graded exercise test where the amount of work performed is gradually increased over time until a maximum oxygen value is reached

218
Q

why is maximal oxygen uptake the best measure of cardiovasc. fitness?

A

it indicates the upper limit capacities for the endurance athlete across varying heart rates and workloads

219
Q

what is the use of VO2max for anaerobic athletes?

A

indicative of the anaerobic lactate threshold and aerobic potential

220
Q

osteopenia presents with symptoms of thinning bones. what considerations must be made for trainees with this ailment?

A

osteopenia is not a limiting factor when considering movements of the client, b/c weight-bearing exercises will help reduce the rate of bone loss and has been seen to reverse the process

221
Q

where does mechanical loading model new bone cells?

A

along the surfaces between bone cells, which occur primarily on the surface of bone to increase density

222
Q

an athlete with uncorrected bilateral deficit is likely to face what issue?

A

imbalanced force relationships, poor length-tension relationships, possible injury

223
Q

what is the force-velocity curve?

A

the representative curve of force and velocy along an x- and y- axis

224
Q

what does the force-velocity curve depict?

A

an athlete’s ability to contract with a range of qualities including high total force and low velocity – maximal strength – and high velocity and low total force – speed

225
Q

how can the force-velocity curve benefit the strength athlete?

A

to develop sport-specific training characteristics and correct individual weaknesses

226
Q

what does the fick equation assess?

A

maximal oygen uptake

227
Q

what are the essential components of the fick equation?

A

cardiac output (Q), arterial oxygen content (a), and venous oxygen content (VO2). to properly assess maximal oxygen content, you must be able to calculate the difference in arterial and venous oxygen content

228
Q

why in the fick equation is it essential to know the difference in arterial and venous oxygen content?

A

because the difference is the volume unloaded into working tissues. you must also know how hard the heart is working to pump the oxygen into the working tissues, which is why cardiac output is essential

229
Q

what are the three types of joints in the body?

A

uniaxial, biaxial, multiaxial

230
Q

the elbow is an example of what kind of joint?

A

hinge joint / uniaxial

231
Q

the ankle and wrist are examples of what kind of joint?

A

biaxial joints; joints that allow movement about two perpendicular planes

232
Q

the hip is an example of what kind of joint?

A

multiaxial or ball and socket

233
Q

why is blood flow constricted to certain tissues during exercise?

A

to maximize blood volume for the active tissue sites that need oxygen, and to reduce the functions of certain systems during exercise e.g. digestion

234
Q

what is ventilatory equivalent?

A

the ratio of minute ventilation and oxygen uptake during exercise

235
Q

how is ventilatory equivalent expressed?

A

VE/VO2 for oxygen consumption and VE/VCO2 when evaluating carbon dioxide output

236
Q

when does ventilation rate increase disproportionate to rate of oxygen uptake in tissues?

A

the onset of lactate accumulating more rapidly than can be effectively buffered

237
Q

what variables does EKG/ECG test?

A

rate and frequency of heartbeats + size and position of heart’s chambers

238
Q

what would EKG/ECG test for athletes?

A

detection of left ventricular hypertrophy, congential heart defects, other cardiac rhythm distortions, sudden death

239
Q

why are lactate threshold and ventilatory equivalent connected?

A

because of the necessity of clearing excess lactate and CO2 from the body

240
Q

the frank-sterling mechanism refers to?

A

the forceful contraction of the heart in response to increase stroke volume which over time stretches the left ventricle

241
Q

why is the frank-sterling mechanism significant?

A

primarily responsible for the increased ejection fraction (measurement of the percentage of blood leaving your heart each time it contracts), which means greater blood volume ejected due to frank-sterling

242
Q

law of mass action / mass action effect?

A

specific to the concentrations of reactants and products in solution; the concentration of a reactant or product is entirely depenedent on establishing equilibrium within the system

243
Q

why is the law of mass action significant for exercise?

A

for enzyme driven reactions, establishing equilibrium is specific to maintaining ATP threshold to perform the work; therefore, the enzymatic activities must continue throughout the exercise section to maintain threshold ATP levels; once the stimulus is reduced or ceased, these processes discontinue

244
Q

what is venous return?

A

the volume of blood returning to the heart from the periphery

245
Q

why does venous return increase in response to aerobic conditioning?

A

over time the volume of the left ventricle will increase to accommodate the increased blood flow from the right atrium; this leads to greater volumes of blood being ejected from the left ventricle, enhancing aerobic performance

246
Q

where are steroid hormones secreted from?

A

adrenal cortex and gonads. steroids = transported across sarcolemma; polypeptide = bind to receptor cells.

247
Q

what are the three major divisions of the bronchioles?

A

lesser bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, and respiratory bronchioles

248
Q

what does the division of bronchioles represent?

A

the end of the conduction zone in human respiration and can be identified with the occurrence of alveoli, which represents the beginning of the respiration zone

249
Q

what percent of total gas exchange from respiratory bronchioles?

A

10%

250
Q

major functions of catecholamines?

A

neural upregulation, vasodilation, vasoconstriction, enhancing enzyme activity in skeletal muscle; increase muscle contraction, elevate blood pressure, increase blood flow, improve testosterone secretion re: resistance training

251
Q

how does testostone affect pituitary gland?

A

increases growth hormone production there

252
Q

how does testosterone affect CNS adaptations to resistance training?

A

increasing neuronal receptor availability, increasing neurotransmitter activity and availability, altering structural proteins that facilitate muscular contraction

253
Q

what are chronic adaptations to resistance exercise?

A

hypertrophy of high-threshold motor units, increased importation and affinity for nutrients in muscle tissue, increased insulin sensitivity, increased androgen receptor count

254
Q

what does adenylate kinase do?

A

converts two ADP molecules into ATP+AMP; this is significant b/c it maintains cellular energy homeostasis and stimulates glycolysis via elevating AMP

255
Q

where does the phosphagen get its ATP?

A

local muscle stores and breakdown of creatine phosphate

256
Q

how does the phosphagen system resynthesize ATP?

A

adding an inorganic phosphate group (creatine phosphate or phosphocreatine, same thing) to an existing ADP molecule via an enzymatic process with creatine kinase

257
Q

end-diastolic volume?

A

volume of blood available to be pumped after diastole

258
Q

why is end-diastolic volume significant for stroke volume?

A

this is what will be pumped from the heart to the rest of the body and during exercise, thereby working muscle

259
Q

what adaptations can an athlete have regarding end-diastolic volume?

A

over time the muscle fibers of the heart become stretched, which allows for greater end-diastolic volume and increases the volume of blood during systole

260
Q

what are the adaptations to aerobic training?

A

hypertrophy of type I fibers, increased mitochondria, increased myoglobin activity

261
Q

why is greater mitochondrial density significant for athletes?

A

leads to greater ATP production / is significant in enhancing aerobic capacity

262
Q

why is increased myoglobin significant for athletes?

A

myoglobin is the protein responsible for transporting oxygen into the muscle cell; more myoglobin increases the amount of oxygen available for energy production in working muscle

263
Q

memories of missing an important free throw in high school when attempting a free throw in college is an example of what?

A

cognitive anxiety

264
Q

which ventricle does bradycardia continge on?

A

hypertrophy of the left ventricle, which increases stroke volume capacity (more volume = less need to beat)

265
Q

elderly populations/athletes might want to be concerned about bradycardia why?

A

could be indications of decreased electrical activity in sinoatrial node; if symptoms unrelated to exercise, refer to physician

266
Q

how does an athlete perform autogenic training?

A

get into relaxed setting/lying position/other and begin to visualize/sensationalize the relaxation of individual muscles or limbs by emphasizing the warmth and increasing heaviness of the limbs (this approach may cause a shift from sympathetic neural dominance to parasympathetic and reduced arousal)

267
Q

how will increasing muscle buffering capacity benefit an anaerobic athlete?

A

increase the physiological capacity to buffer H+ ions from lactate to better maintain rate of work, esp. at high intensity

268
Q

how many macronutrients, minerals, and vitamins are in the Dietary Reference Intake, and how does the DRI help athletes?

A

18 macronutrients, 18 minerals, 14 vitamins; DRI helps athletes by being aware of baseline needs

269
Q

how does reaching peak bone mass benefit aging?

A

there is a higher percentage of bone loss that can be lost before a harmful threshold is reached

270
Q

what do athletes/populations who want to reduce bone aging effects have to account for?

A

maintaining activity levels across the aging cycle

271
Q

what is successive approximation and how does it benefit athletes?

A

establishing a series of short-term goals that increase in difficulty, and, as athlete progresses, more resemble final behavior; can eliminate bad habits or dangerous motor patterns as well as improve adherence

272
Q

an athlete reduces their soda intake gradually, until eventually reaching zero. what is this strategy called?

A

successive approximation

273
Q

what factors must an athlete pay attention to for manipulating their breathing?

A

awareness of the body, levels of tension or stress, and specific elements in response to these techniques; this can positively impact recovery from training

274
Q

what factors should be evaluated in older clients?

A

body composition and anthropometrics; cardiovascular, flexibility, and strength training

275
Q

what is the function of myosin-heavy chain protein?

A

remodeling and regeneration of muscle tissue after heavy resistance training; this can alter fiber typing by impacting gene expression, increasing protein synthesis, and retarding protein loss

276
Q

what do proteolytic enzymes do?

A

hydrolize peptide bonds that link proteins and amino acid groups together in order for these proteins to be assimilated into other amino acids or proteins; therefore they can be utilized in other cells or tissues

277
Q

what is the site of ATP hydrolysis?

A

the myosin fiber

278
Q

when is the energy required for cross-linking between actin and myosin available?

A

when phosphate has been released onto the myosin fiber

279
Q

a coach assessing an athlete’s possible physical limitations should conduct what kind of test?

A

movement analysis

280
Q

an athlete drills their fingers to get in the zone before a free throw. this is an example of what?

A

preparatory routine

281
Q

what is the risk of an athlete who is extrinsically motivated?

A

inconsistency; an intrinsically motivated athlete will be more consistent

282
Q

what conversion does the neuromuscular junction represent?

A

electrical –> biochemical –> mechanical

283
Q

functions of growth hormone?

A

increase in cellular amino acid uptake; increased availability of glucose and amino acids in circulation; increased lipolysis; can strengthen immune response

284
Q

how would a coach benefit from arteriovenous oxygen difference?

A

it’s the primary means of evaluating the amount of oxygen being unloaded into active tissues during exercise, and crucial to determining aerobic fitness because this component is crucial to the fick equation.

285
Q

when do cartilaginous joints allow the body flexibility and elasticity?

A

during growth or respiration

286
Q

the knee will have what kind of joint?

A

synovial

287
Q

pubic symphysis is an example of what kind of joint?

A

cartilaginous

288
Q

what is inorganic phosphate composed of and why does this matter?

A

adenine, ribose, and two molecules of inorganic phosphate; ADP can convert into ATP with the addition of an inorganic phosphate group from the creatine phosphate system

289
Q

what is myosin ATPase responsible for?

A

catalyzing the actomyosin cross-bridging response in muscular contraction, which creates free energy needed for the contraction

290
Q

what does creatine kinase do?

A

potentiate the activity of replenishment of ATP molecules for energy utilization in the phosphagen system

291
Q

why should athletes be concerned about creatine kinase elevation in tests?

A

indicative of muscle damage – possibly from heart attack, or kidney failure, or rhabdomyolysis

292
Q

under what timespan can rhabdomyolysis occur?

A

immediately to the course of a training week

293
Q

cardiac output?

A

volume of blood pumped through the heart specifically by a right/left ventricle in one minute

294
Q

what are the factors of cardiac output?

A

stroke volume (ml/min), heart rate (BPM)

295
Q

what does sodium-potassium ATPase do?

A

maintain cellular sodium potassium balance by pumping sodium out of a cell and potassium into the cell. (2 K+ ions into the cell = 3 Na+ ions out of the cell)

296
Q

why is the pumping activity of sodium-potassium ATPase necessary?

A

maintain proper fluid resting potential, maintain fluid balance in cells

297
Q

sarcolemma?

A

cell membrane of striated muscle tissue, responsible for separation of each muscle fiber; essential for conducting and receiving stimuli from connecting nerve fibers (allows its t-tubules to release Ca2+ into sarcoplasm)

298
Q

what is a function of cortisol?

A

cortisol is a glucocorticoid that converts amino acids into carbohydrates and is involved as a signaling hormone in carbohydrate metabolism (related to glycogen storage)

CSCS (Exercise Science section) (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions