ch0.1 -- misc vocabulary Flashcards

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1
Q

analgesia

A

inability to feel pain

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2
Q

bracketing technique

A

performing a sport movement with less than normal and greater than normal resistance; another form of acceleration training

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3
Q

dorsal

A

toward the posterior. from Latin dorsum, meaning ‘back’ – surface of an organism refers to the back, or upper side, of an organism. if talking about the skull, the dorsal side is the top.

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4
Q

ventral

A

toward the anterior. from Latin venter, meaning ‘belly’. surface refers to the front, or lower side, of an organism.

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5
Q

kyphotic

A

forward rounding of the back (hunchback); from ‘kyphos’ or ‘hump’ in greek. most common in older women and often related to osteoporosis.

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6
Q

lordotic

A

curving inward of lower back. some lordosis is normal, too much is referred to as swayback. lumbar lordosis makes you look like a chicken or goose.

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7
Q

rate coding

A

the rate at which the motor units are fired. as the intensity of a stimulus increases, the frequency or rate of action potentials, or “spike firing”, increases; rate coding is sometimes called frequency coding.

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8
Q

drag

A

a force acting opposite to the relative motion of any object moving with respect to a surrounding fluid. sometimes called air resistance, a type of friction, or fluid resistance.

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9
Q

surface drag

A

friction of a fluid passing along the surface of an object; in alternate words, drag caused by the friction of a fluid against the surface of an object that is moving through it.

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10
Q

form drag

A

fluid resistance from the way a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it

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11
Q

kinase

A

an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a specified molecule

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12
Q

lactate vs lactic acid

A

Lactate is lactic acid, missing one proton. To be an acid, a substance must be able to donate a hydrogen ion; when lactic acid donates its proton, it becomes its conjugate base, or lactate.

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13
Q

adenylate kinase

A

a phosphotransferase enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion of adenine nucleotides (ATP, ADP, and AMP)

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14
Q

adenylate kinase reaction

A

2ADP ATP + AMP; particularly important because AMP is a product of the adenylate kinase (myokinase) reaction, a powerful stimulant of glycolysis

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15
Q

hexokinase

A

an enzyme that phosphorylates hexoses (six-carbon sugars), forming hexose phosphate. In most organisms, glucose is the most important substrate of hexokinases, and glucose-6-phosphate is the most important product

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16
Q

phosphorus

A

chemical element with the symbol P and atomic number 15. Elemental phosphorus exists in two major forms, white phosphorus and red phosphorus, but because it is highly reactive, phosphorus is never found as a free element on Earth. It has a concentration in the Earth’s crust of about one gram per kilogram (compare copper at about 0.06 grams). In minerals, phosphorus generally occurs as phosphate. Phosphorus is essential for life. Phosphates (compounds containing the phosphate ion, PO43−) are a component of DNA, RNA, ATP, and phospholipids. Elemental phosphorus was first isolated from human urine, and bone ash was an important early phosphate source. Phosphate mines contain fossils because phosphate is present in the fossilized deposits of animal remains and excreta. Low phosphate levels are an important limit to growth in some aquatic systems. The vast majority of phosphorus compounds mined are consumed as fertilisers. Phosphate is needed to replace the phosphorus that plants remove from the soil, and its annual demand is rising nearly twice as fast as the growth of the human population. Other applications include organophosphorus compounds in detergents, pesticides, and nerve agents.

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17
Q

pyruvate

A

Pyruvic acid (CH3COCOOH) is the simplest of the alpha-keto acids, with a carboxylic acid and a ketone functional group. Pyruvate, the conjugate base, CH3COCOO−, is a key intermediate in several metabolic pathways throughout the cell. Pyruvic acid can be made from glucose through glycolysis, converted back to carbohydrates (such as glucose) via gluconeogenesis, or to fatty acids through a reaction with acetyl-CoA. It can also be used to construct the amino acid alanine and can be converted into ethanol or lactic acid via fermentation. Pyruvic acid supplies energy to cells through the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) when oxygen is present (aerobic respiration), and alternatively ferments to produce lactate when oxygen is lacking (lactic acid).

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18
Q

allosteric

A

relating to or denoting the alteration of the activity of a protein through the binding of an effector molecule at a specific site.

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19
Q

allosteric activation

A

occurs when an “activator” binds with the enzyme and increases its turnover rate

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20
Q

allosteric inhibition

A

occurs when an end product binds to the regulatory enzyme and decreases its turnover rate and slows product formation

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21
Q

docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

A

an omega-3 fatty acid. a primary structural component of the human brain, cerebral cortex, skin, and retina. can be synthesized from alpha-linolenic acid or obtained directly from maternal milk (breast milk), fish oil, or algae oil. fish sources: cooked salmon contain 500-1500 mg DHA and 300-1000 mg EPA per 100 grams. other sources: DHA include caviar (3400 mg per 100 grams), anchovies (1292 mg per 100 grams), mackerel (1195 mg per 100 grams), and cooked herring (1105 mg per 100 grams). brains from mammals are also a good direct source, with beef brain, for example, containing approximately 855 mg of DHA per 100 grams in a serving.

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22
Q

eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)

A

an omega-3 fatty acid. obtained in the human diet by eating oily fish or fish oil, e.g. cod liver, herring, mackerel, salmon, menhaden and sardine, and various types of edible algae. also found in human breast milk. a precursor to docosahexaenoic acid (DHA). converted from ALA, but medical conditions like diabetes or certain allergies may significantly limit the human body’s capacity for metabolization of EPA from ALA.

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23
Q

beta oxidation

A

the catabolic process by which fatty acid molecules are broken down in the cytosol in prokaryotes and in the mitochondria in eukaryotes to generate acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle, and NADH and FADH2, which are co-enzymes used in the electron transport chain. It is named as such because the beta carbon of the fatty acid undergoes oxidation to a carbonyl group.

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24
Q

calcium ATPase

A

Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA) is a transport protein in the plasma membrane of cells that serves to remove calcium (Ca2+) from the cell. it is vital for regulating the amount of Ca2+ within cells. uses hydrolysis of ATP.

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25
Q

combination training

A

cross-training to enhance recovery, because it is postulated that recovery relies primarily on aerobic mechanisms. several studies have demonstrated that recovery in power output is related to endurance fitness. bogdanis and colleagues reported relationships in power recovery in the first 10 seconds of a cycling sprint, the resynthesis of PCr, and endurance fitness (VO2Max).

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26
Q

glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of the molecule glycogen into glucose

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27
Q

inorganic phosphate

A

a chemical derivative of phosphoric acid. the phosphate ion is an inorganic chemical, the conjugate base that can form many different salts. inorganic phosphates occur naturally in many forms and are usually combined with other elements (e.g., metals such as sodium, potassium, calcium and aluminum). inorganic phosphates are present in all living organisms and are required to support life.

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28
Q

law of mass action

A

also known as mass action effect. concentrations of reactants – substances that start reactions – or products – substances that are produced – or both in solution will drive the direction of the reactions. (with enzyme-mediated reactions, such as the reactions of the phosphagen system, the rate of product formation is greatly influenced by the concentrations of the reactants)

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29
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

exercise induced decrease in ph – blood becomes more acidic, which inhibits glycolytic reactions, interferes with excitation-contraction coupling, and inhibits enzymatic turnover rate of cell energy systems

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30
Q

metabolic specificity

A

training that results in the use of a specific bioenergetic pathway

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31
Q

near-equilibrium reactions

A

reactions that proceed in a direction dictated by the concentrations of the reactants due to the law of mass action

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32
Q

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH)

A

A cofactor that is central to metabolism. Found in all living cells, NAD is called a dinucleotide because it consists of two nucleotides joined through their phosphate groups. One nucleotide contains an adenine nucleobase and the other nicotinamide. NAD exists in two forms: an oxidized and reduced form, abbreviated as NAD+ and NADH respectively. In metabolism, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is involved in redox reactions, carrying electrons from one reaction to another. The cofactor is, therefore, found in two forms in cells: NAD+ is an oxidizing agent - it accepts electrons from other molecules and becomes reduced. This reaction forms NADH, which can then be used as a reducing agent to donate electrons. These electron transfer reactions are the main function of NAD. However, it is also used in other cellular processes, most notably a substrate of enzymes that add or remove chemical groups from proteins, in posttranslational modifications. In organisms, NAD can be synthesized from simple building-blocks (de novo) from the amino acids tryptophan or aspartic acid. In an alternative fashion, more complex components of the coenzymes are taken up from food as niacin. Similar compounds are released by reactions that break down the structure of NAD. These preformed components then pass through a salvage pathway that recycles them back into the active form. Some NAD is converted into the coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP). The chemistry of NADP is similar to that of NAD, but it has different role, being predominantly a cofactor in anabolic metabolism. NAD+ is written with a superscript plus (+) sign because of the formal charge on one of its nitrogen atoms; however, it is actually predominantly a singly charged anion (charge of minus 1) at physiological pH. NADH, on the other hand, is a doubly charged anion because of its two bridging phosphate groups.

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33
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

the process in which ATP is formed as a result of the transfer of electrons from NADH or FADH2 to O2 by a series of electron carriers. This process, which takes place in mitochondria, is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms

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34
Q

rate-limiting step

A

the mechanism step with the greatest activation energy and therefore the slowest step in a chemical reaction, which is therefore the rate at which the reaction is determined. phosphofructokinase is the most important regulator of glycolysis because it is the rate-limiting step.

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35
Q

repletion

A

the restoration of energy substrates, such as phosphagen and glycogen

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36
Q

sodium-potassium ATPase

A

also abbreviated Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase, an enzyme that uses ATP molecules to pump sodium and potassium ions via hydrolysis. a similar enzyme is calcium ATPase.

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37
Q

slow glycolysis

A

when pyruvate is shuttled into the mitochondria to undergo the krebs cycle (cycle of reactions to produce energy); slower resynthesis rate due to the number of reactions, but this can be kept up for longer durations if the exercise is low enough

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38
Q

hormone vs enzyme

A

The enzyme is a catalyst which enhances the rate of reaction in the body whereas hormones are chemical messenger which provides the signal to the cell for performing various functions. Secondly, enzymes act on the site where they are produced while hormones act distantly from the cell where they are produced and travel through body fluid.

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39
Q

allosteric

A

relating to or denoting the alteration of the activity of a protein through the binding of an effector molecule at a specific site

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40
Q

allosteric binding site

A

a site at which substances other than hormones can enhance or reduce the cellular response to the primary hormone. it’s binding an enzyme at a site other than the active site; allows molecules to either activate or inhibit, or turn off, enzyme activity – by binding these molecules change the confirmation, or shape, of the enzyme

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41
Q

cross-reactivity

A

when a given receptor partially interacts with other hormones (i.e., allosteric binding or blocking of the primary binding site)

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42
Q

proteolytic enzyme

A

enzymes that break down proteins into shorter fragments (peptides) and eventually into their components, amino acids; also called protease, proteinase, or peptidase. cortisol increases the level of these. proteolysis occurs by cleaving the peptide bonds within proteins by hydrolysis, a reaction where water breaks bonds. proteases are involved in many biological functions, including digestion of eaten proteins, protein catabolism (breakdown of old proteins), and cell signalling. one example is enzymes that use glutamate carboxylic acid for proteolysis.

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43
Q

anaerobic alactic system

A

the part of the anaerobic energy system that makes energy anaerobically without lactate. also known as the phosphagen or creatine phosphate system. the anaerobic lactic system makes energy through glycolysis and is known as the glycolytic system.

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44
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

articular cartilage found on the articulating surfaces of bones; glass-like (hyaline) but translucent; found on many joint surfaces. it is also most commonly found in the ribs, nose, larynx, and trachea. firm, has a considerable amount of collagen.

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45
Q

fibrous cartilage

A

very tough form of cartilage found in the intervertebral disks of the spine and at the junctions where tendons attach to bone. the only type of cartilage that contains Type I collagen in addition to the normal type II.

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46
Q

tendon

A

fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to bone, tendons may also attach muscles to structures such as the eyeball. a tendon serves to move the bone or structure

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47
Q

ligament

A

fibrous connective tissue which attaches bone to bone, and usually serves to hold structures together and keep them stable.

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48
Q

function of ligaments vs tendons?

A

Ligaments appear as crisscross bands that attach bone to bone and help stabilize joints. For example, the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) attaches the thighbone to the shinbone, stabilizing the knee joint. Tendons, located at each end of a muscle, attach muscle to bone. Tendons are found throughout the body, from the head and neck all the way down to the feet. The Achilles tendon is the largest tendon in the body. It attaches the calf muscle to the heel bone. The rotator cuff tendons help your shoulder rotate forward and backward. You can think of ligaments as rope, with a series of tough, intertwined cords that bind bones. Ligaments also have some elastic fibers that allow the joint to move, but not so much that it moves beyond its capacity. The knee joint, for instance, has four major ligaments, one on each side of the knee and two that run diagonally across the front and back of the kneecap. These ligaments help stabilize the knee and keep it from moving too far to the left or right, forward or backward. Tendons are also tough cords, but they have a little more give than ligaments. As a muscle contracts, the attached tendon pulls the bone into movement. Think of what happens to your bicep when you bend your elbow. Tendons also help absorb some of the impact muscles take as they spring into action.

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49
Q

hydroxyapatite

A

calcium phosphate crystals, the end result of forming the bone matrix from proteins. up to 50% by volume and 70% by weight of human bone is a modified form of hydroxyapatite, known as bone mineral.

50
Q

minimal essential strain (MES)

A

the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation.

51
Q

myotatic reflex

A

a muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. the “knee-jerk” reflex in which a muscle contracts in direct response to its stretch. it is typically elicited by tapping on the tendon of a muscle, which deforms the tendon and stretches the muscle

52
Q

nebulin

A

an actin-binding protein which is localized to the thin filament of the sarcomeres in skeletal muscle. it is a very large protein (600-900 kDa) and binds as many as 200 actin monomers

53
Q

titin

A

a large abundant protein of striated muscle. titin’s primary functions are to stabilize the thick filament, center it between the thin filaments, prevent overstretching of the sarcomere, and to recoil the sarcomere like a spring after it is stretched

54
Q

osteoblasts

A

cells that form new bone. they also come from bone marrow and are related to structural cells. osteoblasts produce a new bone called osteoid made of bone collagen and other protein. they synthesize dense, crosslinked collagen and specialized proteins in much smaller quantities, including osteocalcin and osteopontin, which compose the organic matrix of bone

55
Q

parasympathetic

A

rest-and-digest/feed-and-breed functions. slows the heart rate, increases intestinal and gland activity, and relaxes sphincter muscles in the gastrointestinal tract. sexual arousal, salivation, lacrimation (tears), urination, digestion and defecation

56
Q

sympathetic

A

stimulates the body’s fight-flight-or-freeze response. pupil diameter, gut motility, urinary system output, sweat secretion, renin secretion, dilates bronchioles. goose bumps.

57
Q

parasympathetic overtraining

A

increased parasympathetic activity at rest and with exercise. The sympathetic syndrome is thought to develop before the parasympathetic syndrome and predominates in younger athletes who train for speed or power. The symptoms of overtraining found in anaerobic activities (sympathetic) were also different from those in aerobic-endurance activities (parasympathetic)

58
Q

periosteum

A

a specialized connective tissue covering all bones; any contraction of the muscle pulls on the tendon and, in turn, the bone. the periosteum is a membrane that covers the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones. The periosteum consists of dense irregular connective tissue. It is divided into an outer “fibrous layer” and inner “cambium layer” (or “osteogenic layer”). The fibrous layer contains fibroblasts, while the cambium layer contains progenitor cells that develop into osteoblasts. These osteoblasts are responsible for increasing the width of a long bone and the overall size of the other bone types. After a bone fracture, the progenitor cells develop into osteoblasts and chondroblasts, which are essential to the healing process.

59
Q

reactive hyperemia

A

a temporary increase in blood flow to an area after a period of arterial occlusion; muscular contractions greater than 20% of maximal voluntary contraction impede peripheral blood flow within the muscle during a set. (Interestingly, the lack of blood flow (and subsequent increase in metabolites such as hydrogen ions and reduction in pH) during heavy external loading is a potent stimulus for muscle growth.)

60
Q

alveoli

A

the functional unit of the pulmonary system where gas exchange occurs; the many tiny air sacs of the lungs which allow for rapid gaseous exchange. where the lungs and the bloodstream exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen. carbon dioxide in the blood passes into the lungs through the alveoli.

61
Q

anatomical dead space

A

dead space is the volume of air that is inhaled that does not take part in the gas exchange, because it either remains in the conducting airways or reaches alveoli that are not perfused or poorly perfused. in other words, not all the air in each breath is available for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. anatomic dead space is the total volume of the conducting airways from the nose or mouth down to the level of the terminal bronchioles, and is about 150 ml on the average in humans. the anatomic dead space fills with inspired air at the end of each inspiration, but this air is exhaled unchanged.

62
Q

eicosapentaenoic acid

A

omega 3 fatty acid. tied to a dose-dependent decrease in triglycerides, a small decrease in BP, and potential antiarythmic effects.

63
Q

glycogenesis

A

process of converting glucose to glycogen, occurs in muscles and liver, 1/3 of glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle and rest in liver

64
Q

saturated

A

containing no double bonds, with carbon molecules saturated with hydrogen. made within the body and not needed exogenously. one double bond = monounsaturated. two double bonds = polyunsaturated. unsaturation makes them chemically more reactive.

65
Q

isocaloric

A

containing the same number of calories

66
Q

beta adrenergic agonist

A

opposite of beta-blockers, medications that relax muscles of the airways, which widen the airways and result in easier breathing (clenbuterol, ephederine)

67
Q

arteriovenous oxygen difference

A

the difference in the oxygen content between arterial and venous blood

68
Q

diastole

A

the phase of the heartbeat when the heart muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood, after the emptying done during systole

69
Q

systole

A

the phase of the heartbeat when the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood from the chambers into the arteries. (the use of systole, “to contract”, is very similar to the use of the english term “to squeeze”)

70
Q

double product

A

the myocardial oxygen consumption (work) of the heart, also known as rate-pressure product. estimate of the work of the heart is obtained according to the equation [Heart rate] * [Systolic blood pressure]

71
Q

ejection fraction

A

the fraction of the end-diastolic volume ejected from the heart; a measurement, expressed as a percentage, of how much blood the left ventricle pumps out with each contraction; the volumetric fraction of fluid ejected from a chamber with each contraction. it can refer to the cardiac atrium, ventricle, gall bladder, or leg veins, although if unspecified it usually refers to the left ventricle of the heart

72
Q

frank-starling mechanism

A

the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles, before contraction (the end diastolic volume), when all other factors remain constant. As a larger volume of blood flows into the ventricle, the blood stretches the cardiac muscle fibers, leading to an increase in the force of contraction. The Frank-Starling mechanism allows the cardiac output to be synchronized with the venous return, arterial blood supply and humoral length, without depending upon external regulation to make alterations. The physiological importance of the mechanism lies mainly in maintaining left and right ventricular output equality.

73
Q

hyperoxic breathing

A

breathing oxygen-enriched gas mixtures, either between sets or following exercise. has been proposed to positively affect some aspects of exercise performance, although the mechanisms for these results are not well understood and research is divided.

74
Q

minute ventilation

A

the volume of air breathed per minute. with aerobic exercise, increased minute ventilation occurs as a result of increases in the depth of breathing, frequency of breathing, or both.

75
Q

alveoli

A

the functional unit of the pulmonary system where gas exchange occurs; any of the many tiny air sacs of the lungs which allow for rapid gaseous exchange; tiny air sacs at the end of the bronchioles (tiny branches of air tubes) in the lungs; the alveoli are where the lungs and the bloodstream exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen

76
Q

bronchus

A

any of the major air passages of the lungs which diverge from the windpipe; bronchus is a passage or airway in the respiratory system that conducts air into the lungs. the first bronchi to branch from the trachea are the right main bronchus and the left main bronchus, also known as the primary bronchi.

77
Q

bronchiole

A

any of the minute branches into which a bronchus divides; the bronchioles or bronchioli are the smaller branches of the bronchial airways in the respiratory tract. they include the terminal bronchioles, and finally the respiratory bronchioles that mark the start of the respiratory zone delivering air to the gas exchanging units of the alveoli.

78
Q

physiological dead space

A

alveoli in which poor blood flow, poor ventilation, or other problems with the alveolar surface impair gas exchange. the physiological dead space in the lungs of healthy people is usually negligible because all or nearly all alveoli are functional. certain types of lung disease such as chronic obstructive lung disease or pneumonia can significantly reduce alveolar function, increasing physiological dead space by as much as 10 times the volume of anatomical dead space

79
Q

anatomical dead space

A

areas of the respiratory passage (nose/mouth/trachea/bronchi/bronchioles) that are occupied with air but the area is not functional for gas exchange; normal volume of air space is 150ml in young adults and increases with age. because respiratory passages stretch with deep breathing, anatomical dead space increases as tidal volume increases, although increase in tidal volume is proportionally much larger and increasing it still makes breathing more efficient

80
Q

rate-pressure product

A

[Heart Rate] * [Systolic Blood Pressure]. an estimate of work, or myocardial oxygen consumption, of the heart. a measure of the stress put on the cardiac muscle based on the number of times it needs to beat per minute (HR) and the arterial blood pressure that it is pumping against (SBP). also known as double product.

81
Q

tidal volume

A

the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath; the lung volume representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied

82
Q

venous return

A

the amount of blood (rate of blood flow) returning to the heart; under steady-state conditions, venous return must equal cardiac output (CO) when averaged over time because the cardiovascular system is essentially a closed loop (see figure). otherwise, blood would accumulate in either the systemic or pulmonary circulations.

83
Q

anterior cruciate ligament

A

ACL; one of the key ligaments that help stabilize your knee joint. the ACL connects your thighbone (femur) to your shinbone (tibia). it prevents the shin bone from sliding out in front of the thigh bone.

84
Q

apophyseal

A

a point where two or more bones join in the spine. the spinal joint is encapsulated by connective tissues, coated with cartilage and lubricated with synovial fluid to enable smooth joint articulation. each vertebra has a pair of apophyseal joints- one on the left and one on the right.

85
Q

cocontraction

A

muscle activity following contact with the ground; the opposite muscle activity from preactivation or before ground contact. cocontraction is a motor control strategy that dynamically stabilizes the joint; however, due to the simultaneous activation of both the agonist and antagonist muscle groups crossing the same joint, net joint moments and agonistic force outputs are reduced. research shows that seniors rely on increased levels of muscle cocontraction as a compensatory mechanism to offset their increased balance difficulties and to minimize postural sway.

86
Q

preactivation

A

muscle activity before contact with the ground; the opposite muscle activity from cocontraction or after ground contact. increased preactivation helps increase stiffness of the limb using fast stretch reflexes to better prepare the limb for ground contact

87
Q

diaphysis

A

primary ossification center of bone formation; the central shaft of long bone. the main or midsection (shaft) of a long bone. It is made up of cortical bone and usually contains bone marrow and adipose tissue (fat).

88
Q

menarche

A

the onset of menstruation (used to evaluate growth and development patterns in girl athletes); average age 12.5

89
Q

augmented feedback

A

feedback provided to the athlete by either an observer, such as a coach, or technology, such as video or laboratory equipment. (after the squat box jump, a coach can tell the athlete that the hips countermovement was too slow, resulting in missing the box.)

90
Q

what are the two types of augmented feedback?

A

knowledge of results and knowledge of performance. Knowledge of results provides the athlete with information about the execution of the task goal. Knowledge of performance feedback provides the athlete with information about his or her movement pattern. This can be delivered in the form of video analysis or through the use of specialized laboratory equipment such as a force plate.

91
Q

autogenic training

A

an attentional state that focuses on the sense of warmth and heaviness for a particular limb or muscle group; a series of exercises designed to produce physical sensations in the body—generally warmth and heaviness. because autogenic training eliminates the need for uncomfortable levels of muscle tension in the contraction-relaxation cycles, older athletes or athletes in rehabilitation from injury may find this an attractive alternative to PMR. (for athletes who are injured or who for some reason find it uncomfortable or impractical to experience high muscular tension levels through PMR.)

92
Q

catastrophe theory

A

an alternative to inverted U theory; an athlete may suffer a severe and catastrophic decline rather than a gradual quadratic or curvilinear decline in performance, and restoring a degree of calm does not necessarily bring a return to the level of performance exhibited before the decline. In this model, the catastrophe theory, somatic arousal has a curvilinear, inverted-U relationship to athletic performance, whereas cognitive anxiety shows a steady negative relationship to performance. When increases in physiological arousal occur in the presence of cognitive anxiety, a sudden drop—rather than a gradual decline—in performance occurs.

93
Q

diaphragmatic breathing

A

referred to as belly breathing, this form of breathing is a basic stress management technique and a precursor to virtually all other mental training techniques

94
Q

how does diaphragmatic breathing work

A

focuses attention on the process of breathing to clear the mind and therefore increase concentration. During any mental training exercise, athletes should attempt to engage in deep, rhythmic breathing in a relaxed, natural manner. Physiologically, this form of breathing has a major influence on heart rate and muscle tension due to feedback mechanisms that link the respiratory and cardiac control centers in the brain stem. The relatively deep inspiration, followed by a controlled expiration, alters autonomic nervous system (ANS) balance so that increased vagal tone or parasympathetic activity can occur. The parasympathetic branch of the ANS promotes the effect opposite the sympathetic-mediated fight-or-flight response. Thus, rhythmic breathing can decrease neural stimulation of both the skeletal muscles and organs (e.g., heart, lungs, liver), resulting in a sense of deep relaxation.

95
Q

how does an athlete perform diaphragmatic breathing

A

Diaphragmatic breathing requires that attention be directed to the abdominal region. It is best to get familiar with this starting from a standing position so that breathing is not inhibited. The athlete should let the arms hang loosely and concentrate on relaxing, particularly in the neck and shoulder region, by first taking a couple of deep breaths. Next, the athlete should relax the abdominal muscles so that they appear flaccid. The initiation of each breath should occur simultaneously with the relaxed protrusion of the abdominal muscles; placing a hand on the abdomen gives feedback to ensure that the abdomen protrudes with the initiation of each breath. With each breath the abdomen should become naturally distended. When this portion of the technique is performed properly, the diaphragm (a muscle at the base of the lungs) contracts and drops, allowing a deeper breath to occur. This is the first stage of taking a maximal inhalation. The entire process of inhalation takes place in three different areas and stages: the lower abdomen, the midchest, and finally the upper chest. Diaphragmatic breathing can be combined with more dynamic muscular relaxation techniques like progressive muscular relaxation and autogenic training.

96
Q

drive theory

A

Hull’s theory that as an individual’s arousal or state anxiety increases, so too does performance. Thus, the more psyched up athletes become, the better they perform.

97
Q

fractionalization

A

breaking the tasks into subcomponents that occur simultaneously (for example for the push press practicing the press motion of the arms and the push motion of the legs independently)

98
Q

segmentation

A

breaks down the task into a series of subcomponents that have clear breaks between them. for example, as mentioned previously, the snatch can be broken down into the first pull, the transition, the second pull, and the catch

99
Q

simplification

A

adjusts the difficulty of the tasks by changing task characteristics such as the execution speed or the equipment used. in the snatch, the athlete first practices the subcomponents with a PVC pipe. in this instance, both segmentation and fractionalization are used.

100
Q

operant

A

a target behavior of something being reinforced or punished (such as correct footwork in basketball)

101
Q

part practice

A

separates the skill into a series of subcomponents. as a general rule, tasks that are challenging but have low interrelatedness of the subcomponents are learned better with part practice. for example, the snatch is a skilled power movement that can be broken down into four subcomponents: the first pull, transition, second pull, and catch.

102
Q

whole practice

A

addressing a skill in its entirety would tend to be favored for a task with subcomponents that are highly interrelated, as part practice can inhibit the effective regrouping of the subcomponents. in the instance of a lunge, it would be ineffective to separate the movements of the front leg from the movements of the lead leg, because these two components are highly interrelated. therefore, a lunge would be better learned as a whole.

103
Q

pure-part training

A

also known as the part-whole method, has the athlete practice each subcomponent of the skill multiple times independently. after all components have been practiced, the skill is practiced in its entirety. in a snatch, the first pull is practiced, then the transition, followed by the second pull and ending with the catch. after all skills have been practiced multiple times, the snatch is practiced.

104
Q

simplification

A

adjusts the difficulty of the tasks by changing task characteristics such as the execution speed or the equipment used. in the snatch, the athlete first practices the subcomponents with a PVC pipe. In this instance, both segmentation and fractionalization are used

105
Q

repetitive part training

A

has the athlete practice only the first part in isolation; then each subsequent part is added until the whole task is reintegrated.

106
Q

what is an example of repetitive part training

A

the athlete in this instance would first practice the first pull; then the first pull with the transition; then the first pull, transition, and second pull; and so forth. with use of simplification, characteristics of the task can be added gradually, increasing the difficulty of the task. the choice of sequencing will be dependent on the task and the goals of the given training session.

107
Q

somatic anxiety

A

the physical manifestation of anxiety. it is commonly contrasted with cognitive anxiety, which is the mental manifestation of anxiety, or the specific thought processes that occur during anxiety, such as concern or worry.

108
Q

variable practice

A

variations of the same skill within a single practice session as opposed to specific practice in which a specific skill (i.e., depth jump to second box of a specific height) is repeated multiple times.

109
Q

what is an example of variable practice

A

in variable practice, the athlete would practice stepping from and jumping to boxes of varying heights. similar to random practice, variable practice can impair performance during the practice session, but can enhance performance on a novel variation of a skill such as the ability to quickly jump to a second box after stepping off a box from an unpracticed height

110
Q

random practice

A

multiple skills are practiced in a random order during a given practice session.

111
Q

what is an example of random practice

A

during blocked practice, the athlete performs multiple squat depth jumps before progressing to another skill. in random practice, an athlete may perform a squat depth jump, a depth jump with a lateral movement, a split-squat jump, and a side-to-side push-off in a random order. the athlete continues to repeat these skills in a random order. while performance on each individual skill initially declines during random practice, learning is facilitated by this practice design. as applied to a sport setting, an integration of blocked and random practice (a few repetitive attempts at each skill before proceeding)

112
Q

how could specific practice and variable practice be used together

A

a combination of specific and variable practice allows the athlete to develop sport-specific skills while also providing the athlete with the flexibility to perform in unfamiliar contexts. this flexibility is important to an athlete’s success, as sport requires the athlete to perform in unfamiliar environments (travel games) and to accurately modify a practice skill in response to an opponent. as an example, training to land from and jump to varying heights will allow the athlete to respond in a game and execute the skill in an unfamiliar context.

113
Q

Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range

A

a range of intakes for a particular energy source that is associated with reduced risk of chronic disease while providing adequate intakes of essential nutrients. an AMDR is expressed as a percentage of total energy intake

114
Q

how would AMDR be applied to men, women, and children?

A

the AMDR is 5% to 20% of total calories for children ages 1 to 3 years, 10% to 30% of total calories for children ages 4 to 18 years, and 10% to 35% of total calories for adults older than age 18 years. men and women typically consume an average of 15% of their calories from protein.

115
Q

how would the AMDR apply to protein and calories?

A

though the DRI for protein fits within the AMDR, the DRI is based solely on body weight and therefore does not take low or high calorie intakes into account. based on the AMDR, when calorie intake is lower, protein needs go up as a percentage of total calorie intake by approximately 1% for every 100-calorie decrease below 2,000 calories. when total calorie intake is higher, protein needs, expressed as a percentage of total caloric intake, go down to a certain point

116
Q

cytochrome

A

an electron chain carrier. hydrogen atoms are passed down the chain to form a proton concentration gradient, which provides the energy for ATP production, with oxygen serving as the final electron acceptor (resulting in the formation of water). cytochromes are capable of catalysis by reduction or oxidation of their heme iron; the cellular location of cytochromes depends on their function, they can be found as globular proteins and membrane proteins.

117
Q

endergonic reaction

A

internal reactions that require energy, and include (1) anabolic processes and (2) the contraction of muscle

118
Q

flavin adenine dinucleotide (FADH2)

A

a redox-active coenzyme associated with various proteins, which is involved with several important enzymatic reactions in metabolism. it’s six molecules of NADH and two molecules of reduced flavin adenine dinucleotide, hence FADH2. two pyruvate molecules subsequent to the production of one glucose molecule produces FADH2. these molecules transport hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain to be used to produce ATP from ADP. the ETC uses the NADH and FADH2 molecules to rephosphorylate ADP to ATP

119
Q

what is some evidence against combination training?

A

aerobic endurance training may reduce anaerobic performance capabilities, particularly for high-strength, high-power performance. aerobic endurance training has been shown to reduce anaerobic energy production capabilities in rats. additionally, combined anaerobic and aerobic endurance training can reduce the gain in muscle girth, maximum strength, and speed- and power-related performance. it has been suggested that combination training may increase training volume to a level that may result in overtraining in comparison to aerobic and anaerobic training alone.

120
Q

what was found about the ‘plateau effect’ for combination training?

A

hickson and colleagues provide evidence that combination training that includes progressive endurance running and cycling and resistance training may produce a plateau effect and, ultimately, a decrease in strength gains. specifically, it was reported that heavy resistance training combined with an endurance program provided significant improvements in squat strength during the first seven weeks of the program, followed by a plateau period (two weeks) and then a decrease in squat strength during the remaining weeks of the program (two weeks). The results provided evidence that the upper limits of strength may be inhibited with progressive endurance training such as running and cycling.

121
Q

what are theorized mechanisms by which combination training may hinder strength grains?

A

(a) decreasing rapid voluntary activation, (b) chronically lower muscle glycogen levels that can limit intracellular signaling responses during resistance training, and (c) and fiber type transition to slow-twitch fibers

122
Q

what is some evidence in favor of combination training?

A

that anaerobic training (strength training) can improve low- and high-intensity exercise endurance. sedano and colleagues reported improvements in performance of highly trained runners as a result of concurrent endurance, resistance, and plyometric training. there was no reduction in VO2 max over the 12 weeks in runners who participated in resistance and plyometric training. furthermore, the combination training improved performance measures such as maximal strength, peak running velocity, and 3 km time trial compared to endurance training alone. thus in highly trained runners it would appear that strength training would improve performance while not hindering metabolic parameters (VO2 max)