ch0.2 - study book vocabulary Flashcards
1
Q
smooth muscle functions?
A
one nucleus/no striations, comprising walls of blood vessels/organs of urinary/digestive/respiratory/reproductive tracts, also for peristalsis (moving food through digestive tract)
2
Q
bioenergetic diff. between type I and type II?
A
type I = low myosin ATPase, slower calcium handling, reduced glycolytic capacity, large mitochondria
3
Q
difference between IIa and IIb fibers?
A
IIa = moderate aerobic/anaerobic capacity, fast-oxidative+glycolytic, high myosin ATPase activity, greater number of capillaries than IIx fibers. IIb = fast glycolytic, less capacity for aerobic energy therefore more fatigable
4
Q
number of skeletal muscles in the body?
A
over 500
5
Q
what are the twelve muscle groups by function?
A
(1) facial expression (2) mastication (3) head/vertebral column movement (4) pectoral girdle movement (5) arm movement (6) forearm movement (7) hand movement (8) abdominal wall movement (9) pelvic outlet movement (10) thigh movement (11) leg movement (12) foot movement
6
Q
muscles responsible for arm/shoulder flexion?
A
pectoralis major, anterior delt, coracobrachialis
7
Q
muscles responsible for arm/shoulder extension?
A
teres major, lat dorsi, posterior delts
8
Q
muscles responsible for arm abduction?
A
supraspinatus and deltoid muscles
9
Q
muscles responsible for arm rotation?
A
subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor
10
Q
muscles responsible for elbow flexion?
A
biceps, brachialis, bracioradialis
11
Q
muscles responsible for elbow/forearm extension?
A
triceps, anconeus
12
Q
muscles responsible for forearm rotation?
A
supinator, pronator teres, and pronator quadratus
13
Q
muscles responsible for wrist/hand flexion?
A
flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis
14
Q
muscles responsible for knee flexion?
A
bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus (the hamstring muscles) and sartorius
15
Q
muscles responsible for knee extension?
A
quadriceps femoris (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius)
16
Q
muscles responsible for dorsiflexion?
A
fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and tibialis anterior
17
Q
muscles responsible for ankle plantarflexion?
A
plantaris, flexor digitorum longus, gastrocnemius, soleus
18
Q
superior (cranial)?
A
near/toward upper part of body, toward head
19
Q
antonym of cranial?
A
caudal (inferior)
20
Q
ventral/dorsal are other words for what?
A
anterior/posterior
21
Q
medial?
A
near body’s midline
22
Q
lateral - relationship to medial?
A
away from body’s midline
23
Q
bilateral?
A
on either side of central axis or midline
24
Q
ipsilateral?
A
on or affecting the same side of the body
25
contralateral?
on or affecting opposite sides of the body
26
intermediate?
located between two structures -- e.g. one medial and one lateral, or one superior/inferior
27
proximal?
location of the origin or point of attachment toward the trunk and away from appendages
28
distal?
location of origin or point of attachment away from the body
29
superficial (external)
near the outside or surface of an object or body
30
deep (internal)
inside, away from surface or body
31
axial
associated with the center of the body (head/neck/trunk = axial skeleton)
32
appendicular
body's appendages (legs/arms)
33
abduct
movement away from body's midline
34
adduct
movement toward the body's midline
35
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the clavicle in relation to the iliac crest?
superior to
36
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the talus in relation to the patella?
talus is inferior to patella
37
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the sternum in relation to the spine?
sternum is anterior to the spine
38
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the spine in relation to the sternum?
spine is posterior to the sternum
39
in terms of orientation/direction, where is nose in relation to the ears?
nose is medial to the ears
40
in terms of orientation/direction, where are the ears in relation to the nose?
ears are lateral to nose
41
what are the body's bilateral structures?
legs, eyes, lungs
42
what are the body's isolateral structures?
hands and feet
43
what is an example of contralateral action?
a stroke on the right side of the brain may affect the function of the left arm
44
a stroke on the left side of the brain may affect the movement of the right leg -- this is an example of what?
contralateral effect
45
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the knee relative to the hip?
intermediate
46
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the thigh relative to the ankle?
proximal
47
in terms of orientation/direction, where is the ankle relative to the knee?
distal
48
the first phase of jumping jacks -- what kind of movement is this?
abduct
49
the second phase of jumping jacks -- what kind of movement is this?
adduct
50
what is the action of the ilicostalis (lateral), longissimus (intermediate), and spinalis (medial)?
prime mover of back extension; each side consists of three columns
51
how do the origin and insertion differ in mobility?
insertion is movable, origin is immovable
52
where is the origin and insertion of the trapezius muscle?
ORIGIN: occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, and spines of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae INSERTION: continuous insertion along acromion and spine of scapula and lateral third of clavicle
53
what is the origin and insertion of the rhomboids?
ORIGIN: spinous processes (T7-T5), INSERTION: medial border of scapula
54
what is the action of the rhomboid major?
retracts, elevates, and rotates scapula
55
what is the action of the rhomboid minor?
retracts and elevates scapula
56
what is the action of the pectoralis minor?
abducts scapula pulling it forward and downward; draws rib cage superiorly (raises ribs)
57
what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis minor?
ORIGIN: anterior surface of ribs 3-5, INSERTION: coracoid process of scapula
58
what is the action of the pectoralis major?
prime mover of arm flexion; rotates arm medially, adducts humerous; pulls arm across chest
59
what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis major?
ORIGIN: medial 1/2 of clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of ribs one through six INSERTION: greater tubercle of humerus
60
what is the action of the teres major?
posteromedially extends, medially rotates, and adducts humerus; synergist of latissimus dorsi
61
what is the origin and insertion of the teres major?
ORIGIN: posterior surface of scapula at inferior angle INSERTION: intertubercular groove of humerus
62
what is the action of the latissimus dorsi?
prime mover of arm extension; arm adductor; medially rotates humerus at shoulder
63
what is the origin and insertion of the latissimus dorsi?
ORIGIN: spines of lower six thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, lower three to four ribs, and iliac crest INSERTION: intertubercular groove of humerus
64
what is the action of the deltoids?
prime mover of arm abduction (at shoulder); extends and flexes arm
65
what is the origin and insertion of the deltoids?
ORIGIN: spine of scapula, acromion, and lateral 1/3 of clavicle INSERTION: deltoid tuberosity of humerus
66
what muscles comprise the rotator cuff?
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
67
what is the action of the rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus/teres minor/subscapularis)?
medially or laterally rotate arm at shoulder; supraspinatus assists abduction; stabilizes shoulder joint, helping to prevent downward dislocation of humerous
68
what is the action of the biceps brachii?
flexes elbow joint and supinates forearm and hand
69
what is the origin and insertion of the biceps brachii?
ORIGIN: short head -- caracoid process of scapula, long head -- tubercle above glenoid cavity of scapula INSERTION: radial tuberosity of radius
70
what is the action of the brachialis?
flexes elbow
71
what is the origin and insertion of the brachialis?
ORIGIN: anterior, distal 1/2 of humerus INSERTION: coronoid process of ulna
72
what is the action of the brachioradialis?
flexes forearm at elbow
73
what is the origin and insertion of the brachioradialis?
ORIGIN: lateral supercondylar ridge at distal end of humerus, INSERTION: base of styloid process at radius
74
what is the action of the triceps brachii?
extends forearm at elbow
75
what is the origin and insertion of the triceps brachii?
ORIGIN: long head -- infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, lateral head -- posterior humerus above radial groove, medial head -- posterior humerus below INSERTION: all three heads -- olecranon process of ulna
76
what is the action of the external obliques?
tenses abdominal wall and compresses abdominal contents
77
what is the origin and insertion of the external obliques?
ORIGIN: outer surfaces of lower eight ribs INSERTION: outer lip of iliac crest and linea alba
78
what is the action of the internal obliques?
tenses abdominal wall and compresses abdominal contents
79
what is the origin and insertion of the internal obliques?
ORIGIN: lumbar fascia, iliac crest, and inguinal ligament INSERTION: cartilages of lower ribs, linea alba, and crest of pubis
80
what is the action of the transverse abdominis?
compresses abdominal components
81
what is the origin and insertion of the transverse abdominis?
ORIGIN: inguinal ligament, lumbar fascia, cartilages of the last six ribs, iliac crest INSERTION: linea alba and crest of pubis
82
what is the action of the rectus abdominis?
flexes and rotates lumbar region of vertebral column; fixes and depresses ribs, stabilizes pelvis when walking; tenses abdominal wall, increases intra-abdominal pressure
83
what is the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis?
ORIGIN: crest of pubis and symphysis pubis INSERTION: xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs five through seven
84
what is the origin and insertion of the psoas major (iliopsoas)?
ORIGIN: lumbar intevertebral discs, bodies and transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae INSERTION: femur on and immediately below lesser trochanter of femur via ilipsoas tendon
85
what is the action of the iliacus (iliopsoas)?
prime mover for flexing thigh or for flexing trunk on thigh during a bow
86
what is the origin and insertion of the iliacus (iliopsoas)?
ORIGIN: iliac fossa and crest, INSERTION: femur on and immediately below lesser trochanter of femur via iliopsoas tendon
87
what is the action of the gluteus maximus?
major extensor of thigh; generally inactive during walking and standing, laterally rotates and abducts thigh
88
what is the origin and insertion of the gluteus maximus?
ORIGIN: sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of ilium INSERTION: posterior surface of femur and fascia of thigh
89
what is the action of the piriformis?
abducts and rotates thigh laterally, stabilizes hip joint
90
what is the origin and insertion of the piriformis?
ORIGIN: anterior surface of sacrum INSERTION: superior border of greater trochanter of femur
91
what is the action of the hamstring group (bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosous)?
extends thigh and flexes knee, laterally or medially rotates leg, especially when knee is flexed
92
what is the origin and insertion of the hamstring group (bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus)?
ORIGIN: ischial tuberosity INSERTION: varies on muscle
93
what is the action of the quadricep group (vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris)?
extends and stabilizes knee
94
what is the origin and insertion of the quadricep group (vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris)?
ORIGIN: varies on specific muscle INSERTION: patellar ligament to tibial tuberosity
95
what is the action of the gastrocnemius?
plantar flexion of foot, flexes knee
96
what is the origin and insertion of the gastrocnemius?
ORIGIN: lateral and medial condolytes of femur INSERTION: posterior surface of calcaneus
97
what is the action of the soleus?
plantar flexion of foot
98
what is the origin and insertion of the soleus?
ORIGIN: head and shaft of fibula and posterior surface of tibia INSERTION: posterior surface of calcaneus
99
of the actin/myosin combo, which is responsible for splitting ATP?
myosin
100
how is the distance of Z-lines in the sarcomere reduced?
by actin/myosin sliding past each other, causing the overlap of filament to increase
101
when is minimal calcium in the myofibril?
under resting conditions
102
what are the phases of sliding filament theory?
resting phase, excitation-coupling phase, recharge phase, relaxation phase
103
why are isometric muscle contractions not able to contract concentrically?
they result from when the resistance force is greater than that generated by the muscle
104
what does a motor neuron consist of?
motor neuron (cell body), axon, dendrites
105
shot put is an example of what kind of body movement?
elbow extension
106
tricep push down is an example of what kind of body movement?
elbow extension
107
football punting is an example of what kind of body movement?
hip flexion
108
leg raises are an example of what kind of body movement?
hip flexion
109
diving (tuck dive) is an example of what kind of body movement?
knee flexion
110
leg curl is an example of what kind of body movement?
knee flexion
111
swimming (breaststroke) is an example of what kind of body movement?
shoulder adduction
112
wide grip lateral pull down is an example of what kind of body movement?
shoulder adduction
113
resisted inversion is an example of what kind of body movement?
ankle inversion
114
soccer dribbling is an example of what kind of body movement?
ankle inversion
115
standing adduction machine is an example of what kind of body movement?
hip adduction
116
soccer side step is an example of what kind of body movement?
hip adduction
117
basketball pivot movement is an example of what kind of body movement?
hip internal rotation
118
resisted internal rotation is an example of what kind of body movement?
hip internal rotation
119
baseball batting is an example of what kind of body movement?
lower back left rotation
120
medicine ball side toss is an example of what kind of body movement?
lower back left rotation
121
golf swing is an example of what kind of body movement?
lower back right rotation
122
torso machine is an example of what kind of body movement?
lower back right rotation
123
what is force?
the interaction of two objects that have both magnitude and direction
124
an athlete has fewer actin and myosin crossbridges. how will this affect force production?
decrease, because number of cross bridges = force production ability.
125
how to fix an athlete who is strong but not fast?
more time training at lower force intensity (e.g. back squats at 30% RM) + faster velocity
126
an athlete who is trying to develop explosiveness would benefit from what calculation?
rate of force development (change in force divided by change in time)
127
momentum?
velocity \* mass; both velocity and momentum are vector quantities without direction
128
an athlete is concerned about injury risk from contact. what calculation would benefit?
momentum
129
impulse?
product of time required to generate a force
130
a coach is trying to figure out how much intensity/volume an athlete can handle. which equation is beneficial?
work. (force \* distance)
131
how is COP (center of pressure) defined?
point of application of ground reaction force whihc is the force that is exerted by the supporting surface (eg ground) on body
132
what sports are COP calculations especially relevant for?
sports like tennis where player may shift COP medially and laterally as when a player moves side to side before receiving serve
133
movement of ball-and-socket joint?
rotation and movement in all planes (ex: hip)
134
movement of condylar joint?
no rotation, variety of movement in different planes (ex: joints between phalanges and metacarpals)
135
movement of plane joint?
twisting or sliding (ex: joints between various bones of the ankle and wrist)
136
movement of hinge joint?
flexion and extension (ex: elbow)
137
movement of pivot joint?
rotation (ex: joint between the proximal ends of the ulna and radius)
138
movement of saddle joint?
variety of movements, primarily in two planes (ex: joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb)
139
work done through isometric/isotonic muscle contractions?
no work is done bc distance is zero
140
neutralizers pull against and cancel out movement from agonist muscles. example?
when elbow is flexed, supination is often undesirable, so the pronator teres counteracts the supination of the biceps so that only elbow flexion results
141
what is the stabilizer of pelvis in an abdominal exercise?
contraction of the hip joint
142
in elbow flexion, what are the roles of biceps/triceps/delts/brachioradialis?
biceps: agonist, triceps: antagonist, deltoid: stabilizer, brachioradialis: neutralizer
143
fascia, bone, and cartilage will contain what strengthening quality?
bundles of crosslinked collagen fibers
144
what kind of collagen are bones/ligaments/tendons composed of?
type I
145
what kind of collagen is cartilage composed of?
type II
146
what is bone marrow composed of?
adipose tissue, vasculature, and the manufacturing site of blood vessels
147
is the recovery time of tendons and ligaments due to the collagen that needs to be produced?
no, it's due to the limited vasculature and circulation to those areas because they normally need little oxygen
148
what is wolff's law?
bone remodels according to the forces placed upon it
149
assembling amino acids into structural proteins is an example of what mechanism?
anabolism
150
what is the difference between the USDA's mediterranean style eating pattern and the US style eating pattern?
healthy mediterranean has more fruit and seafood but less dairy than US style
151
what does the DASH eating plan emphasize?
whole grains, poultry, fish, and nuts -- along with potassium, calcium, and magnesium; may need to gradually increase grains/fruit/veg though because more fiber can lead to bloating and diarrhea
152
what is myplate's macro focus?
low saturated fat, sodium, and added sugar intake
153
what are food exchanges?
used for meal planning purposes for people with diabetes and/or weight loss goals. divided into starches/breads, fruits, milk, vegetables, meat, and fat
154
for how long does the body use carbohydrates as a source of energy during medium- and high- intensity exercise?
up to 2 hours in duration
155
about how many carbs can the body store?
15 grams per kg
156
carbohydrate consumption recommendation for athletes?
6-10 grams per kg daily, depending on intensity and duration and frequency
157
types of saturated fats?
butyric, lauric, myristic, palmitic, and stearic acid
158
fat recommendation?
at least 15% of intake; as much as 30-40% can be ok, depending on health and age and needs. intake of 30% fat (10% saturated, 10% unsaturated, 10% monounsaturated) ensures adequate intake
159
what is the crossover concept?
at lower intensities, the body is primarily using fat as fuel but at higher intensities the contributon of ATP from carb metab. increases
160
what is the duration effect?
as duration increases, the more heavily the body relies on fat, although fitter athletes can use fat as fuel at higher intensities of exercise
161
what are the electrolytes?
sodium, potassium, chloride, iron, calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
162
functions of the electrolyte chloride?
help fluid balance and nerve conductions
163
functions of iron?
helps transport/use oxygen
164
functions of calcium?
nerve conduction, muscle contraction, bone formation, vascular contraction and vascular dilation
165
bodily functions of phosphorus?
intramuscular oxidation
166
what electrolytes primarily need to be replaced due to water loss?
sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium and magnesium in that order
167
an athlete should do what to keep triglycerides under 150mg per deciliter?
limit refined sugary foods, replace saturated with unsaturated, increase fiber intake
168
what is the upper limit for cholesterol for healthy levels?
200 mg per deciliter
169
what population is at risk of calcium deficiency?
postmenopausal women
170
symptoms of calcium deficiency?
muscle weakness, cramping, susceptibility to fractures
171
how does iron help circulate oxygen?
through hemoglobin, an iron-protein that increases oxygen transport 65x -- muscle myoglobin too
172
how does anemia affect exercise performance?
less iron = less oxygen to working tissues, leading to fatigue
173
an athlete with brittle nails, sluggishness, headaches, pale skin, and dizziness likely has what deficiency?
iron deficiency
174
iron ratios for athletes and vegetarian athletes?
athletes: 1.3-1.7x; veg athletes 1.8x
175
RDA for iron?
18mg: women ages 19-50; 8mg: men over 18; 8mg: women over 51
176
endurance athletes might need more iron why?
foot-strike hemolysis, loss of hemoglobin in urine from strenuous training, and the small amount of iron lost in sweat
177
nonheme sources of iron?
oatmeal, lentils, dark green leafy vegetables, and fortified cereals
178
what vitamin helps increase absorption of nonheme iron?
vitamin C; increases it by 3x
179
what percent water are men and women respectively?
60% and 50-55%
180
side effects of dehydration?
headaches, sluggishness, mood changes, loss of cognitive functioning, muscle cramping
181
what kind of decrements occur at 2% and 3% body weight loss due to hydration?
2% -- decreased physical performance. 3% -- risk of heat illness. (less sweat to mitigate body temperature.)
182
how much sweat can individuals can lose from exercise?
6-10% via sweating, depending on type and intensity
183
fluids needed every 15-20 minutes for adequate hydration?
6-8oz
184
macronutrient ratios when reducing body fat?
40-45% carbs, 30-35% protein, 25% fat
185
cups of water per day for men and women?
13 cups for men (104oz) and 9 cups for women (72oz) -- 1 cup = 8oz
186
how do athletes carb load?
1. deplete carb stores through reducing carb intake while maintaining volume and intensity about 5 days out from the event 2. increase carb intake (8-10 grams per kg) 3. taper training volume for several days just before the event
187
recommendation of carbs before exercise?
8-10g per kg
188
how many carbohydrates per hour during exercise?
30-60g per hour in 8-16oz every 15min
189
what should an athlete consume during an activity who wants to support endurance and formation of glycogen after the activity?
3-4g of carbs per 1g of protein; carbs improve muscle glycogen, minimize muscle damage, and support strength efforts
190
how long after exercise does ingestion of carb/protein help rebuild glycogen?
within 30 minutes; ISSN recommends 8-10g per kg of carbs and 0.2g - 0.5g per kg of protein
191
an athlete who skimps on carbs might have what side effects?
no fuel for neurons or red blood cells, poor muscle contraction (state of positive energy balance is required to prevent muscle catabolism for energy)
192
nine essential AAs?
isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine, and histidine
193
seven conditional AAs?
arginine, cysteine, glutamine, proline, taurine, glycine, tyrosine
194
five inessential AAs?
alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, serine
195
spelt, amaranth, and quinoa are what kind of food category?
grains
196
tofu is what kind of food category for protein purposes?
legume
197
what is the difference between a seed, nut, legume, and drupe?
Nuts have a hard outer shell that contains a dry fruit and one or two seeds; the shell does not separate when the fruit is ready to eat but must be practically pried off. Seeds are embryonic plants with a built in nutrient-rich seed coat; some seeds need their outer husk removed prior to eating and others do not -- f the outer husk is removed, it can usually be easily split by hand and removed. Drupes are fruits having a hard interior seed that may be discarded, as with rock fruit, or eaten, as with almonds and walnuts. Legumes have pods (shells, if you will) that contain multiple fruit, like pea pods or peanuts. (nuts are the hard-shelled "fruit" of certain plants; seeds are a small edible plant enclosed in a seed coat. most nuts are seeds, but not all seeds are nuts.)
198
what caloric level marks risks of anorexia?
15% lower than would be healthy for age/sex
199
other than calorie restriction, what marks anorexia?
obsessive in attempts to adhere to rules
200
night eating syndrome (recurring eating at night) is an example of what?
other specified feeding/eating disorder (OSFED)
201
what are the physical signs and symptoms other than weight loss that may be associated with anorexia nervosa?
mineral/electrolyte imbalances, amenorrhea in females, decreased sex drive, fainting or dizziness, hypothermia, consistently feeling cold even in warm weather, bloating, constipation, food intolerances, fatigue, low energy level, changes in face (sunken eyes), development of fine hair on face/body
202
side effects of bulimia?
knuckle calluses, tooth decay, bad breath; chronic sore throat, bloating, constipation, food intolerances; amenorrhea, fainting/fizziness; tiredness
203
health conditions associated with bulimia?
dehydration, gastrointestinal reflux, heartburn, ulcers, slowed or irregular heart beat, electrolyte imbalances, heart failure
204
less obvious conditions BED (binge eating) can lead to?
kidney failure, osteoarthritis, stroke, gallbladder disease, irregular menstrual cycle, skin disorders, heart disease, some cancers
205
what are the stages in the trans theoretical model of change?
(1) precontemplation stage: athlete not thinking about making changes, do not see behavior as problematic, not ready for change. (2) contemplation stage: athlete recognizes problem, thinking about changing, usually getting ready for change (3) preparation stage: ready to make change, may actually begin small changes (4) action phase: making consistent apparent changes (5) maintenance: have made changes for sustained period, usually 6 months, working to prevent setbacks (6) termination: athlete has sustained maintenance for quite some time and has no desire to return to previous behavior
206
what are the categories of ergogenic aids?
nutritional, pharmacologic, physiologic, psychologic
207
what percent of athletes have taken ergogenic aids?
76% and nearly all athletes engaged in strength building
208
how to dose creatine?
0.3g per kg for at least 3 days; 3g to 5g per day to maintain stores. an additional 0.1g/kg added to protein may facilitate resistance training.
209
function of HMB?
prevention of proteolysis / protein breakdown
210
function of carnisine and beta alanine?
buffering agent in skeletal muscle; beta alanine increases carnosine content which helps improve performance in intense exercise by neutralizing acid production.
211
dose of beta alanine?
3g to 6g for anaerobic athletes
212
what is the allowed olympic dose of caffeine?
up to 12 micrograms per ml of caffeine in urine; NCAA allows up to 15
213
dosing of caffeine for performance enhancement?
3 to 6 milligrams of caffeine per kg of body weight
214
what are the three categories of sports beverages?
isotonic (sodium and sugar in physiologically similar levels), hypertonic (more sodium/sugar than the body), and hypotonic (less sodium/sugar than the body)
215
what athletic demographics should not take sodium supplements?
athletes with kidney disease or hypertension
216
function of glutamine as an ergogenic?
preventing illness/infection and reducing muscle soreness
217
function of wazy maize as an ergogenic?
high molecular weight carb that replenishes stores better than maltodextrin and dextrose. protein is also good with it.
218
what is the carb amount and ingestion time athletes should take in sports drinks?
6-8% carbs, and 3oz-8oz every 10-20 minutes for activities \>90min
219
why is the phosphagen system the initial source of energy generation?
because of how long glycolysis and oxidative act -- glycolysis has ten steps and requires an investment of energy to drive early steps of pathway
220
why can the glycolytic system produce more ATP than CP?
because of the supply of glucose and glycogen
221
what is a precondition for pyruvate going into mitochondria?
oxygen has to be available, otherwise will be converted to lactate
222
how much ATP yield does oxidative system produce vs substrate-level phosphorylation?
oxidative: 90 percent, substrate level: 10 percent
223
what is the gross energy production of a molecule of glucose?
40 ATP. this climbs to 463 ATP for one 18-carbon triglyceride molecule.
224
during rest, how much ATP is produced by fat metabolism?
approximately 70 percent; 30 percent comes from the breakdown of carbohydrates
225
in high intensity, what is the energy contribution breakdown?
nearly 100 percent comes from carbohydrates
226
what does the law of mass action mean for bioenergetics?
the reactions will continue until a lower intensity energy system can take over or until the exercise ends
227
what is the work-to-rest ratio for phosphagen?
5-10 seconds; work to rest 1:12 to 1:20 (90-100 percent power)
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work-to-rest ratio for glycolytic pathway?
15-30 seconds, work to rest ratio 1:3 to 1:5 (75-90 percent power)
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work-to-rest ratio for combined glycolytic and oxidative?
1-3 minutes, 1:3 to 1:4, 30-75 percent of power
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work-to-rest ratio for oxidative system?
greater than 3 min, work-to-rest ratio 1:1 to 1:3, 20-30 percent power
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other roles of growth hormone?
decreasing glucose utilization and glycogen synthesis, increasing availability of glucose and amino acids, increasing collagen synthesis and cartilage growth, enhancing immune cell function
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principle role of cortisol?
ensuring that energy is available. it increases the production of glucose in the liver and glycogen production in skeletal muscle.
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how to catecholamines affect muscle?
increase blood flow from vasodilation, elevate BP, increase muscle contraction rate, increase energy availability, enhance metabolic enzyme activity, increase testosterone secretion rates
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30 minutes, 1 hour, 3 hours -- which of these are how long anabolic hormones are elevated post-exercise?
30 minutes
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how does hemoglobin affect cell reactions / muscle buffering?
regulates hydrogen ion concentration
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what are the biomechanics of heavy breathing?
requires movement of the ribs to allow for expansion of the lungs, elevated by the external intercostals, sternocleidomastoids, anterior serrati, and scaleni
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when does exchange of respiratory gases occur?
when oxygen diffuses from alveoli into pulmonary blood and carbon dioxide diffuses from blood into the alveoli
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risk of forceful muscle contraction?
hernia
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for athletes with blood flow issues, how do muscular contractions greater than 20 percent affect blood flow?
slows peripheral blood flow intra-set
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what is 1 MET?
resting oxygen consumption = 3.5 ml/kg per minute = 1 metabolic equivalent
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physiological adaptations to aerobic training?
increases in cardiovascular and muscular endurance, mitochondrial and capillary density, ventricular size and strength, metabolic stores of glycogen/ATP/triglycerides
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recovery time from FOR, NFOR, and overtraining?
FOR: days to weeks NFOR: weeks to months OTS: months or longer (sometimes 6-12+ months)
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physiological changes from parasympathetic OTS?
reduced glycogen availability, increased cortisol, greater sympathetic stress response, reduced levels of nocturnal and resting catecholamines
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an aerobic athlete wants to stop training or detrain. what kind of aerobic changes can they expect?
4-14% after 4 weeks of reduced training, 6-20% after more than 4 weeks (aerobic adaptations are most sensitive to inactivity)
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development v. maturation?
development = progression that occurs from fetus to adult. maturation = process of the body becoming fully functional.
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gold method of biological age testing?
x-rays or radiographs of the wrist or iliac crest to compare bone ossification to standard reference radiographs
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athletes with motive to achieve success like what kind of situation?
50/50 odds
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osteopenia is what BMD level?
-1 to -2.5 standard deviations of BMD of young adults
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osteoporosis is what BMD level?
2.5 standard deviations below that of young adults
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sarcopenia?
largely due to reduced physical activity -- it's loss of muscle mass and therefore strength and power.
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how can older clients offset risks, balance issues, and postural problems?
(1) preactivation: increased muscle activity before contact with ground (2) cocontraction: muscle activity immediately following contact with the ground
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safety recommendations for training in older adults?
same as usual; 5-10 min of warm up, stretching after exercise, allow 48-72hr between training
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how does estrogen affect body composition?
increases fat deposition
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risk of ACL tears in female athletes?
6x greater than males
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amenorrhea threshold?
3 months no menstrual cycle
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how is systematic desensitization performed?
verbalize situation that causes fear while using breathing and muscle relaxation techniques
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what are the three types of instruction?
(1) explicit instruction: most information in prescriptive manner, often step by step (the exercise guidebook is this). (2) guided discovery: less information but provides holistic description of overall movement. (3) discovery: no instructions, but presents the overall goal of a movement.
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types of feedback?
intrinsic feedback: provided by the body. augmented feedback: provided by external source, such as coach or technology.
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two types of augmented feedback?
knowledge of results: how well the athlete did, knowledge of performance: how the athlete performed the task
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situation where an athlete would want to avoid part practice?
archery or jump shot, where component movements are interrelated
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symptoms/characteristics of anxiety?
characteristics: worry, nervousness, apprehension, fear. symptoms: increased heart rate, upset stomach
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an athlete predisposed to be anxious would be said to have what?
trait anxiety
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why is reversal theory novel?
(1) the athete's interpretation of arousal, not the amount felt, is important (2) the athlete has the ability to change negative interpretations of arousal
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what are the types of self confidence?
performing physical skills, psychological skills, learning potential, and confidence in one's fitness/training
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what are the sources of self-efficacy?
(1) past performance examples, (2) watching/modeling successful athletes, (3) encouragement from coaches/teammates/anything, (4) physiological arousal and emotional/mood states
