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CSCS (Exercise Science section) > ch0.2 - study book vocabulary > Flashcards

ch0.2 - study book vocabulary Flashcards

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1
Q

smooth muscle functions?

A

one nucleus/no striations, comprising walls of blood vessels/organs of urinary/digestive/respiratory/reproductive tracts, also for peristalsis (moving food through digestive tract)

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2
Q

bioenergetic diff. between type I and type II?

A

type I = low myosin ATPase, slower calcium handling, reduced glycolytic capacity, large mitochondria

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3
Q

difference between IIa and IIb fibers?

A

IIa = moderate aerobic/anaerobic capacity, fast-oxidative+glycolytic, high myosin ATPase activity, greater number of capillaries than IIx fibers. IIb = fast glycolytic, less capacity for aerobic energy therefore more fatigable

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4
Q

number of skeletal muscles in the body?

A

over 500

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5
Q

what are the twelve muscle groups by function?

A

(1) facial expression (2) mastication (3) head/vertebral column movement (4) pectoral girdle movement (5) arm movement (6) forearm movement (7) hand movement (8) abdominal wall movement (9) pelvic outlet movement (10) thigh movement (11) leg movement (12) foot movement

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6
Q

muscles responsible for arm/shoulder flexion?

A

pectoralis major, anterior delt, coracobrachialis

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7
Q

muscles responsible for arm/shoulder extension?

A

teres major, lat dorsi, posterior delts

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8
Q

muscles responsible for arm abduction?

A

supraspinatus and deltoid muscles

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9
Q

muscles responsible for arm rotation?

A

subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor

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10
Q

muscles responsible for elbow flexion?

A

biceps, brachialis, bracioradialis

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11
Q

muscles responsible for elbow/forearm extension?

A

triceps, anconeus

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12
Q

muscles responsible for forearm rotation?

A

supinator, pronator teres, and pronator quadratus

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13
Q

muscles responsible for wrist/hand flexion?

A

flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis

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14
Q

muscles responsible for knee flexion?

A

bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus (the hamstring muscles) and sartorius

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15
Q

muscles responsible for knee extension?

A

quadriceps femoris (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius)

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16
Q

muscles responsible for dorsiflexion?

A

fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and tibialis anterior

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17
Q

muscles responsible for ankle plantarflexion?

A

plantaris, flexor digitorum longus, gastrocnemius, soleus

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18
Q

superior (cranial)?

A

near/toward upper part of body, toward head

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19
Q

antonym of cranial?

A

caudal (inferior)

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20
Q

ventral/dorsal are other words for what?

A

anterior/posterior

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21
Q

medial?

A

near body’s midline

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22
Q

lateral - relationship to medial?

A

away from body’s midline

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23
Q

bilateral?

A

on either side of central axis or midline

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24
Q

ipsilateral?

A

on or affecting the same side of the body

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25
Q

contralateral?

A

on or affecting opposite sides of the body

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26
Q

intermediate?

A

located between two structures – e.g. one medial and one lateral, or one superior/inferior

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27
Q

proximal?

A

location of the origin or point of attachment toward the trunk and away from appendages

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28
Q

distal?

A

location of origin or point of attachment away from the body

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29
Q

superficial (external)

A

near the outside or surface of an object or body

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30
Q

deep (internal)

A

inside, away from surface or body

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31
Q

axial

A

associated with the center of the body (head/neck/trunk = axial skeleton)

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32
Q

appendicular

A

body’s appendages (legs/arms)

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33
Q

abduct

A

movement away from body’s midline

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34
Q

adduct

A

movement toward the body’s midline

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35
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the clavicle in relation to the iliac crest?

A

superior to

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36
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the talus in relation to the patella?

A

talus is inferior to patella

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37
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the sternum in relation to the spine?

A

sternum is anterior to the spine

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38
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the spine in relation to the sternum?

A

spine is posterior to the sternum

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39
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is nose in relation to the ears?

A

nose is medial to the ears

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40
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where are the ears in relation to the nose?

A

ears are lateral to nose

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41
Q

what are the body’s bilateral structures?

A

legs, eyes, lungs

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42
Q

what are the body’s isolateral structures?

A

hands and feet

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43
Q

what is an example of contralateral action?

A

a stroke on the right side of the brain may affect the function of the left arm

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44
Q

a stroke on the left side of the brain may affect the movement of the right leg – this is an example of what?

A

contralateral effect

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45
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the knee relative to the hip?

A

intermediate

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46
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the thigh relative to the ankle?

A

proximal

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47
Q

in terms of orientation/direction, where is the ankle relative to the knee?

A

distal

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48
Q

the first phase of jumping jacks – what kind of movement is this?

A

abduct

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49
Q

the second phase of jumping jacks – what kind of movement is this?

A

adduct

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50
Q

what is the action of the ilicostalis (lateral), longissimus (intermediate), and spinalis (medial)?

A

prime mover of back extension; each side consists of three columns

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51
Q

how do the origin and insertion differ in mobility?

A

insertion is movable, origin is immovable

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52
Q

where is the origin and insertion of the trapezius muscle?

A

ORIGIN: occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, and spines of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae INSERTION: continuous insertion along acromion and spine of scapula and lateral third of clavicle

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53
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the rhomboids?

A

ORIGIN: spinous processes (T7-T5), INSERTION: medial border of scapula

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54
Q

what is the action of the rhomboid major?

A

retracts, elevates, and rotates scapula

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55
Q

what is the action of the rhomboid minor?

A

retracts and elevates scapula

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56
Q

what is the action of the pectoralis minor?

A

abducts scapula pulling it forward and downward; draws rib cage superiorly (raises ribs)

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57
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis minor?

A

ORIGIN: anterior surface of ribs 3-5, INSERTION: coracoid process of scapula

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58
Q

what is the action of the pectoralis major?

A

prime mover of arm flexion; rotates arm medially, adducts humerous; pulls arm across chest

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59
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis major?

A

ORIGIN: medial 1/2 of clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of ribs one through six INSERTION: greater tubercle of humerus

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60
Q

what is the action of the teres major?

A

posteromedially extends, medially rotates, and adducts humerus; synergist of latissimus dorsi

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61
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the teres major?

A

ORIGIN: posterior surface of scapula at inferior angle INSERTION: intertubercular groove of humerus

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62
Q

what is the action of the latissimus dorsi?

A

prime mover of arm extension; arm adductor; medially rotates humerus at shoulder

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63
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the latissimus dorsi?

A

ORIGIN: spines of lower six thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, lower three to four ribs, and iliac crest INSERTION: intertubercular groove of humerus

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64
Q

what is the action of the deltoids?

A

prime mover of arm abduction (at shoulder); extends and flexes arm

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65
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the deltoids?

A

ORIGIN: spine of scapula, acromion, and lateral 1/3 of clavicle INSERTION: deltoid tuberosity of humerus

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66
Q

what muscles comprise the rotator cuff?

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

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67
Q

what is the action of the rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus/teres minor/subscapularis)?

A

medially or laterally rotate arm at shoulder; supraspinatus assists abduction; stabilizes shoulder joint, helping to prevent downward dislocation of humerous

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68
Q

what is the action of the biceps brachii?

A

flexes elbow joint and supinates forearm and hand

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69
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the biceps brachii?

A

ORIGIN: short head – caracoid process of scapula, long head – tubercle above glenoid cavity of scapula INSERTION: radial tuberosity of radius

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70
Q

what is the action of the brachialis?

A

flexes elbow

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71
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the brachialis?

A

ORIGIN: anterior, distal 1/2 of humerus INSERTION: coronoid process of ulna

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72
Q

what is the action of the brachioradialis?

A

flexes forearm at elbow

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73
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the brachioradialis?

A

ORIGIN: lateral supercondylar ridge at distal end of humerus, INSERTION: base of styloid process at radius

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74
Q

what is the action of the triceps brachii?

A

extends forearm at elbow

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75
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the triceps brachii?

A

ORIGIN: long head – infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, lateral head – posterior humerus above radial groove, medial head – posterior humerus below INSERTION: all three heads – olecranon process of ulna

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76
Q

what is the action of the external obliques?

A

tenses abdominal wall and compresses abdominal contents

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77
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the external obliques?

A

ORIGIN: outer surfaces of lower eight ribs INSERTION: outer lip of iliac crest and linea alba

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78
Q

what is the action of the internal obliques?

A

tenses abdominal wall and compresses abdominal contents

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79
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the internal obliques?

A

ORIGIN: lumbar fascia, iliac crest, and inguinal ligament INSERTION: cartilages of lower ribs, linea alba, and crest of pubis

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80
Q

what is the action of the transverse abdominis?

A

compresses abdominal components

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81
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the transverse abdominis?

A

ORIGIN: inguinal ligament, lumbar fascia, cartilages of the last six ribs, iliac crest INSERTION: linea alba and crest of pubis

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82
Q

what is the action of the rectus abdominis?

A

flexes and rotates lumbar region of vertebral column; fixes and depresses ribs, stabilizes pelvis when walking; tenses abdominal wall, increases intra-abdominal pressure

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83
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis?

A

ORIGIN: crest of pubis and symphysis pubis INSERTION: xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs five through seven

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84
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the psoas major (iliopsoas)?

A

ORIGIN: lumbar intevertebral discs, bodies and transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae INSERTION: femur on and immediately below lesser trochanter of femur via ilipsoas tendon

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85
Q

what is the action of the iliacus (iliopsoas)?

A

prime mover for flexing thigh or for flexing trunk on thigh during a bow

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86
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the iliacus (iliopsoas)?

A

ORIGIN: iliac fossa and crest, INSERTION: femur on and immediately below lesser trochanter of femur via iliopsoas tendon

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87
Q

what is the action of the gluteus maximus?

A

major extensor of thigh; generally inactive during walking and standing, laterally rotates and abducts thigh

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88
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the gluteus maximus?

A

ORIGIN: sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of ilium INSERTION: posterior surface of femur and fascia of thigh

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89
Q

what is the action of the piriformis?

A

abducts and rotates thigh laterally, stabilizes hip joint

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90
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the piriformis?

A

ORIGIN: anterior surface of sacrum INSERTION: superior border of greater trochanter of femur

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91
Q

what is the action of the hamstring group (bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosous)?

A

extends thigh and flexes knee, laterally or medially rotates leg, especially when knee is flexed

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92
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the hamstring group (bicep femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus)?

A

ORIGIN: ischial tuberosity INSERTION: varies on muscle

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93
Q

what is the action of the quadricep group (vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris)?

A

extends and stabilizes knee

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94
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the quadricep group (vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris)?

A

ORIGIN: varies on specific muscle INSERTION: patellar ligament to tibial tuberosity

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95
Q

what is the action of the gastrocnemius?

A

plantar flexion of foot, flexes knee

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96
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the gastrocnemius?

A

ORIGIN: lateral and medial condolytes of femur INSERTION: posterior surface of calcaneus

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97
Q

what is the action of the soleus?

A

plantar flexion of foot

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98
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the soleus?

A

ORIGIN: head and shaft of fibula and posterior surface of tibia INSERTION: posterior surface of calcaneus

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99
Q

of the actin/myosin combo, which is responsible for splitting ATP?

A

myosin

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100
Q

how is the distance of Z-lines in the sarcomere reduced?

A

by actin/myosin sliding past each other, causing the overlap of filament to increase

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101
Q

when is minimal calcium in the myofibril?

A

under resting conditions

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102
Q

what are the phases of sliding filament theory?

A

resting phase, excitation-coupling phase, recharge phase, relaxation phase

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103
Q

why are isometric muscle contractions not able to contract concentrically?

A

they result from when the resistance force is greater than that generated by the muscle

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104
Q

what does a motor neuron consist of?

A

motor neuron (cell body), axon, dendrites

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105
Q

shot put is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

elbow extension

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106
Q

tricep push down is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

elbow extension

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107
Q

football punting is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip flexion

108
Q

leg raises are an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip flexion

109
Q

diving (tuck dive) is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

knee flexion

110
Q

leg curl is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

knee flexion

111
Q

swimming (breaststroke) is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

shoulder adduction

112
Q

wide grip lateral pull down is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

shoulder adduction

113
Q

resisted inversion is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

ankle inversion

114
Q

soccer dribbling is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

ankle inversion

115
Q

standing adduction machine is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip adduction

116
Q

soccer side step is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip adduction

117
Q

basketball pivot movement is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip internal rotation

118
Q

resisted internal rotation is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

hip internal rotation

119
Q

baseball batting is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

lower back left rotation

120
Q

medicine ball side toss is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

lower back left rotation

121
Q

golf swing is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

lower back right rotation

122
Q

torso machine is an example of what kind of body movement?

A

lower back right rotation

123
Q

what is force?

A

the interaction of two objects that have both magnitude and direction

124
Q

an athlete has fewer actin and myosin crossbridges. how will this affect force production?

A

decrease, because number of cross bridges = force production ability.

125
Q

how to fix an athlete who is strong but not fast?

A

more time training at lower force intensity (e.g. back squats at 30% RM) + faster velocity

126
Q

an athlete who is trying to develop explosiveness would benefit from what calculation?

A

rate of force development (change in force divided by change in time)

127
Q

momentum?

A

velocity * mass; both velocity and momentum are vector quantities without direction

128
Q

an athlete is concerned about injury risk from contact. what calculation would benefit?

A

momentum

129
Q

impulse?

A

product of time required to generate a force

130
Q

a coach is trying to figure out how much intensity/volume an athlete can handle. which equation is beneficial?

A

work. (force * distance)

131
Q

how is COP (center of pressure) defined?

A

point of application of ground reaction force whihc is the force that is exerted by the supporting surface (eg ground) on body

132
Q

what sports are COP calculations especially relevant for?

A

sports like tennis where player may shift COP medially and laterally as when a player moves side to side before receiving serve

133
Q

movement of ball-and-socket joint?

A

rotation and movement in all planes (ex: hip)

134
Q

movement of condylar joint?

A

no rotation, variety of movement in different planes (ex: joints between phalanges and metacarpals)

135
Q

movement of plane joint?

A

twisting or sliding (ex: joints between various bones of the ankle and wrist)

136
Q

movement of hinge joint?

A

flexion and extension (ex: elbow)

137
Q

movement of pivot joint?

A

rotation (ex: joint between the proximal ends of the ulna and radius)

138
Q

movement of saddle joint?

A

variety of movements, primarily in two planes (ex: joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb)

139
Q

work done through isometric/isotonic muscle contractions?

A

no work is done bc distance is zero

140
Q

neutralizers pull against and cancel out movement from agonist muscles. example?

A

when elbow is flexed, supination is often undesirable, so the pronator teres counteracts the supination of the biceps so that only elbow flexion results

141
Q

what is the stabilizer of pelvis in an abdominal exercise?

A

contraction of the hip joint

142
Q

in elbow flexion, what are the roles of biceps/triceps/delts/brachioradialis?

A

biceps: agonist, triceps: antagonist, deltoid: stabilizer, brachioradialis: neutralizer

143
Q

fascia, bone, and cartilage will contain what strengthening quality?

A

bundles of crosslinked collagen fibers

144
Q

what kind of collagen are bones/ligaments/tendons composed of?

A

type I

145
Q

what kind of collagen is cartilage composed of?

A

type II

146
Q

what is bone marrow composed of?

A

adipose tissue, vasculature, and the manufacturing site of blood vessels

147
Q

is the recovery time of tendons and ligaments due to the collagen that needs to be produced?

A

no, it’s due to the limited vasculature and circulation to those areas because they normally need little oxygen

148
Q

what is wolff’s law?

A

bone remodels according to the forces placed upon it

149
Q

assembling amino acids into structural proteins is an example of what mechanism?

A

anabolism

150
Q

what is the difference between the USDA’s mediterranean style eating pattern and the US style eating pattern?

A

healthy mediterranean has more fruit and seafood but less dairy than US style

151
Q

what does the DASH eating plan emphasize?

A

whole grains, poultry, fish, and nuts – along with potassium, calcium, and magnesium; may need to gradually increase grains/fruit/veg though because more fiber can lead to bloating and diarrhea

152
Q

what is myplate’s macro focus?

A

low saturated fat, sodium, and added sugar intake

153
Q

what are food exchanges?

A

used for meal planning purposes for people with diabetes and/or weight loss goals. divided into starches/breads, fruits, milk, vegetables, meat, and fat

154
Q

for how long does the body use carbohydrates as a source of energy during medium- and high- intensity exercise?

A

up to 2 hours in duration

155
Q

about how many carbs can the body store?

A

15 grams per kg

156
Q

carbohydrate consumption recommendation for athletes?

A

6-10 grams per kg daily, depending on intensity and duration and frequency

157
Q

types of saturated fats?

A

butyric, lauric, myristic, palmitic, and stearic acid

158
Q

fat recommendation?

A

at least 15% of intake; as much as 30-40% can be ok, depending on health and age and needs. intake of 30% fat (10% saturated, 10% unsaturated, 10% monounsaturated) ensures adequate intake

159
Q

what is the crossover concept?

A

at lower intensities, the body is primarily using fat as fuel but at higher intensities the contributon of ATP from carb metab. increases

160
Q

what is the duration effect?

A

as duration increases, the more heavily the body relies on fat, although fitter athletes can use fat as fuel at higher intensities of exercise

161
Q

what are the electrolytes?

A

sodium, potassium, chloride, iron, calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium

162
Q

functions of the electrolyte chloride?

A

help fluid balance and nerve conductions

163
Q

functions of iron?

A

helps transport/use oxygen

164
Q

functions of calcium?

A

nerve conduction, muscle contraction, bone formation, vascular contraction and vascular dilation

165
Q

bodily functions of phosphorus?

A

intramuscular oxidation

166
Q

what electrolytes primarily need to be replaced due to water loss?

A

sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium and magnesium in that order

167
Q

an athlete should do what to keep triglycerides under 150mg per deciliter?

A

limit refined sugary foods, replace saturated with unsaturated, increase fiber intake

168
Q

what is the upper limit for cholesterol for healthy levels?

A

200 mg per deciliter

169
Q

what population is at risk of calcium deficiency?

A

postmenopausal women

170
Q

symptoms of calcium deficiency?

A

muscle weakness, cramping, susceptibility to fractures

171
Q

how does iron help circulate oxygen?

A

through hemoglobin, an iron-protein that increases oxygen transport 65x – muscle myoglobin too

172
Q

how does anemia affect exercise performance?

A

less iron = less oxygen to working tissues, leading to fatigue

173
Q

an athlete with brittle nails, sluggishness, headaches, pale skin, and dizziness likely has what deficiency?

A

iron deficiency

174
Q

iron ratios for athletes and vegetarian athletes?

A

athletes: 1.3-1.7x; veg athletes 1.8x

175
Q

RDA for iron?

A

18mg: women ages 19-50; 8mg: men over 18; 8mg: women over 51

176
Q

endurance athletes might need more iron why?

A

foot-strike hemolysis, loss of hemoglobin in urine from strenuous training, and the small amount of iron lost in sweat

177
Q

nonheme sources of iron?

A

oatmeal, lentils, dark green leafy vegetables, and fortified cereals

178
Q

what vitamin helps increase absorption of nonheme iron?

A

vitamin C; increases it by 3x

179
Q

what percent water are men and women respectively?

A

60% and 50-55%

180
Q

side effects of dehydration?

A

headaches, sluggishness, mood changes, loss of cognitive functioning, muscle cramping

181
Q

what kind of decrements occur at 2% and 3% body weight loss due to hydration?

A

2% – decreased physical performance. 3% – risk of heat illness. (less sweat to mitigate body temperature.)

182
Q

how much sweat can individuals can lose from exercise?

A

6-10% via sweating, depending on type and intensity

183
Q

fluids needed every 15-20 minutes for adequate hydration?

A

6-8oz

184
Q

macronutrient ratios when reducing body fat?

A

40-45% carbs, 30-35% protein, 25% fat

185
Q

cups of water per day for men and women?

A

13 cups for men (104oz) and 9 cups for women (72oz) – 1 cup = 8oz

186
Q

how do athletes carb load?

A
  1. deplete carb stores through reducing carb intake while maintaining volume and intensity about 5 days out from the event 2. increase carb intake (8-10 grams per kg) 3. taper training volume for several days just before the event
187
Q

recommendation of carbs before exercise?

A

8-10g per kg

188
Q

how many carbohydrates per hour during exercise?

A

30-60g per hour in 8-16oz every 15min

189
Q

what should an athlete consume during an activity who wants to support endurance and formation of glycogen after the activity?

A

3-4g of carbs per 1g of protein; carbs improve muscle glycogen, minimize muscle damage, and support strength efforts

190
Q

how long after exercise does ingestion of carb/protein help rebuild glycogen?

A

within 30 minutes; ISSN recommends 8-10g per kg of carbs and 0.2g - 0.5g per kg of protein

191
Q

an athlete who skimps on carbs might have what side effects?

A

no fuel for neurons or red blood cells, poor muscle contraction (state of positive energy balance is required to prevent muscle catabolism for energy)

192
Q

nine essential AAs?

A

isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine, and histidine

193
Q

seven conditional AAs?

A

arginine, cysteine, glutamine, proline, taurine, glycine, tyrosine

194
Q

five inessential AAs?

A

alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, serine

195
Q

spelt, amaranth, and quinoa are what kind of food category?

A

grains

196
Q

tofu is what kind of food category for protein purposes?

A

legume

197
Q

what is the difference between a seed, nut, legume, and drupe?

A

Nuts have a hard outer shell that contains a dry fruit and one or two seeds; the shell does not separate when the fruit is ready to eat but must be practically pried off. Seeds are embryonic plants with a built in nutrient-rich seed coat; some seeds need their outer husk removed prior to eating and others do not – f the outer husk is removed, it can usually be easily split by hand and removed. Drupes are fruits having a hard interior seed that may be discarded, as with rock fruit, or eaten, as with almonds and walnuts. Legumes have pods (shells, if you will) that contain multiple fruit, like pea pods or peanuts. (nuts are the hard-shelled “fruit” of certain plants; seeds are a small edible plant enclosed in a seed coat. most nuts are seeds, but not all seeds are nuts.)

198
Q

what caloric level marks risks of anorexia?

A

15% lower than would be healthy for age/sex

199
Q

other than calorie restriction, what marks anorexia?

A

obsessive in attempts to adhere to rules

200
Q

night eating syndrome (recurring eating at night) is an example of what?

A

other specified feeding/eating disorder (OSFED)

201
Q

what are the physical signs and symptoms other than weight loss that may be associated with anorexia nervosa?

A

mineral/electrolyte imbalances, amenorrhea in females, decreased sex drive, fainting or dizziness, hypothermia, consistently feeling cold even in warm weather, bloating, constipation, food intolerances, fatigue, low energy level, changes in face (sunken eyes), development of fine hair on face/body

202
Q

side effects of bulimia?

A

knuckle calluses, tooth decay, bad breath; chronic sore throat, bloating, constipation, food intolerances; amenorrhea, fainting/fizziness; tiredness

203
Q

health conditions associated with bulimia?

A

dehydration, gastrointestinal reflux, heartburn, ulcers, slowed or irregular heart beat, electrolyte imbalances, heart failure

204
Q

less obvious conditions BED (binge eating) can lead to?

A

kidney failure, osteoarthritis, stroke, gallbladder disease, irregular menstrual cycle, skin disorders, heart disease, some cancers

205
Q

what are the stages in the trans theoretical model of change?

A

(1) precontemplation stage: athlete not thinking about making changes, do not see behavior as problematic, not ready for change. (2) contemplation stage: athlete recognizes problem, thinking about changing, usually getting ready for change (3) preparation stage: ready to make change, may actually begin small changes (4) action phase: making consistent apparent changes (5) maintenance: have made changes for sustained period, usually 6 months, working to prevent setbacks (6) termination: athlete has sustained maintenance for quite some time and has no desire to return to previous behavior

206
Q

what are the categories of ergogenic aids?

A

nutritional, pharmacologic, physiologic, psychologic

207
Q

what percent of athletes have taken ergogenic aids?

A

76% and nearly all athletes engaged in strength building

208
Q

how to dose creatine?

A

0.3g per kg for at least 3 days; 3g to 5g per day to maintain stores. an additional 0.1g/kg added to protein may facilitate resistance training.

209
Q

function of HMB?

A

prevention of proteolysis / protein breakdown

210
Q

function of carnisine and beta alanine?

A

buffering agent in skeletal muscle; beta alanine increases carnosine content which helps improve performance in intense exercise by neutralizing acid production.

211
Q

dose of beta alanine?

A

3g to 6g for anaerobic athletes

212
Q

what is the allowed olympic dose of caffeine?

A

up to 12 micrograms per ml of caffeine in urine; NCAA allows up to 15

213
Q

dosing of caffeine for performance enhancement?

A

3 to 6 milligrams of caffeine per kg of body weight

214
Q

what are the three categories of sports beverages?

A

isotonic (sodium and sugar in physiologically similar levels), hypertonic (more sodium/sugar than the body), and hypotonic (less sodium/sugar than the body)

215
Q

what athletic demographics should not take sodium supplements?

A

athletes with kidney disease or hypertension

216
Q

function of glutamine as an ergogenic?

A

preventing illness/infection and reducing muscle soreness

217
Q

function of wazy maize as an ergogenic?

A

high molecular weight carb that replenishes stores better than maltodextrin and dextrose. protein is also good with it.

218
Q

what is the carb amount and ingestion time athletes should take in sports drinks?

A

6-8% carbs, and 3oz-8oz every 10-20 minutes for activities >90min

219
Q

why is the phosphagen system the initial source of energy generation?

A

because of how long glycolysis and oxidative act – glycolysis has ten steps and requires an investment of energy to drive early steps of pathway

220
Q

why can the glycolytic system produce more ATP than CP?

A

because of the supply of glucose and glycogen

221
Q

what is a precondition for pyruvate going into mitochondria?

A

oxygen has to be available, otherwise will be converted to lactate

222
Q

how much ATP yield does oxidative system produce vs substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

oxidative: 90 percent, substrate level: 10 percent

223
Q

what is the gross energy production of a molecule of glucose?

A

40 ATP. this climbs to 463 ATP for one 18-carbon triglyceride molecule.

224
Q

during rest, how much ATP is produced by fat metabolism?

A

approximately 70 percent; 30 percent comes from the breakdown of carbohydrates

225
Q

in high intensity, what is the energy contribution breakdown?

A

nearly 100 percent comes from carbohydrates

226
Q

what does the law of mass action mean for bioenergetics?

A

the reactions will continue until a lower intensity energy system can take over or until the exercise ends

227
Q

what is the work-to-rest ratio for phosphagen?

A

5-10 seconds; work to rest 1:12 to 1:20 (90-100 percent power)

228
Q

work-to-rest ratio for glycolytic pathway?

A

15-30 seconds, work to rest ratio 1:3 to 1:5 (75-90 percent power)

229
Q

work-to-rest ratio for combined glycolytic and oxidative?

A

1-3 minutes, 1:3 to 1:4, 30-75 percent of power

230
Q

work-to-rest ratio for oxidative system?

A

greater than 3 min, work-to-rest ratio 1:1 to 1:3, 20-30 percent power

231
Q

other roles of growth hormone?

A

decreasing glucose utilization and glycogen synthesis, increasing availability of glucose and amino acids, increasing collagen synthesis and cartilage growth, enhancing immune cell function

232
Q

principle role of cortisol?

A

ensuring that energy is available. it increases the production of glucose in the liver and glycogen production in skeletal muscle.

233
Q

how to catecholamines affect muscle?

A

increase blood flow from vasodilation, elevate BP, increase muscle contraction rate, increase energy availability, enhance metabolic enzyme activity, increase testosterone secretion rates

234
Q

30 minutes, 1 hour, 3 hours – which of these are how long anabolic hormones are elevated post-exercise?

A

30 minutes

235
Q

how does hemoglobin affect cell reactions / muscle buffering?

A

regulates hydrogen ion concentration

236
Q

what are the biomechanics of heavy breathing?

A

requires movement of the ribs to allow for expansion of the lungs, elevated by the external intercostals, sternocleidomastoids, anterior serrati, and scaleni

237
Q

when does exchange of respiratory gases occur?

A

when oxygen diffuses from alveoli into pulmonary blood and carbon dioxide diffuses from blood into the alveoli

238
Q

risk of forceful muscle contraction?

A

hernia

239
Q

for athletes with blood flow issues, how do muscular contractions greater than 20 percent affect blood flow?

A

slows peripheral blood flow intra-set

240
Q

what is 1 MET?

A

resting oxygen consumption = 3.5 ml/kg per minute = 1 metabolic equivalent

241
Q

physiological adaptations to aerobic training?

A

increases in cardiovascular and muscular endurance, mitochondrial and capillary density, ventricular size and strength, metabolic stores of glycogen/ATP/triglycerides

242
Q

recovery time from FOR, NFOR, and overtraining?

A

FOR: days to weeks NFOR: weeks to months OTS: months or longer (sometimes 6-12+ months)

243
Q

physiological changes from parasympathetic OTS?

A

reduced glycogen availability, increased cortisol, greater sympathetic stress response, reduced levels of nocturnal and resting catecholamines

244
Q

an aerobic athlete wants to stop training or detrain. what kind of aerobic changes can they expect?

A

4-14% after 4 weeks of reduced training, 6-20% after more than 4 weeks (aerobic adaptations are most sensitive to inactivity)

245
Q

development v. maturation?

A

development = progression that occurs from fetus to adult. maturation = process of the body becoming fully functional.

246
Q

gold method of biological age testing?

A

x-rays or radiographs of the wrist or iliac crest to compare bone ossification to standard reference radiographs

247
Q

athletes with motive to achieve success like what kind of situation?

A

50/50 odds

248
Q

osteopenia is what BMD level?

A

-1 to -2.5 standard deviations of BMD of young adults

249
Q

osteoporosis is what BMD level?

A

2.5 standard deviations below that of young adults

250
Q

sarcopenia?

A

largely due to reduced physical activity – it’s loss of muscle mass and therefore strength and power.

251
Q

how can older clients offset risks, balance issues, and postural problems?

A

(1) preactivation: increased muscle activity before contact with ground (2) cocontraction: muscle activity immediately following contact with the ground

252
Q

safety recommendations for training in older adults?

A

same as usual; 5-10 min of warm up, stretching after exercise, allow 48-72hr between training

253
Q

how does estrogen affect body composition?

A

increases fat deposition

254
Q

risk of ACL tears in female athletes?

A

6x greater than males

255
Q

amenorrhea threshold?

A

3 months no menstrual cycle

256
Q

how is systematic desensitization performed?

A

verbalize situation that causes fear while using breathing and muscle relaxation techniques

257
Q

what are the three types of instruction?

A

(1) explicit instruction: most information in prescriptive manner, often step by step (the exercise guidebook is this). (2) guided discovery: less information but provides holistic description of overall movement. (3) discovery: no instructions, but presents the overall goal of a movement.

258
Q

types of feedback?

A

intrinsic feedback: provided by the body. augmented feedback: provided by external source, such as coach or technology.

259
Q

two types of augmented feedback?

A

knowledge of results: how well the athlete did, knowledge of performance: how the athlete performed the task

260
Q

situation where an athlete would want to avoid part practice?

A

archery or jump shot, where component movements are interrelated

261
Q

symptoms/characteristics of anxiety?

A

characteristics: worry, nervousness, apprehension, fear. symptoms: increased heart rate, upset stomach

262
Q

an athlete predisposed to be anxious would be said to have what?

A

trait anxiety

263
Q

why is reversal theory novel?

A

(1) the athete’s interpretation of arousal, not the amount felt, is important (2) the athlete has the ability to change negative interpretations of arousal

264
Q

what are the types of self confidence?

A

performing physical skills, psychological skills, learning potential, and confidence in one’s fitness/training

265
Q

what are the sources of self-efficacy?

A

(1) past performance examples, (2) watching/modeling successful athletes, (3) encouragement from coaches/teammates/anything, (4) physiological arousal and emotional/mood states

CSCS (Exercise Science section) (14 decks)

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