Ch. 8 - 10 Flashcards

1
Q

On page 263, the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, use, or ambient conditions is called what?

A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above

A

Degradation

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2
Q

On page 263, _____ is the flow or movement of a hazardous chemical through closures, seams, porous materials and pinholes.

A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above

A

Penetration

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3
Q

On page 263, the process by which a hazardous chemical moves through a given material on the molecular level.

A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above

A

Permeation

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4
Q

On page 263, permeation testing are normally based upon laboratory tests conducted with pure, undiluted test chemicals on clean, uncontaminated swatches of materials over a pre-established time period (often ___ to ___ hours). Virtually all testing is done at room temperature (____ degrees Fahrenheit).

A

2 - 6 hours; 70 degrees Fahrenheit

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5
Q

On page 264, the permeation theory 3 step process in order is:

Desorption

Diffusion

Adsorption

A
  1. Adsorption
  2. Diffusion
  3. Desorption
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6
Q

On page 264, _____ is defined as the time from the initial chemical attack on the outside of the material until its desorption and detection inside.

A

Breakthrough time

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7
Q

On page 264, ___ is the rate at which the chemical passes through the CPC material and is generally expressed as micrograms per square centimeter per minute.

A

Permeation rate

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8
Q

On page 264, 0.9 micrograms per square centimeter per minute is equal to approximately ____.

A

1 drop/hour

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9
Q

On page 264, permeation testing is over an established time period of ____ to __ hours and is virtually done at ambient room temperatures.

A

2 - 8 hours

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10
Q

On page 265, parameters that should be considered when evaluating and choosing CPC materials and barrier fabrics include the following:

A
  1. Chemical resistance
  2. Flammability
  3. Strength and Durability
  4. Overall Integrity
  5. Flexibility
  6. Temperature Characteristics
  7. Shelf-life
  8. Decontamination and Disposal
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11
Q

On page 266, _____ are protective clothing materials that are used and then discarded.

A. Chemical protective clothing
B. Limited-use materials
C. Reusable garments
D. All of the above

A

Limited Use materials

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12
Q

On page 267, NFPA 1991 applies to:

A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above

A

Vapor Protection

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13
Q

On page 267, NFPA 1992 applies to:

A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above

A

Liquid Splash Protection

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14
Q

On page 267, NFPA 1994 applies to:

A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above

A

Terrorism

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15
Q

On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving vapor or liquid chemical hazards where the concentrations are at or above IDLH concentrations.

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A

Class 2

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16
Q

On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving low levels of vapor or liquid chemical hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH concentrations, permitting the use of APRs and PAPRs.

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A

Class 3

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17
Q

On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving biological hazards or radiological particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH concentrations, permitting the use of APRs and PAPRs.

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A

Class 4

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18
Q

On page 268, Class ___ ensembles were removed from NFPA 1994 and offer the highest level of protection and are intended for use in worst-case circumstances.

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A

Class 1

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19
Q

On page 272, individuals must meet the fit testing and medical requirements as outline by OSHA ________ - respiratory protection.

A

29 CFR 1910.134

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20
Q

On page 273, NIOSH certifications limits the maximum hose lengths of Supplied Air Respirators (SARs) from the source to ___ feet.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

A

300 ft

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21
Q

On page 277, _____ involves the use of surgical gloves under a work glove. It permits doffing of the work glove without compromising exposure protection.

A. Over gloving
B. Double gloving
C. Single gloving
D. Under gloving

A

Double gloving

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22
Q

On page 277, ______ is the wearing of a second glove over the work glove for additional chemical and abrasion protection during lifting and moving operations.

A. Over gloving
B. Double gloving
C. Single gloving
D. Under gloving

A

Over gloving

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23
Q

On page 277, in general, size ____ are commonly used for single or double gloves, while sizes ____ and ___ are typically used as over gloves for additional strength and chemical protection.

A

9 ; 11 - 12

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24
Q

On page 279, all chemical vapor suits are sealed by a closure assembly. The ____ is the most common.

A

Pressure sealing zipper

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25
Q

On page 280, thermal energy can be encountered in 3 forms:

A

Ambient temperature

Conductive heat

Radiant heat

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26
Q

On page 282, when chemical vapor protection is required, at least ___ suits will be needed to support entry, and back up operations.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

4

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27
Q

On page 282, work mission duration should be calculated based upon the following factors:

A

Entry time

Exit time

Decon time

Safety Factor

Remaining time

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28
Q

On page 282, work mission duration should be calculated based upon the following factors:

Entry time

Exit time

Decon time (assume minimum of __ minutes)

Safety Factor (___% of air supply or expected duration)

Remaining time

A

5 minutes; 25%

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29
Q

On page 283, as a rule, one support person is necessary for each entry person. Donning times in excess of __ minutes should be considered excessive.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

10 minutes

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30
Q

On page 283, hand signals for “are you ok?” are:

A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down

A

Thumbs up or down

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31
Q

On page 283, hand signals for “out of air?” are:

A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down

A

Hand up to throat

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32
Q

On page 283, hand signals for “in-suit emergency?” are:

A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down

A

Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave

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33
Q

On page 294, tightness tests are normally conducted upon manufacture of the suit and annually thereafter, using protocols established by ASTM ________.

A

ASTM F1052

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34
Q

On page 294, tightness tests are normally conducted upon manufacture of the suit and ______ thereafter, using protocols established by ASTM F1052.

A

Annually

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35
Q

On page 294, Breakthrough time is defined as the time from the initial chemical attack on the outside of the material until its desorption and detection inside. The units of time are usually expressed in minutes or hours, and a typical test runs up to a maximum of __ hours or ___ minutes.

A

8 hours; 480 minutes

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36
Q

On page 298, the key factors for operational considerations for selecting specialized protective clothing are:

A

Hostile environment

Tasks to perform

Type of protective clothing

Capabilities of user

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37
Q

On page 303, ____ + ____ = information.

A

Data + facts

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38
Q

On page 303, data + facts = ____.

A

information

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39
Q

On page 304, there are 4 basic groups of information sources that should be immediately accessible from the incident scene:

A

Facility Emergency Response Plans

Pre-incident tactical plans

Published Emergency Response References

Shipping Papers

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40
Q

On page 305, NFPA _______ is the standard for pre-incident planning.

A

NFPA 1620

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41
Q

On page 307, References are generally divided into the following categories:

A

Reference manuals or guidebooks

Technical information centers

Hazardous materials databases

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42
Q

On page 307, ___ works the first time - every time.

A

Books

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43
Q

On page 308, Primary functions and tasks assigned to the Hazmat Group include:

A

Safety

Entry/backup

Decon

Site access control

Information/Research

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44
Q

On page 308, Secondary functions and tasks assigned to the Hazmat Group include:

A

Medical

Resource

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45
Q

On page 308, the most simple and reliable method of coordinating information between the various HazMat Group functions is to use the _____ system.

A

Checklist

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46
Q

On page 311, agency or organization providing personnel, services, or other resources to the agency with direct responsibility for incident management is called what?

A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above

A

Assisting Agency

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47
Q

On page 311, an agency supplying assistance other than direct operational or support functions or resources to the incident management effort is called what?

A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above

A

Cooperating Agency

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48
Q

On page 311, a legally constituted, non-governmental organization that may work cooperatively with government is called what?

A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above

A

Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)

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49
Q

On page 311, when multi-agency responses require long periods of operation to resolve the incident, a _____ may be established to manage the expanding information requirements.

A

Joint Information Center (JIC)

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50
Q

On page 314, most resource coordination problems fall into 4 categories:

A

Failure to understand

Failure to anticipate potential problems

Inadequate training

Communications and Personality problems

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51
Q

On page 312, ______ resources differ from equipment resources in that they are usually considered expendable.

A. Human
B. Supply
C. Equipment
D. None of the above

A

supply

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52
Q

On page 312, _______ resources are items that are reusable.

A. Human
B. Supply
C. Equipment
D. None of the above

A

equipment

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53
Q

On page 322, producing good outcomes at hazmat incidents depends on the IC analyzing and visualizing events at the emergency scene described in 3 phases:

A

Past events

Present events

Future events

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54
Q

On page 323, 5 factors of future events are:

A

Magnitude

Occurrence

Timing

Effects

Location

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55
Q

On page 323, preventing a future event from occurring by influencing the current events is what factor?

A. Effects
B. Location 
C. Magnitude 
D. Occurrence 
E. Timing
A

Occurrence

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56
Q

On page 323, trying to change when an event happens and or how long it lasts is what factor?

A. Effects
B. Location 
C. Magnitude 
D. Occurrence 
E. Timing
A

Timing

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57
Q

On page 323, trying to change where the next event occurs is what factor?

A. Effects
B. Location 
C. Magnitude 
D. Occurrence 
E. Timing
A

Location

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58
Q

On page 323, trying to keep the incident as small or limited as possible is what factor?

A. Effects
B. Location 
C. Magnitude 
D. Occurrence 
E. Timing
A

Magnitude

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59
Q

On page 323, trying to reduce the size and or effects of an event is what factor?

A. Effects
B. Location 
C. Magnitude 
D. Occurrence 
E. Timing
A

Effects

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60
Q

On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:

  1. You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events
  2. _________________
A

The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome

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61
Q

On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:

  1. ______________
  2. The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome
A

You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events

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62
Q

On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:

  1. ______________
  2. ______________
A
  1. The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome
  2. You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events
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63
Q

On page 324, hazmat operations usually begin in the ___ mode.

A. Nonintervention
B. Offensive
C. Defensive
D. None of the above

A

Defensive

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64
Q

On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:

  1. ________
  2. The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
  3. Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.
A

The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks

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65
Q

On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:

  1. The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks
  2. __________
  3. Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.
A

The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers

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66
Q

On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:

  1. The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks
  2. The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
  3. _______________
A

Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.

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67
Q

On page 326, the _______ form - Site Safety and Control Plan is a useful guide and template for an IC to structure mitigation efforts.

A

ICS 208 form

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68
Q

On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

A
  1. Understand the nature of the problem
  2. Identify your resources
  3. Develop Incident Objectives
  4. Develop tactical objectives
  5. Identify an operational period
  6. Identify players
  7. Identify emergency procedures
  8. Conduct the safety and operational briefing
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69
Q

On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps; Put it in order:

Develop Incident Objectives 
Understand the nature of the problem 
Identify an operational period
Identify your resources 
Conduct the safety and operational briefing
Develop tactical objectives 
Identify emergency procedures 
Identify players
A
  1. Understand the nature of the problem
  2. Identify your resources
  3. Develop Incident Objectives
  4. Develop tactical objectives
  5. Identify an operational period
  6. Identify players
  7. Identify emergency procedures
  8. Conduct the safety and operational briefing
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70
Q

On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:

  1. Understand the nature of the problem
  2. _______
  3. Develop Incident Objectives
  4. __________
  5. Identify Operational Period
  6. ____________
  7. Identify Emergency Procedures
  8. ____________
A
  1. Understand the nature of the problem
  2. Identify your resources
  3. Develop Incident Objectives
  4. Develop tactical objectives
  5. Identify an operational period
  6. Identify players
  7. Identify emergency procedures
  8. Conduct the safety and operational briefing
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71
Q

On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:

  1. __________
  2. Identify your resources
  3. __________
  4. Develop tactical objectives
  5. _________
  6. Identify players
  7. ___________
  8. Conduct the safety and operational briefing
A
  1. Understand the nature of the problem
  2. Identify your resources
  3. Develop Incident Objectives
  4. Develop tactical objectives
  5. Identify an operational period
  6. Identify players
  7. Identify emergency procedures
  8. Conduct the safety and operational briefing
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72
Q

On page 331, examples of tactical options that can be used to buy time include:

A

Barriers

Distance

Time

Techniques

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73
Q

On page 331, the “first law of hot zone operations” are:

A
Trained to play
Dressed to play
Buddy System
Backup capability 
Emergency decon capability
IC's approval
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74
Q

On page 331, hazmat rescue problems fall into 3 general categories:

A
  1. Searching for people that are exposed and harmed by the hazmat
  2. Rescue victims who are disoriented or disabled
  3. Planning and executing technical rescue
75
Q

On page 333, some rescuers have become victims because they either:

A

Underestimated hazards and risks

Took action without proper equipment

Not properly trained

Failed to understand the emergency response timeline

76
Q

On page 333, without an oxygen supply to the brain, clinical death occur in ___ minutes, and biological death in ____ minutes.

A

3 minutes; 5 minutes

77
Q

On page 333, without oxygen supply to the brain, clinical death occurs in ____ minutes.

A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes

A

3 minutes

78
Q

On page 333, without oxygen supply to the brain, biological death occurs in ____ minutes.

A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes

A

5 minutes

79
Q

On page 334, according to OSHA the majority of the fatalities in confined spaces incidents occur from entrapment in:

A

Toxic atmospheres

Asphyxiating atmospheres

Physical hazards

80
Q

On page 336, the following activities can help maintain site discipline until the problem has been eliminated and the incident safely terminated:

A

Maintain an ISO

Use Checklists

Enforce isolation perimeter security and hazard control zones

Establish crew rotation schedule

81
Q

On page 336, as a general rule, ______ tactics expose personnel to less risk than _______ tactics.

A. containment, confinement
B. Offensive, defensive
C. Defensive, nonintervention
D. confinement, containment

A

Confinement, containment

82
Q

On page 336, the confinement tactics are:

A

Absorption

Adsorption

Covering

Damming

Diking

Dilution

Diversion

Dispersion

Retention

Vapor dispersion

Vapor suppression

83
Q

On page 336, the chemical process in which a sorbate interacts with a solid sorbate surface is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Adsorption

84
Q

On page 337, the physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Damming

85
Q

On page 337, is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground used to control the movement of liquids, sludge, solids, or other materials is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Diking

86
Q

On page 336, the physical process of absorbing or “picking up” a liquid hazardous material to prevent enlargement of the contaminated area is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Absorption

87
Q

On page 336, is a physical method of confinement and is typically a temporary measure until more effective control tactics can be implemented is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Covering

88
Q

On page 338, the chemical method by which a water-soluble solution, usually a corrosive, is diluted by adding large volumes of water to the spill is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Dilution

89
Q

On page 338, a chemical method of confinement by which certain chemical and biological agents are used to break up the material involved in liquid spills on water is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Dispersion

90
Q

On page 339, a physical method of confinement by which a liquid is temporarily contained in an area where it can be absorbed, neutralized or picked up for proper disposal.

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Retention

91
Q

On page 338, is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground or placed in a waterway to intentionally control the movement of a hazardous material into an area where it will pose less harm to the community and the environment is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Diversion

92
Q

On page 339, a physical method of confinement where water spray or fans are used to move vapors away from the surface areas of the product is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Vapor Dispersion

93
Q

On page 340, the physical method of confinement to reduce or eliminate the vapors emanating from a spilled or released material is what type of confinement tactic?

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Vapor Suppression

94
Q

On page 336, operationally, absorbents are effective when dealing with liquids of _________ gallons.

A. less than 55 gallons
B. more than 55 gallons
C. equal to 55 gallons
D. None of the above

A

less than 55 gallons

95
Q

On page 337, the two types of dams are:

A

Overflow dam

Underflow dam

96
Q

On page 337, the ____ dam is used to trap floating lighter than water materials behind the dam.

A

underflow dam

97
Q

On page 337, the ____ dam is used to trap sinking heavier than water materials behind the dam.

A

overflow dam

98
Q

On page 337, ______ are most effective when the y can be built quickly.

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Diking

99
Q

On page 338, slow moving or heavy materials should be confined by use of a ________ dike.

A. Square dike
B. V-shaped dike
C. Circle dike
D. Rectangle dike

A

Circle dike

100
Q

On page 338, faster moving products will require a ______ dike located in the best available low lying area.

A. Square dike
B. V-shaped dike
C. Circle dike
D. Rectangle dike

A

V-shaped dike

101
Q

On page 338, operationally, dikes are normally a ____ measure and can begin to leak after a while.

A

temporary

102
Q

On page 338, 4 important criteria that must be met before dilution is attempted. These include determining in advance that the substance:

A

Not water reactive

Not generate a toxic gas with water

Not form any kind of solid or precipitate

is Water-soluble

103
Q

On page 338, ______ should only be attempted on liquid and solid substances that are corrosives and only when all other reasonable methods of mitigation and removal have proven unacceptable.

A. Absorption 
B. Vapor Suppression 
C. Dispersion
D. Diversion
E. Diking
F. Dilution 
G. Retention 
H. Adsorption
I. Covering 
J. Vapor dispersion 
K. Damming
A

Dilution

104
Q

On page 338, alkaline spill of 1 gallon with a PH of 14, connect the gallons to the PH:

10,000 2

100 5

10 3

1000 1

100,000 6

1,000,000 4

A

10 gallons - 1 pH

100 gallons - 2 pH

1000 gallons - 3 pH

10,000 gallons - 4 pH

100,000 gallons - 5 pH

1,000,000 gallons - 6 pH

105
Q

On page 338, Acid spill of 1 gallon with a PH of 0, connect the gallons to the PH:

10,000 13

100 10

10 9

1000 8

100,000 11

1,000,000 12

A

10 gallons - 13 pH

100 gallons - 12 pH

1000 gallons - 11 pH

10,000 gallons - 10 pH

100,000 gallons - 9 pH

1,000,000 gallons - 8 pH

106
Q

On page 339, rule of thumb for bringing the pH to 6 - 8:
Steps 1 - 5 put them in order:

Add 3 zeros to the beginning gallonage
Determine the pH of spill
Determine the pH you want to dilute the spill to
Determine the size of spill to be diluted in gallons
Determine the number of dilution steps between the starting PH and the ending pH

A

Step 1: Determine the size of spill to be diluted in gallons

Step 2: Determine the pH of spill

Step 3: Determine the pH you want to dilute the spill to

Step 4: Determine the number of dilution steps between the starting PH and the ending pH

Step 5: Add 3 zeros to the beginning gallonage

107
Q

On page 341, when planning leak-control tasks, keep the time-tested ____ principle in mind.

A

KISS (keep it simple, stupid.)

108
Q

On page 340, situations well suited for aggressive leak control ____ strategies include:

  1. The hazmat is a vapor or gas and threatens to migrate away from its container
  2. The hazmat is in a solid, powder form and weather conditions threaten to carry it from its original site
  3. Defensive options have been attempted but have not produced the desired results
  4. The situation is getting worse and increasing in risk as time progresses

A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Nonintervention
D. None of the above

A

Offensive

109
Q

On page 341, the containment tactics are:

A

Neutralization

Overpacking

Patching/Plugging

Solidification

Pressure Isolation and Reduction

Vacuuming

110
Q

On page 341, the chemical method of containment by which a hazmat is neutralized by applying a second material to the original spill that will chemically react with it to form a less harmful substance is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Neutralization

111
Q

On page 342, the physical method of containment by which a leaking drum, container or cylinder is placed inside a larger undamaged and compatible container is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Overpacking

112
Q

On page 344, the physical method of containment that uses chemically compatible patches and plugs to reduce or temporarily stop the flow of materials from small container holes, rips, tears, or gashes is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Patching/Plugging

113
Q

On page 346, a physical or chemical method of containment by which the internal pressure closed container is reduced is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Pressure Isolation and Reduction

114
Q

On page 350, the chemical method of containment whereby a liquid substance is chemically treated so that a solid material results is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Solidification

115
Q

On page 350, the physical method of containment by which a hazardous material is placed in a chemically compatible container by simply vacuuming it up is what type of containment tactic?

A. Overpacking 
B. Solidification 
C. Neutralization 
D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction 
E. Patching/Plugging 
F. Vacuuming
A

Vacuuming

116
Q

On page 341, before initiating any neutralization techniques, the following conditions should be satisfied:

A

Hazmat is identified

Physical and chemical properties have been researched properly

Spill has been controlled and confined to prevent runoff after the application of the neutralizing agent

117
Q

On page 341, the most widely favored neutralizing agents from an environmental perspective are sodium sesquicarbonate for ___ spills and acetic acid for ___ spills.

A. alkali; acid
B. caustic; alkali
C. acid; alkali
D. caustic; alkali

A

Acid; Alkali

118
Q

On page 342, methods of placing a leaking drum into an overpack are:

A

Inverted method

Slide-in method

Rolling slide-in or V-roll method

119
Q

On page 342, the _____ method is where you slip the compatible overpack container over the leaking drum.

A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above

A

Inverted method

120
Q

On page 342, the _____ method can be used if the leaking drum is in a horizontal position.

A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above

A

Slide-in method

121
Q

On page 342, the _____ method is a variation of the slide-in method that can be used if space permits and if the leaking drum is in a horizontal position.

A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above

A

Rolling slide or V-roll method

122
Q

On page 346, to properly organize a patching operation, consider the following:

A

Select a patching device at least half a size larger than the breach

Ensure the patch is compatible with hazmat

Patching operations should be planned with air supply operating times in mind

If the patching operation is complex and time allows, consider having the entry team walkthrough the patching operation in the cold zone

123
Q

On page 346, to properly organize a patching operation, consider the following:

Select a patching device at least _____ a size larger than the breach.

A. Quarter
B. Half
C. Twice
D. Thrice

A

Half

124
Q

On page 347, ______ leaks are among the most common leaks found on cargo tank trucks.

A. Splits, tears, punctures, and irregularly shaped holes
B. Dome cover leaks
C. Pressure relief devices, vents, and rupture disks
D. Piping and Valve leaks

A

Piping and Valve leaks

125
Q

On page 350, _____ is a process by which shaped explosive charges are placed by explosives demolition specialists on a flammable container, such as a pressurized tank car, to cut a hole in it, thereby allowing the contents to flow into a pit constructed adjacent to the breached car where the product can safely burn off.

A. Flaring
B. Venting 
C. Scrubbing 
D. Hot tapping 
E. Isolating valves 
F. Isolating pumps
G. Vent and Burn
A

Vent and burn

126
Q

On page 350, during a vent and burn operation, when dealing with pressurized tank cars, two holes are normally required, hole #1 is at the ___ end of the tank car and is designed to relieve the internal pressure so that the tank car will not rocket, while hole #2 is at a ___ point and is designed to allow the liquid contents to drain into a containment area.

A

high end; low point

127
Q

On page 355, pressure vessels, closed containers, piping systems, or critical support structures exposed to direct flame impingement is what type of exposure?

A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above

A

Primary

128
Q

On page 355, pressure vessels, closed containers, piping systems, or critical support structures exposed to radiant heat is what type of exposure?

A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above

A

Secondary

129
Q

On page 355, noncritical exposures without life safety concerns is what type of exposure?

A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above

A

Tertiary

130
Q

On page 356, NFPA 11 recommends an application time of __ minutes for flammable liquid spill fires and ___ minutes for Class I flammable liquid storage tank fires.

A. 10 minutes; 60 minutes
B. 15 minutes; 65 minutes
C. 15 minutes; 60 minutes
D. 10 minutes; 65 minutes

A

15 minutes; 65 minutes

131
Q

On page 356, synthetic foam consisting of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with high boiling point solvents and water is what type of foam concentrate?

A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)

132
Q

On page 356, foam that when applied to a polar solvent fuel, they will often create a polymeric membrane rather than a film over the fuel that separates the water in the foam blanket from the attack of the polar solvent is what type of foam concentrate?

A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF or ARC)
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)

A

Alcohol Resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF or ARC)

133
Q

On page 356, combination of protein-based foam derived from protein foam concentrates and fluorochemical surfactants is what type of foam concentrate?

A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)

A

Fluoroprotein foam

134
Q

On page 356, the shelf life of a Fluoroprotein foam is approximately ___ years.

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years

A

10 years

135
Q

On page 357, the most common ethanol blend being transported today by rail tank car is ____ or denatured alcohol.

A. E87
B. E89
C. E91
D. E95

A

E95

136
Q

On page 357, The primary difference between the two fuels are that ethanol is a ______ and gasoline is a ______.

A. polar solvent; hydrocarbon
B. hydrocarbon; polar solvent
C. polar solute; hydrocarbon
D. None of the above

A

Polar solvent; hydrocarbon

137
Q

On page 360, foam concentrate requirements can be determine by the following process:

A

Determine the type of fuel

Determine the surface area

Determine the recommended NFPA 11 foam application rate

Determine the duration of foam application

Determine the quantity of foam concentrate required

138
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Flammable liquid spills = ___ minutes

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

139
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Storage tank with flash point of 100 - 200 degree Fahrenheit = ___ minutes

A. 45 minutes 
B. 50 minutes 
C. 55 minutes 
D. 60 minutes 
E. 65 minutes 

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

50 minutes

140
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Storage tank with flash point of < 100 degree Fahrenheit = ___ minutes

A. 45 minutes 
B. 50 minutes 
C. 55 minutes 
D. 60 minutes 
E. 65 minutes
A

65 minutes

141
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Storage tank with crude oil = ___ minutes

A. 45 minutes 
B. 50 minutes 
C. 55 minutes 
D. 60 minutes 
E. 65 minutes
A

65 minutes

142
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Storage tank with polar solvents = ___ minutes

A. 45 minutes 
B. 50 minutes 
C. 55 minutes 
D. 60 minutes 
E. 65 minutes
A

65 minutes

143
Q

On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:

Storage tank with seal application = ___ minutes

A. 20 minutes 
B. 45 minutes 
C. 50 minutes 
D. 55 minutes 
E. 60 minutes 
F. 65 minutes
A

20 minutes

144
Q

On page 360, formula to calculate storage tank area:

A

(.785) (diameter squared) or (0.8) (diameter squared)

145
Q

On page 360, formula to calculate dike or rectangular area around the tank is:

A

Length x Width

146
Q

On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:

  1. atmospheric storage tanks up to 100 ft diameter require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm 
B. 250 gpm
C. 500 gpm 
D. 750 gpm 
E. 1000 gpm 
F. 1500 gpm 
G. 2000 gpm
A

500 gpm

147
Q

On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:

  1. atmospheric storage tanks from 100 ft diameter to 150 ft diameter require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm 
B. 250 gpm
C. 500 gpm 
D. 750 gpm 
E. 1000 gpm 
F. 1500 gpm 
G. 2000 gpm
A

1000 gpm

148
Q

On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:

  1. atmospheric storage tanks 100 - 150 ft diameters require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm 
B. 250 gpm
C. 500 gpm 
D. 750 gpm 
E. 1000 gpm 
F. 1500 gpm 
G. 2000 gpm
A

2000 gpm

149
Q

On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:

  1. Pressure vessels should have a minimum of ____ gpm applied at the point of fire impingement.
A. 100 gpm 
B. 250 gpm
C. 500 gpm 
D. 750 gpm 
E. 1000 gpm 
F. 1500 gpm 
G. 2000 gpm
A

500 gpm

150
Q

On page 366, propane, butane, natural gas, compressed natural gas (CNG), liquified natural gas (LNG), liquid hydrogen and methane are considered:

A. Flammable and Corrosive gases 
B. Flammable and Reactive gases
C. Common Flammable gases
D. Flammable and Toxic gases
E. "Fooler" gases
A

Common Flammable gases

151
Q

On page 366, hydrogen sulfide, ethylene oxide, phosphine, and arsine are considered:

A. Flammable and Corrosive gases 
B. Flammable and Reactive gases
C. Common Flammable gases
D. Flammable and Toxic gases
E. "Fooler" gases
A

Flammable and Toxic gases

152
Q

On page 366, Isopropyl chloroacetate, and 1 amino-2 propanol are considered:

A. Flammable and Corrosive gases 
B. Flammable and Reactive gases
C. Common Flammable gases
D. Flammable and Toxic gases
E. "Fooler" gases
A

Flammable and Corrosive gases

153
Q

On page 366, Butadiene, acetylene, and silane are considered:

A. Flammable and Corrosive gases 
B. Flammable and Reactive gases
C. Common Flammable gases
D. Flammable and Toxic gases
E. "Fooler" gases
A

Flammable and Reactive gases

154
Q

On page 366, Anhydrous Ammonia are considered:

A. Flammable and Corrosive gases 
B. Flammable and Reactive gases
C. Common Flammable gases
D. Flammable and Toxic gases
E. "Fooler" gases
A

“Fooler” gases

155
Q

On page 367, tactical priorities for managing a flammable gas fire are to: Place in Order:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
  • Control and extinguish secondary fires
  • Reduce the operating pressure of the line feeding the fire
  • Isolate the flammable gas source feeding the fire
  • Protect primary and secondary exposures to the fire
  • Permit the fire to self-extinguish and consume residual flammable gas inside the vessel or piping system
A
  1. Protect primary and secondary exposures to the fire
  2. Isolate the flammable gas source feeding the fire
  3. Reduce the operating pressure of the line feeding the fire
  4. Permit the fire to self-extinguish and consume residual flammable gas inside the vessel or piping system
  5. Control and extinguish secondary fires
156
Q

On page 367, pressure-fed flammable gas fires may produce direct flame impingement on nearby vessels and cause catastrophic tank failure within ___ to ____ minutes of exposure.

A. 5 - 10 minutes
B. 5 - 15 minutes
C. 5 - 20 minutes
D. 5 - 30 minutes

A

5 - 20 minutes

157
Q

On page 367, BLEVEs of bulk containers and process vessels can produce severe fire and fragmentation risks within ____ ft.

A. 1000 ft
B. 2000 ft
C. 3000 ft
D. 4000 ft
E. 5000 ft
A

3000 ft

158
Q

On page 368, a ________ is defined as a container failure with a release of energy, often rapidly and violently, which is accompanied by a release of gas to the atmosphere and propulsion of the container or container pieces due to an overpressure rupture.

A. Explosion
B. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE)
C. Detonation
D. Eruption

A

BLEVE

159
Q

On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:

  1. Instrumentation lines can begin to fail within __ minutes.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

5 minutes

160
Q

On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:

  1. Pressure vessels and other closed containers can begin to fail within _____ minutes.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

10 minutes

161
Q

On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:

  1. Structural steel will begin to fail within _____ minutes.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

162
Q

On page 370, LNG is a cryogenic liquid stored and transported at ______ degrees Fahrenheit.

A. -300 degrees
B. - 260 degrees
C. - 250 degrees
D. - 270 degrees

A
  • 260 degrees Fahrenheit
163
Q

On page 370, LNG vapor is ignitable in the ____ to _____% range.

A. 1 - 5%
B. 5 - 10% 
C. 5 - 15%
D. 10 - 15%
E. 10 - 20%
A

5-15%

164
Q

On page 378, Golden Rule of Transfers are:

A
  1. If you take something out of a container, you must put something else back in
  2. If you put something into a container, you must take something else out
  3. No matter how bad, Rules 1 and 2 do not change
165
Q

On page 378, liquid transfers would be used on _____, ________, and __________ cargo tank trucks.

A

MC-306/DOT 406, MC-307/DOT 407, MC-312/DOT412

166
Q

On page 378, the 3 primary methods of liquid product transfer are:

A

Gravity flow

Pump transfers

Pressure Transfers

167
Q

On page 379, ____ is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together by means of a conductor.

A

Bonding

168
Q

On page 379, ____ is the process of connecting one or more conductive objects to the ground through an earthing electrode.

A

Grounding

169
Q

On page 379, in order for static electricity to act as an ignition source, 4 conditions must be fulfilled:

A
  1. Effective means of static generation
  2. Means of accumulating the static charge buildup
  3. Spark discharge of adequate energy
  4. Spark must occur in a flammable mixture
170
Q

On page 379, the National Electrical Code (NEC) notes that the ground level should be _____ ohms resistance for residential purposes.

A. < 25 ohms
B. >25 ohms
C. <20 ohms
D. >30 ohms

A

< 25 ohms

171
Q

On page 379, a standard of _______ ohms is used by some petroleum industry organizations.

A. < 25 ohms
B. <20 ohms
C. < 15 ohms
D. < 10 ohms

A

< 10 ohms

172
Q

On page 379, in al bonding operations involving appliances, the first connection must always start at the _____ unit.

A. undamaged
B. damaged
C. appliance
D. grounded

A

damaged unit

173
Q

On page 381, 3 primary methods of liquid product transfer:

A
  1. Equalize pressure and pump the liquid
  2. Product displacement with compressors
  3. Pressure displacement
174
Q

On page 381, MC-331 cargo tank trucks contain:

A. liquified gases
B. Cryogenic liquids
C. Natural gas
D. Petroleum

A

Liquified gases

175
Q

On page 381, MC-338 cargo tank trucks contain:

A. Liquified gases
B. Cryogenic liquids
C. Natural gas
D. Petroleum

A

Cryogenic liquids

176
Q

On page 382, vacuum trucks are designed for specific operating pressures up to ____ psi.

A. 15 psi
B. 20 psi
C. 25 psi
D. 30 psi

A

25 psi

177
Q

On page 382, Strict control of ignition sources should be maintained within ___ ft of the vacuum truck, the discharge of the vacuum pump, or any other vapor source.

A. 50 ft
B. 100 ft
C. 150 ft
D. 200 ft

A

100 ft

178
Q

On page 383, factors that responders must consider before approving a lifting or up-righting operation include:

A
  1. Damage Assessment

2. Qualified and Experienced operators to perform lift

179
Q

On page 383, for a safe lift with a mobile crane, at least 7 items of information are needed:

A
  1. Vehicle leveled
  2. Outriggers properly extended or retracted
  3. Extended riggers supported by stable ground
  4. Angle of the boom
  5. Boom and jib length
  6. Position the boom will be during lift
  7. Weight of load
180
Q

On page 383, general guidelines for emergency responders to consider while overseeing and approving a cargo tank truck up-righting operation:

A
  1. Offload or upright?
  2. Use enough lift
  3. Stabilize vehicle
  4. Position all lifting equipment
  5. Upright the damaged container
181
Q

On page 385, to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene,:

A
  1. Assess number of victims and property damage
  2. Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
  3. Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it
182
Q

On page 386, steps to collect and process evidence:

A
  1. Take photographs of evidence
  2. Sketch, mark, and label the location of the evidence
  3. Place evidence in appropriate containers
  4. Tag evidence
  5. Record the time when the evidence was found, the location where it was found and the name of the person who found it
  6. Keep a constant watch on evidence
  7. Preserve chain of custody in handling the evidence
183
Q

On page 385, to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene,: Place in order:

  • Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
  • Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it
  • Assess number of victims and property damage
A
  1. Assess number of victims and property damage
  2. Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
  3. Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it