Ch. 8 - 10 Flashcards
On page 263, the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, use, or ambient conditions is called what?
A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above
Degradation
On page 263, _____ is the flow or movement of a hazardous chemical through closures, seams, porous materials and pinholes.
A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above
Penetration
On page 263, the process by which a hazardous chemical moves through a given material on the molecular level.
A. Penetration
B. Permeation
C. Degradation
D. None of the above
Permeation
On page 263, permeation testing are normally based upon laboratory tests conducted with pure, undiluted test chemicals on clean, uncontaminated swatches of materials over a pre-established time period (often ___ to ___ hours). Virtually all testing is done at room temperature (____ degrees Fahrenheit).
2 - 6 hours; 70 degrees Fahrenheit
On page 264, the permeation theory 3 step process in order is:
Desorption
Diffusion
Adsorption
- Adsorption
- Diffusion
- Desorption
On page 264, _____ is defined as the time from the initial chemical attack on the outside of the material until its desorption and detection inside.
Breakthrough time
On page 264, ___ is the rate at which the chemical passes through the CPC material and is generally expressed as micrograms per square centimeter per minute.
Permeation rate
On page 264, 0.9 micrograms per square centimeter per minute is equal to approximately ____.
1 drop/hour
On page 264, permeation testing is over an established time period of ____ to __ hours and is virtually done at ambient room temperatures.
2 - 8 hours
On page 265, parameters that should be considered when evaluating and choosing CPC materials and barrier fabrics include the following:
- Chemical resistance
- Flammability
- Strength and Durability
- Overall Integrity
- Flexibility
- Temperature Characteristics
- Shelf-life
- Decontamination and Disposal
On page 266, _____ are protective clothing materials that are used and then discarded.
A. Chemical protective clothing
B. Limited-use materials
C. Reusable garments
D. All of the above
Limited Use materials
On page 267, NFPA 1991 applies to:
A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above
Vapor Protection
On page 267, NFPA 1992 applies to:
A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above
Liquid Splash Protection
On page 267, NFPA 1994 applies to:
A. Liquid Splash protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Terrorism
D. None of the above
Terrorism
On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving vapor or liquid chemical hazards where the concentrations are at or above IDLH concentrations.
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Class 2
On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving low levels of vapor or liquid chemical hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH concentrations, permitting the use of APRs and PAPRs.
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Class 3
On page 268, Class ___ ensembles provided limited protection to emergency first responder at Terroism incidents involving biological hazards or radiological particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH concentrations, permitting the use of APRs and PAPRs.
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Class 4
On page 268, Class ___ ensembles were removed from NFPA 1994 and offer the highest level of protection and are intended for use in worst-case circumstances.
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Class 1
On page 272, individuals must meet the fit testing and medical requirements as outline by OSHA ________ - respiratory protection.
29 CFR 1910.134
On page 273, NIOSH certifications limits the maximum hose lengths of Supplied Air Respirators (SARs) from the source to ___ feet.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
300 ft
On page 277, _____ involves the use of surgical gloves under a work glove. It permits doffing of the work glove without compromising exposure protection.
A. Over gloving
B. Double gloving
C. Single gloving
D. Under gloving
Double gloving
On page 277, ______ is the wearing of a second glove over the work glove for additional chemical and abrasion protection during lifting and moving operations.
A. Over gloving
B. Double gloving
C. Single gloving
D. Under gloving
Over gloving
On page 277, in general, size ____ are commonly used for single or double gloves, while sizes ____ and ___ are typically used as over gloves for additional strength and chemical protection.
9 ; 11 - 12
On page 279, all chemical vapor suits are sealed by a closure assembly. The ____ is the most common.
Pressure sealing zipper
On page 280, thermal energy can be encountered in 3 forms:
Ambient temperature
Conductive heat
Radiant heat
On page 282, when chemical vapor protection is required, at least ___ suits will be needed to support entry, and back up operations.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
4
On page 282, work mission duration should be calculated based upon the following factors:
Entry time
Exit time
Decon time
Safety Factor
Remaining time
On page 282, work mission duration should be calculated based upon the following factors:
Entry time
Exit time
Decon time (assume minimum of __ minutes)
Safety Factor (___% of air supply or expected duration)
Remaining time
5 minutes; 25%
On page 283, as a rule, one support person is necessary for each entry person. Donning times in excess of __ minutes should be considered excessive.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
10 minutes
On page 283, hand signals for “are you ok?” are:
A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down
Thumbs up or down
On page 283, hand signals for “out of air?” are:
A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down
Hand up to throat
On page 283, hand signals for “in-suit emergency?” are:
A. Hand up to throat
B. Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
C. Hands waving
D. Thumbs up or Down
Hands over their head and cross both hands or wave
On page 294, tightness tests are normally conducted upon manufacture of the suit and annually thereafter, using protocols established by ASTM ________.
ASTM F1052
On page 294, tightness tests are normally conducted upon manufacture of the suit and ______ thereafter, using protocols established by ASTM F1052.
Annually
On page 294, Breakthrough time is defined as the time from the initial chemical attack on the outside of the material until its desorption and detection inside. The units of time are usually expressed in minutes or hours, and a typical test runs up to a maximum of __ hours or ___ minutes.
8 hours; 480 minutes
On page 298, the key factors for operational considerations for selecting specialized protective clothing are:
Hostile environment
Tasks to perform
Type of protective clothing
Capabilities of user
On page 303, ____ + ____ = information.
Data + facts
On page 303, data + facts = ____.
information
On page 304, there are 4 basic groups of information sources that should be immediately accessible from the incident scene:
Facility Emergency Response Plans
Pre-incident tactical plans
Published Emergency Response References
Shipping Papers
On page 305, NFPA _______ is the standard for pre-incident planning.
NFPA 1620
On page 307, References are generally divided into the following categories:
Reference manuals or guidebooks
Technical information centers
Hazardous materials databases
On page 307, ___ works the first time - every time.
Books
On page 308, Primary functions and tasks assigned to the Hazmat Group include:
Safety
Entry/backup
Decon
Site access control
Information/Research
On page 308, Secondary functions and tasks assigned to the Hazmat Group include:
Medical
Resource
On page 308, the most simple and reliable method of coordinating information between the various HazMat Group functions is to use the _____ system.
Checklist
On page 311, agency or organization providing personnel, services, or other resources to the agency with direct responsibility for incident management is called what?
A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above
Assisting Agency
On page 311, an agency supplying assistance other than direct operational or support functions or resources to the incident management effort is called what?
A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above
Cooperating Agency
On page 311, a legally constituted, non-governmental organization that may work cooperatively with government is called what?
A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
B. Assisting Agency
C. Cooperating Agency
D. None of the above
Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
On page 311, when multi-agency responses require long periods of operation to resolve the incident, a _____ may be established to manage the expanding information requirements.
Joint Information Center (JIC)
On page 314, most resource coordination problems fall into 4 categories:
Failure to understand
Failure to anticipate potential problems
Inadequate training
Communications and Personality problems
On page 312, ______ resources differ from equipment resources in that they are usually considered expendable.
A. Human
B. Supply
C. Equipment
D. None of the above
supply
On page 312, _______ resources are items that are reusable.
A. Human
B. Supply
C. Equipment
D. None of the above
equipment
On page 322, producing good outcomes at hazmat incidents depends on the IC analyzing and visualizing events at the emergency scene described in 3 phases:
Past events
Present events
Future events
On page 323, 5 factors of future events are:
Magnitude
Occurrence
Timing
Effects
Location
On page 323, preventing a future event from occurring by influencing the current events is what factor?
A. Effects B. Location C. Magnitude D. Occurrence E. Timing
Occurrence
On page 323, trying to change when an event happens and or how long it lasts is what factor?
A. Effects B. Location C. Magnitude D. Occurrence E. Timing
Timing
On page 323, trying to change where the next event occurs is what factor?
A. Effects B. Location C. Magnitude D. Occurrence E. Timing
Location
On page 323, trying to keep the incident as small or limited as possible is what factor?
A. Effects B. Location C. Magnitude D. Occurrence E. Timing
Magnitude
On page 323, trying to reduce the size and or effects of an event is what factor?
A. Effects B. Location C. Magnitude D. Occurrence E. Timing
Effects
On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:
- You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events
- _________________
The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome
On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:
- ______________
- The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome
You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events
On page 323, when selecting strategic goals to either stop the current event or prevent future events from occurring, remember these two basic principles:
- ______________
- ______________
- The earlier the events sequence can be interrupted, the greater the probability of a producing a favorable outcome
- You cannot influence events that have already happened or change the outcomes of those events
On page 324, hazmat operations usually begin in the ___ mode.
A. Nonintervention
B. Offensive
C. Defensive
D. None of the above
Defensive
On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:
- ________
- The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
- Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.
The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks
On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:
- The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks
- __________
- Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.
The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
On page 326, the success of obtaining agreement depends on:
- The IC’s ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive risks
- The IC’s ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
- _______________
Getting the other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained.
On page 326, the _______ form - Site Safety and Control Plan is a useful guide and template for an IC to structure mitigation efforts.
ICS 208 form
On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
- Understand the nature of the problem
- Identify your resources
- Develop Incident Objectives
- Develop tactical objectives
- Identify an operational period
- Identify players
- Identify emergency procedures
- Conduct the safety and operational briefing
On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps; Put it in order:
Develop Incident Objectives Understand the nature of the problem Identify an operational period Identify your resources Conduct the safety and operational briefing Develop tactical objectives Identify emergency procedures Identify players
- Understand the nature of the problem
- Identify your resources
- Develop Incident Objectives
- Develop tactical objectives
- Identify an operational period
- Identify players
- Identify emergency procedures
- Conduct the safety and operational briefing
On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:
- Understand the nature of the problem
- _______
- Develop Incident Objectives
- __________
- Identify Operational Period
- ____________
- Identify Emergency Procedures
- ____________
- Understand the nature of the problem
- Identify your resources
- Develop Incident Objectives
- Develop tactical objectives
- Identify an operational period
- Identify players
- Identify emergency procedures
- Conduct the safety and operational briefing
On page 327, to complete a site safety and control plan, follow the steps:
- __________
- Identify your resources
- __________
- Develop tactical objectives
- _________
- Identify players
- ___________
- Conduct the safety and operational briefing
- Understand the nature of the problem
- Identify your resources
- Develop Incident Objectives
- Develop tactical objectives
- Identify an operational period
- Identify players
- Identify emergency procedures
- Conduct the safety and operational briefing
On page 331, examples of tactical options that can be used to buy time include:
Barriers
Distance
Time
Techniques
On page 331, the “first law of hot zone operations” are:
Trained to play Dressed to play Buddy System Backup capability Emergency decon capability IC's approval
On page 331, hazmat rescue problems fall into 3 general categories:
- Searching for people that are exposed and harmed by the hazmat
- Rescue victims who are disoriented or disabled
- Planning and executing technical rescue
On page 333, some rescuers have become victims because they either:
Underestimated hazards and risks
Took action without proper equipment
Not properly trained
Failed to understand the emergency response timeline
On page 333, without an oxygen supply to the brain, clinical death occur in ___ minutes, and biological death in ____ minutes.
3 minutes; 5 minutes
On page 333, without oxygen supply to the brain, clinical death occurs in ____ minutes.
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes
3 minutes
On page 333, without oxygen supply to the brain, biological death occurs in ____ minutes.
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes
5 minutes
On page 334, according to OSHA the majority of the fatalities in confined spaces incidents occur from entrapment in:
Toxic atmospheres
Asphyxiating atmospheres
Physical hazards
On page 336, the following activities can help maintain site discipline until the problem has been eliminated and the incident safely terminated:
Maintain an ISO
Use Checklists
Enforce isolation perimeter security and hazard control zones
Establish crew rotation schedule
On page 336, as a general rule, ______ tactics expose personnel to less risk than _______ tactics.
A. containment, confinement
B. Offensive, defensive
C. Defensive, nonintervention
D. confinement, containment
Confinement, containment
On page 336, the confinement tactics are:
Absorption
Adsorption
Covering
Damming
Diking
Dilution
Diversion
Dispersion
Retention
Vapor dispersion
Vapor suppression
On page 336, the chemical process in which a sorbate interacts with a solid sorbate surface is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Adsorption
On page 337, the physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Damming
On page 337, is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground used to control the movement of liquids, sludge, solids, or other materials is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Diking
On page 336, the physical process of absorbing or “picking up” a liquid hazardous material to prevent enlargement of the contaminated area is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Absorption
On page 336, is a physical method of confinement and is typically a temporary measure until more effective control tactics can be implemented is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Covering
On page 338, the chemical method by which a water-soluble solution, usually a corrosive, is diluted by adding large volumes of water to the spill is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Dilution
On page 338, a chemical method of confinement by which certain chemical and biological agents are used to break up the material involved in liquid spills on water is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Dispersion
On page 339, a physical method of confinement by which a liquid is temporarily contained in an area where it can be absorbed, neutralized or picked up for proper disposal.
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Retention
On page 338, is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground or placed in a waterway to intentionally control the movement of a hazardous material into an area where it will pose less harm to the community and the environment is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Diversion
On page 339, a physical method of confinement where water spray or fans are used to move vapors away from the surface areas of the product is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Vapor Dispersion
On page 340, the physical method of confinement to reduce or eliminate the vapors emanating from a spilled or released material is what type of confinement tactic?
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Vapor Suppression
On page 336, operationally, absorbents are effective when dealing with liquids of _________ gallons.
A. less than 55 gallons
B. more than 55 gallons
C. equal to 55 gallons
D. None of the above
less than 55 gallons
On page 337, the two types of dams are:
Overflow dam
Underflow dam
On page 337, the ____ dam is used to trap floating lighter than water materials behind the dam.
underflow dam
On page 337, the ____ dam is used to trap sinking heavier than water materials behind the dam.
overflow dam
On page 337, ______ are most effective when the y can be built quickly.
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Diking
On page 338, slow moving or heavy materials should be confined by use of a ________ dike.
A. Square dike
B. V-shaped dike
C. Circle dike
D. Rectangle dike
Circle dike
On page 338, faster moving products will require a ______ dike located in the best available low lying area.
A. Square dike
B. V-shaped dike
C. Circle dike
D. Rectangle dike
V-shaped dike
On page 338, operationally, dikes are normally a ____ measure and can begin to leak after a while.
temporary
On page 338, 4 important criteria that must be met before dilution is attempted. These include determining in advance that the substance:
Not water reactive
Not generate a toxic gas with water
Not form any kind of solid or precipitate
is Water-soluble
On page 338, ______ should only be attempted on liquid and solid substances that are corrosives and only when all other reasonable methods of mitigation and removal have proven unacceptable.
A. Absorption B. Vapor Suppression C. Dispersion D. Diversion E. Diking F. Dilution G. Retention H. Adsorption I. Covering J. Vapor dispersion K. Damming
Dilution
On page 338, alkaline spill of 1 gallon with a PH of 14, connect the gallons to the PH:
10,000 2
100 5
10 3
1000 1
100,000 6
1,000,000 4
10 gallons - 1 pH
100 gallons - 2 pH
1000 gallons - 3 pH
10,000 gallons - 4 pH
100,000 gallons - 5 pH
1,000,000 gallons - 6 pH
On page 338, Acid spill of 1 gallon with a PH of 0, connect the gallons to the PH:
10,000 13
100 10
10 9
1000 8
100,000 11
1,000,000 12
10 gallons - 13 pH
100 gallons - 12 pH
1000 gallons - 11 pH
10,000 gallons - 10 pH
100,000 gallons - 9 pH
1,000,000 gallons - 8 pH
On page 339, rule of thumb for bringing the pH to 6 - 8:
Steps 1 - 5 put them in order:
Add 3 zeros to the beginning gallonage
Determine the pH of spill
Determine the pH you want to dilute the spill to
Determine the size of spill to be diluted in gallons
Determine the number of dilution steps between the starting PH and the ending pH
Step 1: Determine the size of spill to be diluted in gallons
Step 2: Determine the pH of spill
Step 3: Determine the pH you want to dilute the spill to
Step 4: Determine the number of dilution steps between the starting PH and the ending pH
Step 5: Add 3 zeros to the beginning gallonage
On page 341, when planning leak-control tasks, keep the time-tested ____ principle in mind.
KISS (keep it simple, stupid.)
On page 340, situations well suited for aggressive leak control ____ strategies include:
- The hazmat is a vapor or gas and threatens to migrate away from its container
- The hazmat is in a solid, powder form and weather conditions threaten to carry it from its original site
- Defensive options have been attempted but have not produced the desired results
- The situation is getting worse and increasing in risk as time progresses
A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Nonintervention
D. None of the above
Offensive
On page 341, the containment tactics are:
Neutralization
Overpacking
Patching/Plugging
Solidification
Pressure Isolation and Reduction
Vacuuming
On page 341, the chemical method of containment by which a hazmat is neutralized by applying a second material to the original spill that will chemically react with it to form a less harmful substance is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Neutralization
On page 342, the physical method of containment by which a leaking drum, container or cylinder is placed inside a larger undamaged and compatible container is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Overpacking
On page 344, the physical method of containment that uses chemically compatible patches and plugs to reduce or temporarily stop the flow of materials from small container holes, rips, tears, or gashes is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Patching/Plugging
On page 346, a physical or chemical method of containment by which the internal pressure closed container is reduced is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Pressure Isolation and Reduction
On page 350, the chemical method of containment whereby a liquid substance is chemically treated so that a solid material results is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Solidification
On page 350, the physical method of containment by which a hazardous material is placed in a chemically compatible container by simply vacuuming it up is what type of containment tactic?
A. Overpacking B. Solidification C. Neutralization D. Pressure Isolation and Reduction E. Patching/Plugging F. Vacuuming
Vacuuming
On page 341, before initiating any neutralization techniques, the following conditions should be satisfied:
Hazmat is identified
Physical and chemical properties have been researched properly
Spill has been controlled and confined to prevent runoff after the application of the neutralizing agent
On page 341, the most widely favored neutralizing agents from an environmental perspective are sodium sesquicarbonate for ___ spills and acetic acid for ___ spills.
A. alkali; acid
B. caustic; alkali
C. acid; alkali
D. caustic; alkali
Acid; Alkali
On page 342, methods of placing a leaking drum into an overpack are:
Inverted method
Slide-in method
Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
On page 342, the _____ method is where you slip the compatible overpack container over the leaking drum.
A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above
Inverted method
On page 342, the _____ method can be used if the leaking drum is in a horizontal position.
A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above
Slide-in method
On page 342, the _____ method is a variation of the slide-in method that can be used if space permits and if the leaking drum is in a horizontal position.
A. Slide-in method
B. Inverted method
C. Rolling slide-in or V-roll method
D. None of the above
Rolling slide or V-roll method
On page 346, to properly organize a patching operation, consider the following:
Select a patching device at least half a size larger than the breach
Ensure the patch is compatible with hazmat
Patching operations should be planned with air supply operating times in mind
If the patching operation is complex and time allows, consider having the entry team walkthrough the patching operation in the cold zone
On page 346, to properly organize a patching operation, consider the following:
Select a patching device at least _____ a size larger than the breach.
A. Quarter
B. Half
C. Twice
D. Thrice
Half
On page 347, ______ leaks are among the most common leaks found on cargo tank trucks.
A. Splits, tears, punctures, and irregularly shaped holes
B. Dome cover leaks
C. Pressure relief devices, vents, and rupture disks
D. Piping and Valve leaks
Piping and Valve leaks
On page 350, _____ is a process by which shaped explosive charges are placed by explosives demolition specialists on a flammable container, such as a pressurized tank car, to cut a hole in it, thereby allowing the contents to flow into a pit constructed adjacent to the breached car where the product can safely burn off.
A. Flaring B. Venting C. Scrubbing D. Hot tapping E. Isolating valves F. Isolating pumps G. Vent and Burn
Vent and burn
On page 350, during a vent and burn operation, when dealing with pressurized tank cars, two holes are normally required, hole #1 is at the ___ end of the tank car and is designed to relieve the internal pressure so that the tank car will not rocket, while hole #2 is at a ___ point and is designed to allow the liquid contents to drain into a containment area.
high end; low point
On page 355, pressure vessels, closed containers, piping systems, or critical support structures exposed to direct flame impingement is what type of exposure?
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above
Primary
On page 355, pressure vessels, closed containers, piping systems, or critical support structures exposed to radiant heat is what type of exposure?
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above
Secondary
On page 355, noncritical exposures without life safety concerns is what type of exposure?
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. None of the above
Tertiary
On page 356, NFPA 11 recommends an application time of __ minutes for flammable liquid spill fires and ___ minutes for Class I flammable liquid storage tank fires.
A. 10 minutes; 60 minutes
B. 15 minutes; 65 minutes
C. 15 minutes; 60 minutes
D. 10 minutes; 65 minutes
15 minutes; 65 minutes
On page 356, synthetic foam consisting of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with high boiling point solvents and water is what type of foam concentrate?
A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
On page 356, foam that when applied to a polar solvent fuel, they will often create a polymeric membrane rather than a film over the fuel that separates the water in the foam blanket from the attack of the polar solvent is what type of foam concentrate?
A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF or ARC)
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)
Alcohol Resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF or ARC)
On page 356, combination of protein-based foam derived from protein foam concentrates and fluorochemical surfactants is what type of foam concentrate?
A. Alcohol Resistant AFFF
B. Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
C. Fluoroprotein foam
D. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)
Fluoroprotein foam
On page 356, the shelf life of a Fluoroprotein foam is approximately ___ years.
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
10 years
On page 357, the most common ethanol blend being transported today by rail tank car is ____ or denatured alcohol.
A. E87
B. E89
C. E91
D. E95
E95
On page 357, The primary difference between the two fuels are that ethanol is a ______ and gasoline is a ______.
A. polar solvent; hydrocarbon
B. hydrocarbon; polar solvent
C. polar solute; hydrocarbon
D. None of the above
Polar solvent; hydrocarbon
On page 360, foam concentrate requirements can be determine by the following process:
Determine the type of fuel
Determine the surface area
Determine the recommended NFPA 11 foam application rate
Determine the duration of foam application
Determine the quantity of foam concentrate required
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Flammable liquid spills = ___ minutes
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
15 minutes
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Storage tank with flash point of 100 - 200 degree Fahrenheit = ___ minutes
A. 45 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 55 minutes D. 60 minutes E. 65 minutes
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
50 minutes
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Storage tank with flash point of < 100 degree Fahrenheit = ___ minutes
A. 45 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 55 minutes D. 60 minutes E. 65 minutes
65 minutes
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Storage tank with crude oil = ___ minutes
A. 45 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 55 minutes D. 60 minutes E. 65 minutes
65 minutes
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Storage tank with polar solvents = ___ minutes
A. 45 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 55 minutes D. 60 minutes E. 65 minutes
65 minutes
On page 360, determine the duration of foam application per NFPA 11:
Storage tank with seal application = ___ minutes
A. 20 minutes B. 45 minutes C. 50 minutes D. 55 minutes E. 60 minutes F. 65 minutes
20 minutes
On page 360, formula to calculate storage tank area:
(.785) (diameter squared) or (0.8) (diameter squared)
On page 360, formula to calculate dike or rectangular area around the tank is:
Length x Width
On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:
- atmospheric storage tanks up to 100 ft diameter require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm B. 250 gpm C. 500 gpm D. 750 gpm E. 1000 gpm F. 1500 gpm G. 2000 gpm
500 gpm
On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:
- atmospheric storage tanks from 100 ft diameter to 150 ft diameter require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm B. 250 gpm C. 500 gpm D. 750 gpm E. 1000 gpm F. 1500 gpm G. 2000 gpm
1000 gpm
On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:
- atmospheric storage tanks 100 - 150 ft diameters require ____ gpm.
A. 100 gpm B. 250 gpm C. 500 gpm D. 750 gpm E. 1000 gpm F. 1500 gpm G. 2000 gpm
2000 gpm
On page 363, Basic cooling water guidelines for exposed tanks and pressure vessels are as follows:
- Pressure vessels should have a minimum of ____ gpm applied at the point of fire impingement.
A. 100 gpm B. 250 gpm C. 500 gpm D. 750 gpm E. 1000 gpm F. 1500 gpm G. 2000 gpm
500 gpm
On page 366, propane, butane, natural gas, compressed natural gas (CNG), liquified natural gas (LNG), liquid hydrogen and methane are considered:
A. Flammable and Corrosive gases B. Flammable and Reactive gases C. Common Flammable gases D. Flammable and Toxic gases E. "Fooler" gases
Common Flammable gases
On page 366, hydrogen sulfide, ethylene oxide, phosphine, and arsine are considered:
A. Flammable and Corrosive gases B. Flammable and Reactive gases C. Common Flammable gases D. Flammable and Toxic gases E. "Fooler" gases
Flammable and Toxic gases
On page 366, Isopropyl chloroacetate, and 1 amino-2 propanol are considered:
A. Flammable and Corrosive gases B. Flammable and Reactive gases C. Common Flammable gases D. Flammable and Toxic gases E. "Fooler" gases
Flammable and Corrosive gases
On page 366, Butadiene, acetylene, and silane are considered:
A. Flammable and Corrosive gases B. Flammable and Reactive gases C. Common Flammable gases D. Flammable and Toxic gases E. "Fooler" gases
Flammable and Reactive gases
On page 366, Anhydrous Ammonia are considered:
A. Flammable and Corrosive gases B. Flammable and Reactive gases C. Common Flammable gases D. Flammable and Toxic gases E. "Fooler" gases
“Fooler” gases
On page 367, tactical priorities for managing a flammable gas fire are to: Place in Order:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
- Control and extinguish secondary fires
- Reduce the operating pressure of the line feeding the fire
- Isolate the flammable gas source feeding the fire
- Protect primary and secondary exposures to the fire
- Permit the fire to self-extinguish and consume residual flammable gas inside the vessel or piping system
- Protect primary and secondary exposures to the fire
- Isolate the flammable gas source feeding the fire
- Reduce the operating pressure of the line feeding the fire
- Permit the fire to self-extinguish and consume residual flammable gas inside the vessel or piping system
- Control and extinguish secondary fires
On page 367, pressure-fed flammable gas fires may produce direct flame impingement on nearby vessels and cause catastrophic tank failure within ___ to ____ minutes of exposure.
A. 5 - 10 minutes
B. 5 - 15 minutes
C. 5 - 20 minutes
D. 5 - 30 minutes
5 - 20 minutes
On page 367, BLEVEs of bulk containers and process vessels can produce severe fire and fragmentation risks within ____ ft.
A. 1000 ft B. 2000 ft C. 3000 ft D. 4000 ft E. 5000 ft
3000 ft
On page 368, a ________ is defined as a container failure with a release of energy, often rapidly and violently, which is accompanied by a release of gas to the atmosphere and propulsion of the container or container pieces due to an overpressure rupture.
A. Explosion
B. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE)
C. Detonation
D. Eruption
BLEVE
On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:
- Instrumentation lines can begin to fail within __ minutes.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
5 minutes
On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:
- Pressure vessels and other closed containers can begin to fail within _____ minutes.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
10 minutes
On page 369, Experience in the petrochemical industry shows that in a major fire:
- Structural steel will begin to fail within _____ minutes.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
15 minutes
On page 370, LNG is a cryogenic liquid stored and transported at ______ degrees Fahrenheit.
A. -300 degrees
B. - 260 degrees
C. - 250 degrees
D. - 270 degrees
- 260 degrees Fahrenheit
On page 370, LNG vapor is ignitable in the ____ to _____% range.
A. 1 - 5% B. 5 - 10% C. 5 - 15% D. 10 - 15% E. 10 - 20%
5-15%
On page 378, Golden Rule of Transfers are:
- If you take something out of a container, you must put something else back in
- If you put something into a container, you must take something else out
- No matter how bad, Rules 1 and 2 do not change
On page 378, liquid transfers would be used on _____, ________, and __________ cargo tank trucks.
MC-306/DOT 406, MC-307/DOT 407, MC-312/DOT412
On page 378, the 3 primary methods of liquid product transfer are:
Gravity flow
Pump transfers
Pressure Transfers
On page 379, ____ is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together by means of a conductor.
Bonding
On page 379, ____ is the process of connecting one or more conductive objects to the ground through an earthing electrode.
Grounding
On page 379, in order for static electricity to act as an ignition source, 4 conditions must be fulfilled:
- Effective means of static generation
- Means of accumulating the static charge buildup
- Spark discharge of adequate energy
- Spark must occur in a flammable mixture
On page 379, the National Electrical Code (NEC) notes that the ground level should be _____ ohms resistance for residential purposes.
A. < 25 ohms
B. >25 ohms
C. <20 ohms
D. >30 ohms
< 25 ohms
On page 379, a standard of _______ ohms is used by some petroleum industry organizations.
A. < 25 ohms
B. <20 ohms
C. < 15 ohms
D. < 10 ohms
< 10 ohms
On page 379, in al bonding operations involving appliances, the first connection must always start at the _____ unit.
A. undamaged
B. damaged
C. appliance
D. grounded
damaged unit
On page 381, 3 primary methods of liquid product transfer:
- Equalize pressure and pump the liquid
- Product displacement with compressors
- Pressure displacement
On page 381, MC-331 cargo tank trucks contain:
A. liquified gases
B. Cryogenic liquids
C. Natural gas
D. Petroleum
Liquified gases
On page 381, MC-338 cargo tank trucks contain:
A. Liquified gases
B. Cryogenic liquids
C. Natural gas
D. Petroleum
Cryogenic liquids
On page 382, vacuum trucks are designed for specific operating pressures up to ____ psi.
A. 15 psi
B. 20 psi
C. 25 psi
D. 30 psi
25 psi
On page 382, Strict control of ignition sources should be maintained within ___ ft of the vacuum truck, the discharge of the vacuum pump, or any other vapor source.
A. 50 ft
B. 100 ft
C. 150 ft
D. 200 ft
100 ft
On page 383, factors that responders must consider before approving a lifting or up-righting operation include:
- Damage Assessment
2. Qualified and Experienced operators to perform lift
On page 383, for a safe lift with a mobile crane, at least 7 items of information are needed:
- Vehicle leveled
- Outriggers properly extended or retracted
- Extended riggers supported by stable ground
- Angle of the boom
- Boom and jib length
- Position the boom will be during lift
- Weight of load
On page 383, general guidelines for emergency responders to consider while overseeing and approving a cargo tank truck up-righting operation:
- Offload or upright?
- Use enough lift
- Stabilize vehicle
- Position all lifting equipment
- Upright the damaged container
On page 385, to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene,:
- Assess number of victims and property damage
- Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
- Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it
On page 386, steps to collect and process evidence:
- Take photographs of evidence
- Sketch, mark, and label the location of the evidence
- Place evidence in appropriate containers
- Tag evidence
- Record the time when the evidence was found, the location where it was found and the name of the person who found it
- Keep a constant watch on evidence
- Preserve chain of custody in handling the evidence
On page 385, to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene,: Place in order:
- Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
- Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it
- Assess number of victims and property damage
- Assess number of victims and property damage
- Secure scene with caution or hazard tape
- Preserve any suspected evidence by protecting it
