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Hazmat > Ch. 7 > Flashcards

Ch. 7 Flashcards

1
Q

On page 193, ______ refer to danger or peril; physical and chemical properties of a material.

A

Hazards

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2
Q

On page 193, ____ refer to the probability of suffering or harm.

A

Risks

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3
Q

On page 193, factors that influence the level of risk include the following:

A

Hazardous nature of the materials involved

Quantity of the materials involved

Containment system and type of stress applied to container

Proximity of exposures

Level of available resources

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4
Q

On page 193, the hazard and risk evaluation process will be viewed as 3 distinct yet inter-related tasks:

A
  1. Hazard Assessment
  2. Risk Evaluation
  3. Development of the IAP
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5
Q

On page 194, pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means is what?

A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element
D. Solution

A

Element

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6
Q

On page 194, substance made up two or more elements or compounds, physically mixed together is called what?

A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element 
D. Solution
E. Slurry
A

Mixture

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7
Q

On page 194, chemical combination of two or more elements, either the same elements or different ones, that is electrically neutral is called what?

A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element 
D. Solution
E. Slurry
A

Compound

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8
Q

On page 194, mixture in which all of the ingredients are completely dissolved is called what?

A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element 
D. Solution
E. Slurry
A

Solution

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9
Q

On page 194, pourable mixture of a solid and a liquid is called what?

A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element 
D. Solution
E. Slurry
A

Slurry

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10
Q

On page 195, cryogenic liquids are gasses that have been transformed into extremely cold liquids stored at temperatures below ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

A

-130 degrees

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11
Q

On page 195, cryogenic liquids have the following hazards:

A
  1. Extremely cold temperatures
  2. Liquid to vapor expansion ratio
  3. hazards of the respective material
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12
Q

On page 195, a chemical change that is spontaneous requires _____ of energy.

A. no input

B. input of some energy

A

No input

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13
Q

On page 195, a chemical change that is non-spontaneous requires _______ energy.

A. no input

B. input of some

A

input of some

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14
Q

On page 195, the electrostatic attraction of oppositely charged particles is called what?

A. Ionic bonding

B. Covalent bonding

A

Ionic bonding

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15
Q

On page 195, the force holding together atoms that share electrons is called what?

A. Ionic bonding

B. Covalent bonding

A

Covalent bonding

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16
Q

On page 195, materials that contain carbon atoms is called what?

A. Hydrocarbons 
B. Saturated hydrocarbons 
C. Inorganic Materials 
D. Organic Materials 
E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons 
F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A

Organic materials

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17
Q

On page 195, compounds derived from other than vegetable or animal sources, which lack carbon chains but may contain a carbon atom us called what?

A. Hydrocarbons 
B. Saturated hydrocarbons 
C. Inorganic Materials 
D. Organic Materials 
E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons 
F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A

Inorganic materials

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18
Q

On page 195, compounds primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon is called what?

A. Hydrocarbons 
B. Saturated hydrocarbons 
C. Inorganic Materials 
D. Organic Materials 
E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons 
F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A

Hydrocarbon

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19
Q

On page 195, a hydrocarbon possessing only single covalent bond; may also be referred to as alkanes; these are called what?

A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons

A

Saturated hydrocarbon

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20
Q

On page 195, a hydrocarbon with at least one multiple bond between two carbon atoms somewhere in the molecule; may also be referred to as the alkenes and alkynes; these are called what?

A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons

A

Unsaturated hydrocarbons

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21
Q

On page 195, a hydrocarbon containing the benzene ring, which is formed by 6 carbon atoms and contains resonant bonds is called what?

A. Saturated hydrocarbon
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons

A

Aromatic Hydrocarbons

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22
Q

On page 195, a hydrocarbon with a halogen atom substituted for a hydrogen atom is called what?

A. Saturated hydrocarbon
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons

A

Halogenated hydrocarbon

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23
Q

On page 195, normal temperatures are between ___ degrees Fahrenheit to _______ degrees Fahrenheit.

A

68 degrees to 77 degrees

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24
Q

On page 195, 760 mm HG is equivalent to _____ psi or _____ atmosphere.

A

14.7 psi; 1 atmosphere

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25
Q

On page 195, _____ mm HG is equivalent to 14.7 psi or ______ atmosphere.

A

760 mm HG; 1 atmosphere

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26
Q

On page 196, materials with pressures greater than 760 mm HG are usually found as _______.

A. Solids
B. Liquids
C. Gases

A

Gases

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27
Q

On page 196, water has a vapor pressure of _____ mm HG.

A

25 mm HG

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28
Q

On page 196, the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure is called what?

A. Vapor density
B. Specific gravity
C. Vapor pressure

A

Specific gravity

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29
Q

On page 196, if the specific gravity is less than ____, the material is lighter than water and will float.

A

1

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30
Q

On page 196, if the specific gravity is greater than ____, the material is heaver than water and will sink.

A

1

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31
Q

On page 196, the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure is called what?

A. Vapor Density
B. Specific Pressure
C. Vapor Pressure

A

Vapor Density

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32
Q

On page 196, if the vapor density of a gas is less than _____, the material is lighter than air and may rise.

A

1

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33
Q

On page 196, materials with a vapor density greater than ____, the material is heavier than air and will collect in low or enclosed areas.

A

1

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34
Q

On page 196, materials with a vapor density close to ` will likely _________ and will not travel unless moved by wind or ventilation drafts.

A. Sink
B. Float
C. hang at midlevel

A

Hang at midlevel

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35
Q

On page 196, if a reference source does not provide a vapor density, you can calculate it by using the molecular weight of the material. The molecular weight of air is _____.

A

29

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36
Q

On page 196, materials with a molecular weight of < 29 will _____.

A. Rise
B. Sink
C. Hang at midlevel

A

Rise

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37
Q

On page 196, materials with a molecular weight of > 29, will ____.

A. Rise
B. Sink
C. Hang at midlevel

A

Sink

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38
Q

On page 196, an easy way to remember common hazardous gases and simple asphyxiants lighter than air is the acronym __________.

A

4H MEDIC ANNA

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39
Q

On page 196, the chemicals found in the 4H MEDIC ANNA acronym are as follows:

A

Hydrogen
Helium
Hydrogen Cyanide
Hydrogen Fluoride

Methane
Ethylene 
Diborane 
Illuminating gas
Carbon Monoxide

Anhydrous Ammonia
Neon
Nitrogen
Acetylene

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40
Q

On page 196, the ability of a substance to change from the solid to the vapor phase without passing through the liquid phase such as dry ice is called what?

A. Deposition
B. Sublimation
C. Boiling Point
D. Melting Point

A

Sublimation

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41
Q

On page 196, the ability of a substance to change from a vapor to a solid without passing through the liquid phase is called what?

A. Deposition
B. Sublimation
C. Boiling Point
D. Melting Point

A

Deposition

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42
Q

On page 196, temperature above which a gas cannot be liquified no matter how much pressure is applied is called what?

A

Critical temperature

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43
Q

On page 196, pressure that must be applied to liquify a gas at its critical temperature is called what?

A

Critical Pressure

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44
Q

On page 196, a _____ cannot be liquified above its critical temperature.

A. Solid
B. Gas

A

Gas

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45
Q

On page 196, _____ occurs during the rapid release of a liquified gas that causes it to rapidly cool, slow down the boiling process, and remain in a liquid state.

A

Auto-refrigeration

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46
Q

On page 196, the ease with a liquid or solid can pass into the vapor state is called what?; the higher materials _____, the greater its rate of evaporation.

A

Volatility

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47
Q

On page 197, the ability of a solid, liquid, gas, or vapor to dissolve in water or other specified medium is called what?

A. Miscibility
B. Solubility
C. Viscosity
D. Volatility

A

Solubility

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48
Q

On page 197, the ability of materials to dissolve in a uniform mixture is called what?

A. Miscibility
B. Solubility
C. Viscosity
D. Volatility

A

Miscibility

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49
Q

On page 197, degree of solubility that is less than 0.1% is considered _____.

A. Moderate
B. Appreciable 
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
A

Negligible

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50
Q

On page 197, degree of solubility that is 0.1% to 1.0% is considered _____.

A. Moderate
B. Appreciable 
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
A

Slight

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51
Q

On page 197, degree of solubility that is 1 - 10% is considered _____.

A. Moderate
B. Appreciable 
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
A

Moderate

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52
Q

On page 197, degree of solubility that is greater than 10% is considered _____.

A. Moderate
B. Appreciable 
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
A

Appreciable

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53
Q

On page 197, degree of solubility that is soluble in all proportions is considered _____.

A. Moderate
B. Appreciable 
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
A

Complete

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54
Q

On page 197, a fast evaporation rate range is considered _____.

A

> 3.0

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55
Q

On page 197, a medium evaporation rate range is considered ____.

A

0.8 - 3.0

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56
Q

On page 197, a slow evaporation rate range is considered _____.

A

< 0.8

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57
Q

On page 197, concentration of material to which the body is exposed over a specific time period; _____ = concentration x time. This is called what?

A

Dose

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58
Q

On page 197, biological reaction caused by the dose in the body. The degree of harm is directly related to the dose and its impact at the biological site. This is called what?

A

Dose-Response

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59
Q

On page 197, minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and flashover, but will not continue to burn without the addition of more heat is called what?

A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Autoignition

A

Flash point

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60
Q

On page 197, minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and sustain combustion is called what?

A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Autoignition

A

Fire point

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61
Q

On page 197, minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present is called what?

A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Flammable Range

A

Ignition temperature

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62
Q

On page 197, ignition temperature is also known as ______.

A

Autoignition

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63
Q

On page 198, the ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction with the release of energy is called what?

A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Dissociation

A

Reactivity / Instability

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64
Q

On page 198, used to control the rate of a chemical reaction by either speeding it up or slowing it down is called what?

A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Dissociation

A

Catalyst

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65
Q

On page 198, a material that causes visible destruction of, or irreversible alterations to, living tissue by chemical action at the point of contact is called what?

A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Corrosivity

A

Corrosivity

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66
Q

On page 198, the process by which acids and bases break down when dissolved in water to produce hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions is called what?

A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Corrosivity
D. Dissociation

A

Dissociation

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67
Q

On page 198, the percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water is called what?

A. Concentration
B. Strength
C. Polymerization
D. Dissociation

A

Concentration

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68
Q

On page 199, categories of chemical agents are:

A

Nerve Agents

Chocking agents

Blood agents

Vesicants or blister agents

Antipersonnel agents

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69
Q

On page 199, chemical warfare agents that are the most toxic of the known chemical agents is called what?

A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents 
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents 
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
A

Nerve agents

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70
Q

On page 199, chemical agents that can damage the membranes of the lung is called what?

A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents 
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents 
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
A

Chocking agents

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71
Q

On page 199, chemical agents that consist of a cyanide compound is called what?

A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents 
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents 
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
A

Blood agents

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72
Q

On page 199, chemical agents that pose both a liquid and vapor threat to all exposed skin and mucous membranes is called what?

A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents 
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents 
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
A

Vesicants or Blister Agents

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73
Q

On page 199, usually solid materials dispersed in a liquid spray and cause pain or burning on exposed mucous membranes and skin is called what?

A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents 
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents 
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
A

Antipersonnel Agents

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74
Q

On page 199, _____ refers to the length of time a chemical agent remains as a liquid.

A. Half-life
B. Reactivity
C. Persistence
D. Polymerization

A

Persistence

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75
Q

On page 199, a chemical agent is said to be persistent if it remains as a liquid for longer than ___ hours and non-persistent if it evaporates within that time.

A

24 hours

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76
Q

On page 203, most responders will evaluate a minimum of two or three independent information sources and reference guidebooks (aka ________) before permitting personnel to operate within the hot zone.

A

Rule of Threes

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77
Q

On page 203, in the United States, the most recognized emergency information center is _______.

A. Canadian Transport Emergency Centre (CANUTEC)

B. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)

C. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

D. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)

E. U.S. Coast Guard and the Department of Transportation National Response Center (NRC)

F. Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)

A

CHEMTREC

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78
Q

On page 203, CHEMTREC provides a number of emergency and nonemergency services including:

A
  1. Emergency Response Information
  2. Emergency Communications
  3. Participation in drills and exercises
79
Q

On page 203, requests to participate in drills and exercises with CHEMTREC should be coordinated with CHEMTREC at least ____ hours before the exercise.

A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 96

A

48

80
Q

On page 204, _____ is the leading federal public health agency for hazmat incidents and operates a 24 hour emergency number.

A. National Pesticide Information Center (NPIC)

B. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

C. The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)

D. Animal Poison Control Center (ASPCA)

A

The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)

81
Q

On page 204, _______ is the most widely used computer-based software tool used by hazmat responders.

A. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)

B. Mapping Applications for Response, Planning and Local Operational Tasks (MARPLOT)

C. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)

D. Area Locations of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)

A

CAMEO

82
Q

On page 205, _______ is an atmospheric plume dispersion model used for evaluating releases of hazardous materials vapors.

A. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)

B. Mapping Applications for Response, Planning and Local Operational Tasks (MARPLOT)

C. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)

D. Area Locations of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)

A

ALOHA

83
Q

On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:

Section 1 - Product identification 
Section 2 - \_\_\_\_\_
Section 3 - Composition on ingredients
Section 4 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 5 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 6 - Accidental release measures
Section 7 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 8 - Exposure controls / Personal protection
Section 9 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity 
Section 11 - Toxicological information
Section 12 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 13 - Disposal 
Section 14 - Transport information
Section 15 - \_\_\_\_
Section 16 - \_\_\_
A

Section 2 - Hazards Identification

Section 4 - First Aid

Section 5 - Firefighting

Section 7 - Handling and Storage

Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties

Section 12 - Ecological information

Section 15 - Regulatory Information

Section 16 - Other information

84
Q

On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:

Section 1 - \_\_\_\_\_
Section 2 - Hazards Identification
Section 3 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 4 - First Aid
Section 5 - Firefighting
Section 6 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 7 - Handling and Storage 
Section 8 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 10 - \_\_\_\_\_
Section 11 - \_\_\_\_\_
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - \_\_\_\_\_\_ 
Section 14 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
A

Section 1 - Product and Company Identification

Section 3 - Composition on ingredients

Section 6 - Accidental release measures

Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection

Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity

Section 11 - Toxicological information

Section 13 - Disposal

Section 14 - Transport information

85
Q

On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:

Section 1 - \_\_\_\_
Section 2 - \_\_\_\_\_
Section 3 -  \_\_\_\_\_
Section 4 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 5 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 6 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 7 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 8 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 9 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 10 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 11 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 12 - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 13 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 14 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 15 - \_\_\_\_
Section 16 - \_\_\_
A 
Section 1 - Product identification 
Section 2 - Hazards Identification 
Section 3 - Composition on Ingredients 
Section 4 - First Aid 
Section 5 - Firefighting 
Section 6 - Accidental Release 
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection 
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties 
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity 
Section 11 - Toxicological Information
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport Information 
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
86
Q

On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections. List the sections in order:

Section 1 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 2 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 3 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 4 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 5 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 6 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
Section 7 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 8 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 9 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
Section 10 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 11 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 12 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 13 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 14 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 15 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Section 16 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

First Aid Accidental Release Disposal

Stability and Reactivity Other information

Regulatory Information Ecological information

Handling and Storage Firefighting

Transport Information Composition on ingredients

Physical and Chemical Properties

Product Identification Hazards Identification

Exposure controls and Personal Protection

Toxicological Information

A 
Section 1 - Product identification 
Section 2 - Hazards Identification 
Section 3 - Composition on Ingredients 
Section 4 - First Aid 
Section 5 - Firefighting 
Section 6 - Accidental Release 
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection 
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties 
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity 
Section 11 - Toxicological Information
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport Information 
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
87
Q

On page 207, hazardous materials concentration can be identified, quantified, and verified in two ways:

A
  1. On site use of direct-reading instruments

2. Laboratory analysis of samples

88
Q

On page 207, _____ is also known as lag time, this is the period of time between when the instrument senses a product and when a monitor reading is produced.

A

Instrument Response Time

89
Q

On page 207, monitors with a pump typically have a response time of _____ - ______ seconds.

A

3 - 5 seconds

90
Q

On page 207, monitors without a pump and operating in a diffusion mode have response times of _____ - ______ seconds.

A

30 - 60 seconds

91
Q

On page 207, use of sampling tubing add ____ to ____ seconds of lag time for each foot of hose.

A

1 - 2 seconds

92
Q

If you are using a monitor with a pump with sampling tubing that is 3 feet long, what is the instrument response time?

A. 6 - 11 feet
B. 6 - 9 feet
C. 8 - 12 feet
D. 8 - 10 feet

A

6 - 11 feet

93
Q

On page 207, conditions that will affect calibration include:

A

Atmosphere

Humidity

Temperature

Atmospheric Pressure

94
Q

On page 207, the 4 types of calibration are:

A

Factory

Full

Field

Bump test

95
Q

On page 207, instrument is shown a calibration gas and the readings are adjusted to the certified calibration gas values is what type of calibration?

A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test

A

Full

96
Q

On page 207, instrument is returned to a certified factory/facility for testing and adjustment by certified instrument technicians is what type of calibration?

A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test

A

Factory

97
Q

On page 207, instrument is exposed to a known calibration gas and the user verifies that the readings correspond to +10% of the calibration gas is what type of calibration?

A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test

A

Field

98
Q

On page 207, a field test in which and instrument is exposed to a known calibration gas and the sensors show a response or alarm is what type of calibration?

A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test

A

Bump test

99
Q

On page 208, as a general rule, direct reading instruments are not designed to measure and or detect airborne concentrations below ___ ppm and many are designed to detect one particular substance that may detect other substances and give false readings.

A

1 ppm

100
Q

On page 208, a reading of zero should be reported as ______ rather than clean, since quantities of chemicals may be present that cannot be detected by that particular instrument.

A. Negative instrument response
B. Positive Instrument Response
C. No instrument response
D. None of the Above

A

no instrument response

101
Q

On page 208, ______ and ______ operations pose the greatest threat to emergency responders.

A

Air monitoring

Reconnaissance operations

102
Q

On page 208, ________ personnel have the greatest risk of exposure.

A

Air monitoring personnel

103
Q

On page 209, acids are normally shades of ____ and purple; bases are shades of ______ on PH paper.

A. Blue; Red
B. Red; Blue
C. Blue; Purple
D. Blue; Green

A

Red; Blue

104
Q

On page 210, the 3 types of LEL sensors are:

A

Catalytic bead

Metal oxide semi-conductors

Infrared

105
Q

On page 210, the most common LEL sensor is the:

A. Infrared
B. PID
C. Catalytic Bead
D. Metal Oxide Semi-Conductor

A

Catalytic Bead

106
Q

On page 211, the three types of radiation detectors are:

A

Scintillation

Geiger Mueller Tubes

Ion Chambers

107
Q

On page 211, the range of scintillation is:

A

0.02 - 20 mR/hr

108
Q

On page 211, the range for GM (Geiger Mueller Tubes) are ____ to ____ mR/hr or ___ to __ cpm.

A

0.2 - 20 mR / hr or 800 - 80,000 cpm

109
Q

On page 211, the most common detection technology found in emergency response is _____.

A. Scintillation
B. Geiger Mueller Tubes
C. Ion chambers
D. None of the Above

A

Geiger Mueller Tubes

110
Q

On page 211, the range for ion chambers are:

A

1 mR - 500 R/hr

111
Q

On page 210, 1% of LEL = _____ ppm.

A

10,000 ppm

112
Q

On page 211, an instrument reliability check should be performed before each use. If the reading is not with _____% of the initial reading listed on the calibration sticker, the instrument should be recalibrated.

A

+ or - 20%

113
Q

On page 214, PID reads from ____ to _____ ppm.

A

0.1 - 2,000 ppm

114
Q

On page 214, the ____ or ___ bulbs are typically used for emergency response purposes.

A. 10.2 or 11.7 eV
B. 11.7 eV or 10.6
C. 10.2 or 10.6
D. None of the above

A

10.2 or 10.6

115
Q

On page 214, the _______ lamp will see most chemical agents but the _____ lamp is the better to see nerve agents.

A. 10.2 eV; 10.6 eV
B. 10.6 eV; 11.7 eV
C. 10.2 eV; 11.7 eV
D. None of the above

A

10.6 eV; 11.7 eV

116
Q

On page 214, the _____ is more accurate than the PID.

A

FID

117
Q

On page 217, monitoring results should be documented as follows:

A

Instrument

Location

Time

Level (foot, waist, head, etc.)

Reading

118
Q

On page 218, a positive reading ___ above background levels would confirm the existence of a radiation hazard.

A. x2 (twice)
B. x3 (thrice)
C. x4
D. x5

A

x2 (twice)

119
Q

On page 218, OSHA 1910.126 - Permit Required Confined Space Standard, clearly outlines the required monitoring priority as follows:

A
  1. Oxygen deficient and enrichment
  2. Flammability
  3. Toxicity
120
Q

On page 218, decisions regarding protective clothing recommendations, establishing hazard control zones, and evaluating any related public protective actions should be based on the following parameters:

A
  1. Radioactivity
  2. Flammability
  3. Oxygen
  4. Toxicity
121
Q

On page 219, the risk-based response process must include:

A

Analyzing the problem

Identifying and assessing hazards

Evaluating the potential consequences

Determining the appropriate response actions

122
Q

On page 219, the ________ process must include:

Analyzing the problem

Identifying and assessing hazards

Evaluating the potential consequences

Determining the appropriate response actions

A

Risk-based response process

123
Q

On page 220, to identify or classify unknow materials, follow the steps in order:

Step 1 - ______

Step 2 - _______

Step 3 - _______

Step 4 - _________

Multi-gas meter

Radiation pagers or radiation survey meters

PH paper

Photoionization Detector (PID)

A
  1. Radiation pagers or radiation survey meters
  2. Multi-gas meter
  3. Photoionization Detector (PID)
  4. PH paper
124
Q

On page 221, to properly use equipment provided by the AHJ, in performing field screening, follow the steps in order:

Steps 1 - 6

Explosive devices

Oxygen levels

VOC’s

Corrosivity

Flammability

Radiation

A
  1. Explosive devices
  2. Radiation
  3. Flammability
  4. Corrosive
  5. Oxygen
  6. VOC’s
125
Q

On page 227, as a general rule, samples collected for product identification during emergency response operations should not be used for ________ purposes. Collect a separate sample for that.

A

Evidentiary

126
Q

On page 227, all sample containers should be clearly labeled with the appropriate identifying information. Labels should include:

A

sample identifier

type of material

date obtained

investigators name and initials

127
Q

On page 228, ________ have been used successfully by the FBI and USSS to manage and respond to threats at major public events such as parades, major sporting events, farm shows and fairs, and rallies or protests.

A. Hazardous Materials Technicians (HMTs)

B. Joint Hazard Assessment Teams (JHATs)

C. SWAT teams

D. Police departments

A

Joint Hazard Assessment Teams (JHATS)

128
Q

On page 229, JHATs lessons learned; based on current intelligence for the day of the event, write tour mission statement and goals and post them for everyone to see. ___ to ____ strategic goals are all that you need for an event.

A

5 - 7

129
Q

On page 229, JHAT stands for ________.

A

Joint Hazard Assessment Team

130
Q

On page 227, if a sample is cold, keep it cold but don’t _______.

A

freeze it

131
Q

On page 227, if the sample is warm, make it ______ but don’t ______.

A

make it cold; don’t freeze it

132
Q

On page 230, if the sample is frozen, keep it ______.

A

Frozen

133
Q

On page 230, if the sample is dry, leave it ______.

A

Dry

134
Q

On page 230, if the sample is wet, leave it _____.

A

Wet

135
Q

On page 230, the only time evidence may be left alone is when stored in a _______ location designed for holding evidence.

A

Secure

136
Q

On page 230, what tools are used for liquid sampling?

A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas

B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing

C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps

D. None of the above

A

Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing

137
Q

On page 230, what tools are used for solid sampling?

A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas

B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing

C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps

D. None of the above

A

Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels, and spatulas

138
Q

On page 230, what tools are used for wipe sampling sampling?

A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas

B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing

C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps

D. None of the above

A

Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps

139
Q

On page 230, when opening a drum to collect a sample, use a ___________.

A. sparking bung wrench
B. non-sparking bung wrench
C. Standard wrench
D. All of the above

A

Non-sparking bung wrench

140
Q

On page 230, when dealing with flammable liquids, bung caps should be unscrewed very slowly, at approximately ____ inches per movement.

A. .35
B. 2
C. .25
D. .15

A

0.25 inches per movement

141
Q

On page 230, a hazmat drum thief, _____ or polyethylene bailer is often used to collect drum samples.

A. Syringes
B. Coliwasa
C. Pipettes
D. Drum collectors

A

Coliwasa

142
Q

On page 230, a _______, Coliwasa, or polyethylene bailer is often used to collect drum samples.

A. Syringes
B. Pipettes
C. Hazmat Drum Thief
D. Drum collectors

A

Hazmat Drum Thief

143
Q

On page 230, a hazmat drum thief, Coliwasa, or _________is often used to collect drum samples.

A. Polyethylene Bailer
B. Syringes
C. Pipettes
D. Drum collectors

A

Polyethylene Bailer

144
Q

On page 230, Sumps and wells - disposable _______ were made for monitoring groundwater wells but also work well for retrieving samples from other static water sources.

A. Hazmat Drum Thief
B. Polyethylene Bailers
C. Coliwasa
D. Turkey Baster

A

Polyethylene Bailers

145
Q

On page 230, Puddles - use a ________ or a small plastic/glass cup attached to the end of a pole to collect a sample from a puddle.

A. Hazmat Drum Thief
B. Polyethylene Bailers
C. Coliwasa
D. Turkey Baster

A

Turkey Baster

146
Q

On page 231, once the priorities of life safety and incident stabilization are addressed, evidence of the crime must be collected properly to assist in the prosecution phase. These incidents will pass through 4 distinct phases of management:

A

Tactical

Operational

Crime Scene

Remediation

147
Q

On page 231, _____ phase involves the removal of any hostile threats from the hazmat environment. (SWAT team, law enforcement officers)

A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational

A

Tactical

148
Q

On page 231, a critical step in the _____ phase is the “render safe” of all explosive devices and anti-personnel devices. Once the scene is rendered safe, other emergency operations can be initiated, including rescue, medical treatment and transport, and hazard stabilization.

A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational

A

Operational

149
Q

On page 231, ____ phase addresses environmental health and safety activities to remediate any remaining hazards after the crime scene is processed.

A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational

A

Remediation

150
Q

On page 232, when collecting liquid, solid, or gas samples by steps: the order is typically:

A
  1. Meet AHJ requirements
  2. Wear gloves and respiratory equipment as a minimum
  3. Use appropriate materials for each skill (syringes, spatula, or pump, etc.)
  4. Store/Collect properly
151
Q

On page 235, to visualize the likely behavior of the hazardous material, address 5 basic questions:

A 
Who
How
Why
What harm
When
152
Q

On page 236, _________ analysis is defined as the process of breaking down complex actions into smaller, more easily understood parts. It helps responders to understand, track, and predict a given sequence of events and decide when and how to change the sequence.

A. Task
B. Events
C. Skills
D. Operational

A

Events

153
Q

On page 237, the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GHMBO) events are as follows:

A
  1. Stress
  2. Breach
  3. Release
  4. Engulf
  5. Impinge
  6. Harm
154
Q

On page 237, ____ is defined as an applied force or system of forces that tend to either strain or deform a container or trigger a change in the condition of the contents.

A. Breach
B. Stress
C. Release 
D. Engulf 
E. Impinge 
F. Harm
A

Stress

155
Q

On page 237, 3 types of common stresses on containers are:

A

Thermal

Mechanical

Chemical

156
Q

On page 237, the other less likely stresses on containers are:

A

Etiological

Radiation

157
Q

On page 238, _________ and _________are now installed on railroad tank cars transporting hazardous materials to minimize the potential for a mechanical stressor in the event of a train derailment, while jacketing is installed to minimize the impact.

A

Head shields and shelf couples

158
Q

On page 238, head shields and shelf couplers are now installed on railroad tank cars transporting hazardous materials to minimize the potential for a mechanical stressor in the event of a train derailment, while _________ is installed to minimize the impact.

A

Jacketing

159
Q

On page 238, _______ is the event causing a hazmat container to open up. It occurs when a container is stressed beyond its limits of recovery.

A. Stress
B. Breach
C. Release
D. Engulf
E. Impinge 
F. Harm
A

Breach

160
Q

On page 238, 5 basic types of breach behaviors are:

A
  1. Disintegration
  2. Runaway cracking
  3. Failure of container attachments
  4. Container punctures
  5. Container splits or tears
161
Q

On page 238, _____ is the total loss of container integrity.

A. Runaway cracking 
B. Failure of container attachments 
C. Disintegration 
D. Container Punctures 
E. Container splits or tears
A

Disintegration

162
Q

On page 238, _____ occurs in closed containers such as liquid drums or pressure vessels. A small crack in a closed container suddenly develop into a rapidly growing crack that encircles the container.

A. Runaway cracking 
B. Failure of container attachments 
C. Disintegration 
D. Container Punctures 
E. Container splits or tears
A

Runaway Cracking

163
Q

On page 238, ______ usually are associated with mechanical stressors that result in a breach of the container.

A. Runaway cracking 
B. Failure of container attachments 
C. Disintegration 
D. Container Punctures 
E. Container splits or tears
A

Container punctures

164
Q

On page 238, __________ cracking is commonly associated with catastrophic boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion scenarios (BLEVE).

A

Linear cracking

165
Q

On page 239, 4 types of release are:

A

Detonation

Violent rupture

Rapid Relief

Spills or leaks

166
Q

On page 239, an explosive chemical reaction with a release rate of < 0.01 seconds is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Detonation

167
Q

On page 239, associated with chemical reactions having a release rate of 0.01 seconds to 1 second is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Violent Rupture

168
Q

On page 239, ranges from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and the nature of its contents is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Rapid Relief

169
Q

On page 239, release rates vary from minutes to hours is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Spills or leaks

170
Q

On page 239, behavior that is commonly associated with runaway cracking and overpressures of closed containers is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Violent Rupture

171
Q

On page 239, behavior that is associated with releases under pressure, through pressure relief valve actuations, broken or damaged valves, punctures, splits, tears or broken piping is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Rapid Relief

172
Q

On page 239, behavior that is generally a low-pressure, nonviolent flow through broken or damaged valves and fittings, splits, tears, or punctures is what type of release?

A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture

A

Spills or Leaks

173
Q

On page 239, common plume dispersion models include:

A

ALOHA and CHARM

174
Q

On page 240, ______ impingements have durations of minutes to hours.

A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above

A

Short-term

175
Q

On page 240, ________ impingements may extend over a period of days, weeks, and event months.

A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above

A

Medium-term

176
Q

On page 240, ______ impingements extend over years and perhaps even generations.

A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above

A

Long-term

177
Q

On page 240, _______ means to come in contact with exposures.

A. Harm
B. Engulf
C. Impinge
D. Release
E. Stress
F. Breach
A

Impinge

178
Q

On page 242, 3 factors directly influence the level of harm:

A
  1. timing of release
  2. size of dispersion pattern
  3. lethality of chemicals
179
Q

On page 243, 3 situations that responders commonly deal with when evaluating risks:

A

damage assessment

behavior of chemicals and petroleum released underground

behavior of hazmats in sewer collection system

180
Q

On page 245, regardless of the type of cargo tank truck involved, if it is overturned, ____ hours is a good initial estimate for how long the transportation infrastructure will be impacted.

A. 12
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4

A

8 hours

181
Q

On page 245, aluminum-shell __________ cargo tank trucks commonly used for transportation of gasoline and fuel oils should NOT be up righted when loaded.

A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC-307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. None of the above

A

MC-306 / DOT-406

182
Q

On page 246, violent rupture of pressurized containers can be triggered by one of two related conditions:

A
  1. crack in the container shell

2. thinning of tank shell

183
Q

On page 246, key factors that affect tank damage severity as follows:

A

Specification of steel

Internal pressure

Damage affecting the heat affected zone of the weld

cold work

rate of application

184
Q

On page 246, guidelines for damage assessment of pressurized containers include the following:

A
  1. Gather information
  2. Determine amount of material inside
  3. Determine type of stress
  4. Evaluate the stability of container
  5. Examine all accessible surfaces
185
Q

On page 246, guidelines for damage assessment of pressurized containers in order are:

Determine type of stress
Gather information 
Evaluate the stability of container 
Determine amount of material inside 
Examine all accessible surfaces
A
  1. Gather information
  2. Determine amount of material inside
  3. Determine type of stress
  4. Evaluate the stability of container
  5. Examine all accessible surfaces
186
Q

On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is an indention in the shell made by a sharp, chisel like object is what type of mechanical stress?

A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street Burn
A

Gouge

187
Q

On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is caused by prolonged contact with a turning railcar wheel is what type of mechanical stress?

A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
A

Wheel burn

188
Q

On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is an indention in the shell made by a blunt object is what type of mechanical stress?

A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
A

Score

189
Q

On page 247, deformation of the tank and is caused by an impact from a blunt object is what type of mechanical stress?

A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
A

Dent

190
Q

On page 247, deformation in the shell of a railroad tank car that is a long dent with a gouge at the bottom of the inward dent. It is generally caused by the tank car passing over a stationary object is what type of mechanical stress?

A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
A

Rail burn

191
Q

On page 247, the ______ rail burns are the more serious because they have a tendency to cross a weld.

A. Horizontal
B. Circumferential
C. Longitudinal
D. Vertical

A

Longitudinal

192
Q

On page 250, ground water supplies can become contaminated by concentrations as small as _____.

A. 100 ppm
B. 100 ppb
C. 200 ppb
D. 200 ppm

A

200 ppb

193
Q

On page 251, 4 primary elements of a wastewater system:

A

Collection and pumping

Filtering system

Liquid treatment system

Solid treatment system

Hazmat (5 decks)

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