Ch. 11 - 12 Flashcards

1
Q

On page 397, the first rule of decontamination is to ________.

A

Avoid contamination

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2
Q

On page 397, ALARA stands for:

A

As low as reasonably achievable

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3
Q

On page 397, a hazardous material that physically remains on or in people, animals, the environment, or equipment, thereby creating a continuing risk of direct injury or a risk exposure outside of the hot zone is called what?

A. Poison
B. Contaminant
C. Hazardous Material
D. Exposure

A

Contaminant

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4
Q

On page 397, the process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to people, animals, the environment, or equipment, which may act as a carrier is called what?

A. Exposure
B. Contamination
C. Infection
D. None of the above

A

Contamination

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5
Q

On page 397, the process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment are subjected to or come in contact with a hazardous material is called what?

A. Exposure
B. Contamination
C. Infection
D. None of the above

A

Exposure

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6
Q

On page 398, the process used to destroy the majority of recognized pathogenic microorganisms is called what?

A. Decontamination
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Boiling

A

Disinfection

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7
Q

On page 398, the process of destroying all microorganisms in or on an object is called what?

A. Decontamination
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Boiling

A

Sterilization

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8
Q

On page 398, the initial phase of the decontamination process during which the amount of surface contaminant is significantly reduced is called what?

A. Secondary decontamination 
B. Gross decontamination 
C. Emergency decontamination 
D. Mass decontamination 
E. Technical decontamination
A

Gross decontamination

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9
Q

On page 398, the second phase of the decontamination process designed to physically or chemically remove surface contaminants to a safe and acceptable level is called what?

A. Secondary decontamination 
B. Gross decontamination 
C. Emergency decontamination 
D. Mass decontamination 
E. Technical decontamination
A

Secondary decontamination

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10
Q

On page 398, the physical process of immediately reducing contamination of individuals in potentially life-threatening situation with or without formal establishment of a decontamination corridor is called what?

A. Secondary decontamination 
B. Gross decontamination 
C. Emergency decontamination 
D. Mass decontamination 
E. Technical decontamination
A

Emergency decontamination

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11
Q

On page 398, the planned and systematic process of reducing contamination to ALARA is called what?

A. Secondary decontamination 
B. Gross decontamination 
C. Emergency decontamination 
D. Mass decontamination 
E. Technical decontamination
A

Technical decontamination

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12
Q

On page 398, the process of decontaminating large numbers of people in the fastest possible time to reduce surface contamination to a safe level is called what?

A. Secondary decontamination 
B. Gross decontamination 
C. Emergency decontamination 
D. Mass decontamination 
E. Technical decontamination
A

Mass decontamination

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13
Q

On page 398, once victims are decontaminated they are referred to as:

A

patients

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14
Q

On page 398, 4 basic concepts of decontamination are:

A
  1. How to prevent contamination
  2. Surface vs. permeation decontamination
  3. Direct vs. cross-contamination
  4. Types of contaminants
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15
Q

On page 399, the most common cause of responder and response equipment contamination comes from _____ and ______ exercised during decontamination and clean-up operations

A

poor organization and discipline

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16
Q

On page 399, two types of contamination:

A

Surface and permeation

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17
Q

On page 399, factors that influence permeation are:

A

Contact time

Concentration

Temperature

Physical state

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18
Q

On page 400, ____ and _____ are the most common areas that get contaminated.

A

Gloves and boots

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19
Q

On page 400, the types of contaminants can be divided into 9 different categories based on their primary hazards:

A

High acute toxicity contaminants

Moderate to highly chronic toxicity contaminants

Embryotoxic contaminants

Allergenic contaminants

Flammable contaminants

Highly reactive or explosive contaminants

Water reactive contaminants

Etiologic contaminants

Radioactive contaminants

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20
Q

On page 401, 4 factors influence an etiologic or biological material’s ability to invade and alter the human body:

A

Virulence

Dose

Physical environment

Personal health status

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21
Q

On page 402, a good rule of thumb for making an on-scene decision to clean contaminated equipment now or wait out the half life is the fact that the passage of ____ half lives will bring a radiation level down to 1% of what it is at the time you take the first reading.

A

7 half lives

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22
Q

On page 402, in 10 half lives, the level will be down to ____.

A. 10%
B. 1%
C. 0.1%
D. 0.01%

A

0.1%

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23
Q

On page 403, 1 Sv = ____ rem.

A. 50 rem
B. 100 rem
C. 150 rem
D. 200 rem

A

100 rem

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24
Q

On page 403, 1 microsievert (mSv) = ________ milirem

A. 0.1 millirem
B. 1 millirem
C. 10 millirem
D. 100 millirem

A

0.1 millirem

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25
Q

On page 403, 1 rem = _______ mSv.

A. 1 mSv
B. 10 mSv
C. 100 mSv
D. 1000 mSv

A

10 mSv

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26
Q

On page 405, ________ is the process of altering the chemical structure of the contaminant through the use of a second chemical or material.

A. Chemical degradation
B. Chemical change
C. Diffusion
D. Desorption

A

Chemical Degradation

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27
Q

On page 406, two major categories of disinfectants:

A

Chemical disinfectants

Antiseptic disinfectants

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28
Q

On page 406, _____ disinfectants are most practical for field use.

A. Antiseptic disinfectants
B. Chemical disinfectants
C. Sterilization disinfectants
D. Physical disinfectants

A

Chemical disinfectants

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29
Q

On page 406, _____ disinfectants are primarily for direct application to the skin.

A. Antiseptic disinfectants
B. Chemical disinfectants
C. Sterilization disinfectants
D. Physical disinfectants

A

Antiseptic disinfectants

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30
Q

On page 406, 5 simple criteria can be used for evaluating decon effectiveness:

A
  1. No personnel are exposed to concentrations above TLV/TWA
  2. Not exposed to skin contact with materials that present a skin hazard
  3. Contamination levels are reduced as personnel move through decon corridor
  4. Contamination is confined to the hot zone and decon corridor
  5. Contamination is reduced to a level of ALARA
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31
Q

On page 406, 5 simple criteria can be used for evaluating decon effectiveness: Place in order:

  • Not exposed to skin contact with materials that present a skin hazard
  • No personnel are exposed to concentrations above TLV/TWA
  • Contamination is confined to the hot zone and decon corridor
  • Contamination is reduced to a level of ALARA
  • Contamination levels are reduced as personnel move through decon corridor
A
  1. No personnel are exposed to concentrations above TLV/TWA
  2. Not exposed to skin contact with materials that present a skin hazard
  3. Contamination levels are reduced as personnel move through decon corridor
  4. Contamination is confined to the hot zone and decon corridor
  5. Contamination is reduced to a level of ALARA
32
Q

On page 408, pre-sized tarps must be a minimum of ______ ft by ______ ft.

A. 20 x 20
B. 20 x 40
C. 40 x 40
D. 20 x 30

A

20 x 40

33
Q

On page 409, there are 2 main reasons for adopting a multistep cleaning process:

A
  1. Conducting all of the cleaning process at one station concentrates all of the contamination in one area. The more things you clean in the same spot, the greater the contamination level becomes.
  2. Multiple decontamination stations make you cleaner. The further along the decon line you progress, the cleaner you should become.
34
Q

On page 411, _____% of contaminants can be removed by simply undressing.

A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%

A

80%

35
Q

On page 412, remember the basics:

A. FLUSH - FLUSH - FLUSH
B. FLUSH - STRIP - STRIP
C. FLUSH - STRIP - FLUSH
D. None of the above

A

FLUSH - STRIP - FLUSH

36
Q

On page 412, when acids or bases have contacted bare skin, the minimum amount of time for a water flush is at least ____ minutes.

A. 10 minutes 
B. 5 minutes 
C. 15 minutes 
D. 20 minutes 
E. 25 minutes 
F. 30 minutes
A

20 minutes

37
Q

On page 412, 9 basic steps in technical decon:

A
  1. Tool and Equipment drop
  2. Over-glove/over-boot drop
  3. Gross decon
  4. Secondary decon
  5. PPE removal
  6. Respiratory protection removal
  7. Clothing removal
  8. Personal hygiene
  9. Medical evaluation
38
Q

On page 412, 9 basic steps in technical decon: Place in order:

Secondary decon
Tool and Equipment drop 
Personal hygiene 
Medical evaluation
Respiratory protection removal
Over-glove/over-boot drop
Clothing removal
PPE removal
Gross decon
A
  1. Tool and Equipment drop
  2. Over-glove/over-boot drop
  3. Gross decon
  4. Secondary decon
  5. PPE removal
  6. Respiratory protection removal
  7. Clothing removal
  8. Personal hygiene
  9. Medical evaluation
39
Q

On page 413, if possible remove clothing from ________ to limit the risk of inhalation.

A

Head to toe

40
Q

On page 413, _____ is the universal decon agent.

A

Water

41
Q

On page 413, It is vetter to use slightly cooler than body temperature water, ideally ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

A. 86 degrees
B. 94 degrees
C. 98 degrees
D. 90 degrees

A

86 degrees

42
Q

On page 416, Optimal operating pressures for both automatic and standard fire department nozzles are approximately _____ to ______ psi, with average flows of ____ gpm per nozzle.

A. 25 - 50 psi; 100 gpm
B. 30 - 50 psi; 150 gpm
C. 25 - 50 psi; 150 gpm
D. 30 - 50 psi; 100 gpm

A

30 - 50 psi; 150 gpm

43
Q

On page 416, the tasks and factors of mass decon process is as follows:

A
  1. Protective clothing
  2. Decon prioritization
  3. Ambulatory vs. non-ambulatory victims
  4. Cold weather operations
  5. Mass Decon Operations using Fire apparatus
44
Q

On page 416, studies involving chemical warfare agents show that victims should be washed for at least ___ minutes but no longer than ___ minutes.

A

3 minutes; 5 minutes

45
Q

On page 416, START stands for:

A

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment Process

46
Q

On page 416, non-ambulatory victims should be labeled as:

A. Priority 1
B. Priority 2
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 4

A

Priority 1

47
Q

On page 416, ambulatory victims should be labeled as:

A. Priority 1
B. Priority 2
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 4

A

Priority 3

48
Q

On page 416, delayed victims should be labeled as:

A. Priority 1
B. Priority 2
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 4

A

Priority 2

49
Q

On page 417, victims who are young, elderly, or have chronic health problems should be moved to a warm area as soon as possible since hypothermia in this group may begin in approximately __ minutes.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

10 minutes

50
Q

On page 417, if the victims may die from contamination, wash them off and move them to a covered environment with an ambient temperature of at least ____ degrees Fahrenheit as soon as possible.

A. 60 degrees
B. 70 degrees
C. 80 degrees
D. 90 degrees

A

70 degrees

51
Q

On page 417, position the engine to create a herding lane between the apparatus and a building wall or other structure. The lane should be __ to ___ feet wide.

A. 10 to 20 feet
B. 15 - 20 feet
C. 12 - 16 feet
D. 14 - 16 feet

A

12 - 16 feet

52
Q

On page 418, to set up and use a mass decontamination system on ambulatory victims, follow the steps:

A
  1. Ensure wearing appropriate PPE
  2. Stay clear of product
  3. Direct victims out of hazard zone
  4. Set up appropriate type of mass decon system
  5. Instruct victims to remove contaminated clothing
  6. Flush victims with water
  7. Direct contaminated victims to triage area
53
Q

On page 418, to set up and use a mass decontamination system on non-ambulatory victims, follow the steps:

A
  1. Set up appropriate type of mass decon system
  2. Ensure wearing appropriate PPE
  3. Removes victims clothing
  4. Flush victims with water
  5. Move victims to triage area
54
Q

On page 424, the incident commander has 2 clean up options:

A
  1. Conduct limited scale clean up of key emergency response equipment such as fire apparatus
  2. Conduct clean up using qualified and authorized environmental contractor
55
Q

On page 425, all personnel involved in disposal of hazardous waste must be trained in the provisions of the __________.

A

Federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

56
Q

On page 434, terminating the incident usually consists of 5 distinct activities:

A
  1. Termination of emergency phase of the incident
  2. Transfer of on-scene command from the IC of the emergency phase to the individual responsible for managing an coordinating Post Emergency Response Operations (PERO)
  3. Incident debriefing
  4. Post-Incident Analysis
  5. Critique
57
Q

On page 434, terminating the incident usually consists of 5 distinct activities:

  • Incident debriefing
  • Critique
  • Termination of emergency phase of the incident
  • Post-Incident Analysis
  • Transfer of on-scene command from the IC of the emergency phase to the individual responsible for managing an coordinating Post Emergency Response Operations (PERO)
A
  1. Termination of emergency phase of the incident
  2. Transfer of on-scene command from the IC of the emergency phase to the individual responsible for managing an coordinating Post Emergency Response Operations (PERO)
  3. Incident debriefing
  4. Post-Incident Analysis
  5. Critique
58
Q

On page 435, the purpose of _____ in the field is to provide accurate information concerning the hazards and risks involved directly to the people who may have been exposed , contaminated, or in some way affected by the response.

A. Post-Incident Analysis
B. Incident debriefing
C. Critique
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Incident debriefing

59
Q

On page 437, debriefings should cover certain subjects, in the following order:

A
  1. Health information
  2. Equipment and apparatus exposure review
  3. Follow-up contact person
  4. Problems requiring immediate action
  5. Thank you
60
Q

On page 437, debriefings should cover certain subjects, in the following order:

  • Problems requiring immediate action
  • Thank you
  • Health information
  • Follow-up contact person
  • Equipment and apparatus exposure review
A
  1. Health information
  2. Equipment and apparatus exposure review
  3. Follow-up contact person
  4. Problems requiring immediate action
  5. Thank you
61
Q

On page 438, the ______ is the reconstruction of the incident to establish a clear picture of the events that took place during the emergency.

A. Post-Incident Analysis
B. Incident debriefing
C. Critique
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Post-Incident Analysis

62
Q

On page 438, The PIA should focus on 6 key factors:

A
  1. Command and Control
  2. Tactical Operations
  3. Resources
  4. Support Services
  5. Plans and Procedures
  6. Training
63
Q

On page 438, The PIA should focus on 6 key factors: In order:

  • Resources
  • Command and Control
  • Training
  • Tactical Operations
  • Plans and Procedures
  • Support Services
A
  1. Command and Control
  2. Tactical Operations
  3. Resources
  4. Support Services
  5. Plans and Procedures
  6. Training
64
Q

On page 438, video tape recordings made by the media; obtain the un-shown, unedited video taken by the media within the first ____ hours.

A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours

A

24 hours

65
Q

On page 439, the ______ is a structured and a participatory process of the senior leadership. commanders, and key responding agencies and other participants involved in the response.

A. Post-Incident Analysis
B. Incident debriefing
C. Critique
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

After Action Review (AAR)

66
Q

On page 439, ____ is an element of incident termination that examines the overall effectiveness of the emergency response effort and develops recommendations for improving the organization’s emergency response system.

A. Post-Incident Analysis
B. Incident debriefing
C. Critique
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Critique

67
Q

On page 440, critiques lasting longer than ____ to ____ minutes quickly lose their effectiveness, and the quality of the discussion degrades.

A. 30 - 60 minutes
B. 60 - 90 minutes
C. 60 - 120 minutes
D. 90 - 120 minutes

A

60 - 90 minutes

68
Q

On page 440, the following is a suggested format for conducting a hazardous materials incident critique:

A
  1. Participant level critique
  2. Operations level critique
  3. Group level critique
69
Q

On page 440, the leader should limit the participant level critique to ____ or _____ minutes per person.

A. 2 - 3 minutes
B. 2 - 4 minutes
C. 2 - 5 minutes
D. 5 - 10 minutes

A

2 - 3 minutes

70
Q

On page 440, each presentation at the operations level critique should not exceed ___ minutes.

A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

5 minutes

71
Q

On page 441, 5 primary reasons for liability problems in emergency response work are:

A
  1. Problems with planning
  2. Problems with training
  3. Problems with identification of hazards
  4. Problems with duty to warn
  5. Problems with negligent operations
72
Q

On page 442, the incident debriefing is done at the incident scene, lasts less than __ minutes and focuses on safety and health exposure issues.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

73
Q

On page 442, the ______ is conducted after the incident is over.

A. Critique
B. Incident debriefing
C. Post-incident analysis
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Post-Incident Analysis

74
Q

On page 442, the ___ is usually conducted within several weeks after the incident is terminated.

A. Critique
B. Incident debriefing
C. Post-incident analysis
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Critique

75
Q

On page 442, the ____ is done at the incident scene, lasts less than 15 minutes and focuses on safety and health exposure issues.

A. Critique
B. Incident debriefing
C. Post-incident analysis
D. After Action Review (AAR)

A

Incident Debriefing