Ch. 5, 10, 11, 40 Flashcards

1
Q

The gastrocnemius veins drain into what deep vein?

A

Popliteal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to chronic venous insufficiency?
A. Incompentent superficial vein valves
B. Chronic venous outflow obstruction
C. Dysfunctional veno-motor pump.
D. Stasis dermatitis

A

Stasis dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normal flow direction in perforating veins of the lower extremities is from the deep to superficial veins. True or false

A

False

Normal flow is from the superficial to the deep veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What paired veins lie closest to the fibula?

A

Peroneal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name for the perforating veins found in the medial side of the mid to lower calf?

A

Cockett’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Return blood flow from the legs decreases during inspiration due to which of the following?
A. An increase in intra-abdominal pressure
B. A decrease in intra-abdominal pressure
C. An increase in right side heart pressure
D. A decrease in intra-thoracic pressure

A

An increase in intra-abdominal pressure

Venous blood flow in the extremities is affected by respiration. When one inspires the diaphragm moves down and increases intra-abdominal pressure. This increase in intra-abdominal pressure compresses and collapses the inferior vena cava in the abdomen, and venous outflow in the lower extremities is temporarily reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pulsatile flow in the popliteal veins, bilateral, may be a sign of which of the following conditions?
A. Proximal venous thrombosis
B. Distal thrombosis
C. Incompetent venous valves
D. Congestive heart failure

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main impediment to blood return from the legs to the heart when sitting?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The calf muscle veins that drain into the posterior tibial or peroneal veins are known as:

A

Soleal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The small saphenous vein usually drains into which of the following veins?
A. Common femoral
B. femoral
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Popliteal

A

Popliteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The vein of Giacomini courses between what two vein segments
A. great saphenous to accessory saphenous
B. small saphenous to popliteal vein
C. small saphenous to great saphenous
D gastrocnemius to soleal

A

Small saphenous to great saphenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When obtaining ankle blood pressures, what is the primary reason for having the patient in a flat, supine position?
A. Patient comfort
B. Venous pressure reduction
C. Easier Doppler placement
D. Reduce/ eliminate hydrostatic pressure

A

Reduce/ eliminate hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the flow profiles at “X” and “Y” in this spectral Doppler waveform?
A. X is a plug flow, Y is turbulent flow
B. X is a parabolic flow, Y is turbulent flow
C. X is plug flow, Y is parabolic flow
D. X is laminar flow, Y is non-laminar flow

A

C. X is plug flow, Y is parabolic flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following ankle/brachial indices (ABI) is most consistent with the symptom of ischemic rest pain?
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
D. 1.0

A

A 0.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following condition would cause an abnormal pulse volume recording(PVR) at high-thigh location?
A. Superficial femoral artery occlusion
B. Internal iliac artery stenosis
C. Popliteal artery occlusion
D. Significant aortoiliac disease

A

D. Significant aortoiliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The reported advantage of a four-cuff segmental pressure test over a three-cuff method is differentiating which of these diseased segments?
A. Aorta disease from iliac disease
B. Femoral artery from popliteal artery disease
C. Aortoiliac from femoral artery disease
D. Common femoral artery from profunda femoris disease

A

C. Aortoiliac from femoral artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Photoplethysmography uses which of the following modalities for blood flow evaluation ?
A. Pulse volume recording
B. Ultrasound
C. Ultraviolet
D. Infrared

A

D. Infrared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following lower arterial test modalities provides diagnostic quantitative information?
A. Segmental pressures
B. Continuous-wave Doppler waveforms
C. Photoplethysmography
D. Pulse volume recording (PVR)

A

A. Segmental pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For accurate blood pressure determination, the cuff bladder should be________ of the limb circumference.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

A

D 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pulse volume recording is a form of which of the following methods/techniques?
A. Impedance plethysmography
B. Pneumo-plethysmography
C. Photoplethysmography
D. Segmental pressure

A

B. Pneumo-plethysmography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Review the PVR & segmental pressure study and select and appropriate comment below.
A. The study is normal
B. The study is abnormal
C. The left ankle pressures are probably erroneous
D. The study is abnormal on the right

A

C. The left ankle pressures are probably erroneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the image about, how is the ankle to brachial index (ABI) calculated?
A. Left Ankle pressure divided by left brachial pressures and right ankle pressure divided by the right brachial pressure
B. Both right and left ankle pressures divided by the highest brachial pressure
C. The right brachial pressure divided by both ankle pressures
D. Both right and left ankle pressures divided by the left brachial pressure

A

B. Both right and left ankle pressures divided by the highest brachial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

While preforming segmental pressures on lower extremity, you note a pressure gradient between to cuffs to equal 15 mmHg. What does this finding indicate?
A. Normal result, no big deal
B. Stenosis in the arterial segment proximal to the lowest cuff
C. Total occlusion of the arterial segment
D. Stenosis in the arterial segment distal to the lowest cuff

A

A. Normal result, no big deal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Leg pain with exercise that is not due to arterial occlusive disease is often referred to as:
A. Buerger’s disease
B. Psuedo-claudication
C. Rest pain
D. Ateritis

A

B pseudo-claudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of photoplethysmography compared to CW- Doppler in segmental pressure acquisition?
A. PPG cannot be heard
B. PPG uses analog processing
C. PPG has no waveform
D. PPG can only be used for digit pressures

A

A PPG cannot be heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The dorsalis pedis artery is a continuation of which vessel?
A. Peroneal artery
B. Gastrocnemius artery
C. Posterior tibial artery
D. Anterior tibial artery

A

D Anterior tibial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 3-cuff PVR and pressure study was performed on this diabetic patient. Normal pulses were palpated to the popliteal levels, no pulses were detected on the right PTA or DPA. What is the disease level on the right?
A. Aortoiliac disease, right.
B. SFA disease
C. Moderate popliteal disease
D Severe tibial disease

A

D Severe tibial disease

28
Q

A high-pressure extravasation of blood out of an artery and into the surrounding tissue is called a(n):

A. Aneurysm
B. Arterial-venous fistula
C. Pseudo-aneurysm
D. A-V malformation

A

C. Pseudo-aneurysm

29
Q

PW-Doppler spectral waveform obtained from the common femoral arteries bilaterally are measured for rise time(RT). The right RT is 0.09 seconds, and the left is 0.19 seconds. What is the anatomic level of the occlusive disease?

A. Aortoiliac disease
B. Left iliac disease
C. Left superficial femoral artery disease
D. Right iliac disease

A

B. Left Iliac disease

30
Q

What is the threshold diameter for the popliteal artery to be considered aneurysmal?

A. 0.5 cm
B. 1.0 cm
C. 2.0 cm
D. 3.0 cm

A

B. 1.0 cm

31
Q

In the presence of an SFA occlusion, what vessel usually provides collateral flow?

A. Popliteal artery
B. Common femoral artery
C. Great saphenous vein
D. Deep femoral artery

A

D. Deep femoral artery

32
Q

The common femoral artery Doppler waveform will always be abnormal in the presence of a >50% common iliac artery stenosis. True or False?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

33
Q

The most important tibial vessel to assess pre-operatively for a femoral to distal bypass is the:

A. Gastrocnemius artery
B. Peroneal artery
C. Anterior tibial artery
D. Posterior tibial artery

A

D. Posterior tibial artery

34
Q

2 waveform characteristics of low peak velocity & tardus parvus obtained from the popliteal artery demonstrate Distal or Proximal disease?

A. Distal disease
B. Proximal disease

A

B. Proximal disease

35
Q

in the presence of an SFA occulsion, what vessel usually provides collateral flow

A

deep femoral artery

36
Q

a high pressure extravasation of blood out of an artery and into the surrounding tissue is called

A

pseudo aneurysm

37
Q

What CFA waveform characteristic would suggest significant aorta-iliac disease

A

delayed rise time

38
Q

ABI’s are calculated in the following manner: the left ankle pressure is divided by the left brachial pressure and the right ankle pressure is divided by right brachial pressure
A. True
B. False

A

False

39
Q

Which one of the following preforator veins if from the greater saphenous vein in the distal thigh?
A. Boyd
B. Hunterian
C. Crockett III
D. Dodd

A

D. Dodd

40
Q

Which ONE of the following veins is difficult to compress during duplex imaging?

a. subclavian
b. brachial
c. popliteal
d. posterior wall

A

subclavian

41
Q

The left iliac vein is usually mildly compresssed by which ONE of the following anatomic vessels?

a. aorta
b. right iliac artery
c. left iliac artery
d. right renal artery

A

right iliac artery

42
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT one of the three factors of the Virchow triad?

a. hypercoagulability
b. stasis
c. lysis
d. vein injury

A

lysis

43
Q

The longest vein in the body is which ONE of the following?

a. external iliac
b. superficial femoral
c. popliteal
d. great saphenous

A

great saphenous

44
Q

Perforating veins connect the superficial and deep venous systems. Blood flow in the perforating veins is normally from the __________ to the __________.

a. superficial system; deep system
b. deep system; superficial system
c. distal veins; central veins
d. central veins; distal veins

A

superficial system; deep system

45
Q

The characteristics of a normal venous Doppler signal from the lower extremity include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. phasicity
b. spontaneity
c. pulsatility
d. augmentation with distal limb compression

A

pulsatility

46
Q

The most important diagnostic criterion during venous duplex imaging is which ONE of the following?

a. echo-free lumen
b. lumen filled with echogenic material
c. decreased color filling
d. vein response to transducer compression on the skin

A

vein response to transducer compression on the skin

47
Q

The presence of an incompetent venous segment is determined by which ONE of the following?

a. venous reflux less than 1 second
b. venous reflux on augmentation
c. color Doppler filling of the lumen
d. gray-scale image of valve motion

A

venous reflux on augmentation

48
Q

The superficial femoral vein is a _________ vein.

a. perforating
b. superficial
c. deep
d. complex

A

deep

49
Q

To obtain venous Doppler signals during venous duplex imaging, using a(n)__________ imaging plane is best.

a. transverse
b. longitudinal
c. oblique
d. inverted

A

longitudinal

50
Q

Risk factors for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. pregnancy
b. orthopedic surgery
c. baker’s cyst
d. oral contraceptive use

A

bakers cyst

51
Q

Venous valves are observed in all of the following anatomic structures EXCEPT:

a. greater saphenous vein
b. lesser saphenous vein
c. soleal sinuses
d. gastrocnemius vein

A

soleal sinuses

52
Q

The common femoral vein lies:

a. in the Hunter’s canal
b. in the Scarpa triangle
c. in the superficial fascia
d. lateral to the common femoral artery

A

in the scarpa triangle

53
Q

Which ONE of the following veins is shorter on the right side, oriented vertically, and ascends posteriorly and then laterally to its companion artery?

a. right superficial femoral
b. right profunda femoris
c. right popliteal
d. right common iliac vein

A

right common iliac vein

54
Q

The basilica vein is a __________ vein of the __________ extremity.

a. superficial; lower
b. superficial ; upper
c. deep; lower
d. deep; upper

A

superficial; upper

55
Q

Angle correction of the Doppler signal is not necessary during a lower-extremity venous duplex examination because of which ONE of the following reasons?

a. venous velocity is not angle dependent
b. the transverse plane is used in lower-extremity duplex imaging
c. Peak venous velocity does not provide any clinical information in lower-extremity duplex imaging
d. spectral waveform is not required in a lower-extremity venous duplex examination.

A

Peak venous velocity does not provide an clinical information in lower extremity duplex imagining

56
Q

Which ONE of the following perforator veins is from the greater saphenous vein in the distal thigh?

a. hunterian
b. boyd
c. dodd
d cockette III

A

dodd

57
Q

Which ONE of the following is the PRIMARY route of venous drainage in the upper extremity?

a. deep venous system
b. axillary vein
c. superficial venous system
d. mammary vein

A

superficial venous system

58
Q

The femoral vein ascends in which of the following locations?

a. lateral thigh
b. lateral calf
c. medial thigh
d. medial calf

A

medial thigh

59
Q

Adequate pressure has been applied to compress a vein when:

a. the patient can no longer tolerate the pressure.
b. the companion artery is deformed.
c. fifty pounds of pressure is applied
d. the companion artery is enlarged

A

the companion artery is deformed

60
Q

A pulsatile venous signal is normal in all of the following veins EXCEPT:

a. subclavian
b. axillary
c. superior vena cava
d. jugular

A

axillary

61
Q

The compression technique is NOT used for __________ thrombus.

a. partial
b. complete
c. chronic
d. free-floating

A

free-floating

62
Q

A potentially lethal complication of acute DVT is which ONE of the following?

a. postphlebetic syndrome
b. pulmonary embolism
c. cellulitis
d. venous ulcers

A

pulmonary embolism

63
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute DVT include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. leg swelling
b. superficial venous dilation
c. palpable subcutaneous cord
d. positive Homan’s sign

A

palpable subcutaneous cord

64
Q

In the presence of incompetent valves, the sudden release of distal augmentation produces which ONE of the following?

a. no blood flow
b. dynamic antegrade blood flow
c. retrograde blood flow
d. minimal antegrade blood flow

A

retrograde blood flow

65
Q

the technique commonly used for indirect testing of arterial perfusion in the thigh and leg include all of the following except:
A. plethysmography
B. photoplethysmography
C. doppler waveform analysis
D. segmental systolic pressure

A

B. photoplethysmography

66
Q

Which of the following is clear diagnosis criteria to estimate disease between two limb segments the using systolic pressure determination?
a. a drop of more than 30mm Hg between the proximal and immediate distal segment
b. an increase of more than 30 mm Hg between the proximal and immediate distal segment
c. a drop of 50 mm Hg between the proximal and immediate distal segment
d. an increase of 50 mm Hg between the proximal and immediate distal segment

A

a. A drop of more than 30mm Hg between the proximal and immediate distal segment