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BIO235 A&P WileyPLUS > Ch 25 Metabolism and Nutrition > Flashcards

Ch 25 Metabolism and Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

Which of following methods to create ATP occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm) of cells?

a. photophosphorylation
b. substrate-level phosphorylation
c. oxidative phosphorylation

A

b. substrate-level phosphorylation

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2
Q

Which disorder is caused by normal caloric intake with a protein deficiency and is characterized by edema of the abdomen and an enlarged liver?

a. bulimia
b. malnutrition
c. kwashiorkor
d. marasmus

A

c. kwashiorkor

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3
Q

All of the following are effector responses that increase body temperature, EXCEPT:

a. involuntary contraction of skeletal muscle
b. release of thyroid hormones
c. vasodilation of dermal blood vessels
d. hormone release from the adrenal medulla

A

c. vasodilation of dermal blood vessels

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4
Q

If oxygen is scarce, pyruvic acid
is

a. reduced to form lactic acid
b. enters the mitochondrial matrix
c. is oxidized to form coenzyme A
d. undergoes chemiosmosis

A

a. reduced to form lactic acid

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5
Q

Kilocalories in our food do NOT come directly from:

a. carbohydrates
b. proteins
c. sugars
d. fats

A

c. sugars

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6
Q

Each gram of fat in food provides about ________ calories.

a. 2
b. 9
c. 12
d. 4

A

b. 9

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7
Q

Which of the following can NOT be oxidized to produce ATP in order to conserve glucose?

a. ketone bodies
b. glycerol
c. amino acids
d. lactic acid
c. fatty acids

A

b. glycerol

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8
Q

Which hormone stimulates lipogenesis?

a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. epinephrine
d. cortisol

A

b. insulin

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9
Q

Once lactic acid is produced in the body, how is it processed?

a. taken up in the skeletal and cardiac muscle cells
b. taken up by the monocytes in the liver
c. converted to acetyl coenzyme A
d. converted to pyruvic acid
e. converted to glucose

A

d. converted to pyruvic acid

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10
Q

Identify the functions of collagen, elastin, and keratin in the body.

a. enzymes
b. contractile
c. transport
d. structural
e. hormones

A

d. structural

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11
Q

When ATP is converted into ADP, what is released?

a. three phosphates
b. ribose
c. excess gas
d. energy
e. two phosphates

A

d. energy

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12
Q

Which of the following are NOT considered antioxidants?

a. vitamin E
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin K
e. beta-carotene

A

d. vitamin K

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13
Q

Which of the following do NOT require phosphorus?

a. formation of bones and teeth
b. normal muscle and nerve activity
c. synthesis of enzymes
d. synthesis of DNA and RNA
e. blood clotting

A

e. blood clotting

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14
Q

In the MyPlate approach, what takes up half of the plate?

a. fruit and grains
b. grains and dairy
c. vegetables and protein
d. vegetables and fruits

A

d. vegetables and fruits

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15
Q

Which proton pump contains cytochrome a, cytochrome a3, and two copper atoms?

a. cytochrome oxidase complex
b. NADH dehydrogenase complex
c. pyruvic dehydrogenase
d. cytochrome b-c1 complex

A

a. cytochrome oxidase complex

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16
Q

Which steps can NOT occur in anaerobic conditions?

a. Krebs cycle
b. glycolysis
c. electron transport chain

A

b. glycolysis

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17
Q

Which of the following stages of cellular respiration occur in the matrix of the mitochondria?

a. electron transport chain
b. formation of acetyl coenzyme A
c. EMP pathway
d. glycolysis

A

b. formation of acetyl coenzyme A

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18
Q

The first reaction in glycolysis results in glucose:

a. being phosphorylated
b. being split into two 3-C molecules
c. being converted into lactic acid
d. being converted into fructose

A

a. being phosphorylated

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19
Q

For each glucose molecule, the total number of ATP molecules produced as a result of the Krebs cycle is:

a. 2
b. 24
c. 12
d. 4

A

a. 2

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20
Q

The conversion of a 6-carbon glucose into two 3-carbon molecules of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate requires the enzyme:

a. ATP Synthase
b. Phosphofructokinase

A

b. Phosphofructokinase

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21
Q

The formation of acetyl coenzyme A occurs in the:

a. matrix of the mitochondria
b. inner membrane of the mitochondria
c. cytoplasm of the cell
d. ribosomes of the cell

A

a. matrix of the mitochondria

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between catabolism and anabolism?

a. Heat is released with catabolic reactions only.
b. The energy flow between anabolic reactions and catabolic reactions is reversible.
c. Anabolic reactions provide the energy for catabolic reactions.
d. Anabolic reactions provide the simple molecules needed in catabolic reactions.
e. Catabolic reactions provide the energy for anabolic reactions.

A

e. Catabolic reactions provide the energy for anabolic reactions.

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23
Q

In the body, about how much of the energy released in catabolic reactions is available for cellular functions?

a. 60%
b. 20%
c. 100%
d. 10%
e. 40%

A

e. 40%

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24
Q

ATP is a source of long term storage for transferring energy from one molecule to another.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

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25
Q

Endergonic reactions are:

a. anabolic
b. neither catabolic or anabolic
c. both catabolic and anabolic
d. catabolic

A

a. anabolic

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26
Q

Which of the following hormones does NOT stimulate protein synthesis?

a. testosterone
b. cortisol
c. insulin
d. insulin like growth factors
e. T3 and T4
f. estrogen

A

b. cortisol

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27
Q

Where does the process of deamination occur in the body?

a. alpha cells of the pancreas
b. spleen
c. digestive tract
d. hepatocytes of the liver

A

d. hepatocytes of the liver

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28
Q

Amino acids can be converted by hepatocytes into:

a. ketone bodies
b. glucose
c. fatty acids
d. all of the choices are correct

A

d. all of the choices are correct

29
Q

Which of the following are examples of foods that contain complete proteins?

a. potatoes
b. beef
c. beans
d. carrots
e. leafy green vegetables

A

b. beef

30
Q

At rest, what percentage of body heat is lost via conduction and convection?

a. 18%
b. 25%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

c. 15%

31
Q

Where is the body’s internal thermostat located ?

a. Anterior part of the thalamus
b. Posterior part of the hypothalamus
c. Anterior part of the hypothalamus
d. Posterior part of the thalamus

A

c. Anterior part of the hypothalamus

32
Q

Which of the following are NOT symptoms of hypothermia?

a. bradycardia
b. confusion
c. cardiac arrhythmias
d. acidosis
e. denaturation of proteins
f. shivering

A

e. denaturation of proteins

33
Q

The preoptic area receives input from__________.

a. Heat-promoting center
b. Hypothalamus
c. proprioceptors in the skin
d. Heat-losing center

A

b. Hypothalamus

34
Q

In a room of 70 degrees F, what percentage of heat loss through radiation occurs in a person at rest?

a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 60%
d. 55%

A

c. 60%

35
Q

Which of the following helps to decrease core body temperature back to normal levels?

a. shivering
b. release of epinephrine and
norepinephrine
c. sweating
d. increase of T3 and T4
e. constriction of blood vessels in the skin
f. dilation of major blood vessels

A

c. sweating

36
Q

Which of the following happens first in a negative feedback mechanism to conserve heat and increase heat production?

a. adrenal medullae release epinephrine and norepinephrine
b. secretion of TRH by the hypothalamus
c. TSH release by the anterior pituitary
d. thyroid gland releases thyroid hormones

A

c. TSH release by the anterior pituitary

37
Q

Heat can NOT be transferred through the body and its surroundings via?

a. Radiation
b. Evaporation
c. Negative Feedback
d. Convection
e Conduction

A

c. Negative Feedback

38
Q

Which cells produce and secrete the hormone leptin?

a. adipocytes
b. hepatocytes
c. beta cells of the pancreas
d. thyroid follicles

A

a. adipocytes

39
Q

Which of the following represents the percentage of energy expenditure coming from physical activity?

a. 80%
b. 60%
c. 5–10%
d. 30–35%

A

d. 30–35%

40
Q

At rest, what percentage of body heat is lost via evaporation?

a. 15%
b. 22%
c. 36%
d. 70%

A

b. 22%

41
Q

Which of the following represents the percentage of energy expenditure coming from food-induced thermogenesis?

a. 30–35%
b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 5–10%

A

d. 5–10%

42
Q

All of the following are effector responses that increase body temperature, EXCEPT

a. vasodilation of dermal blood vessels
b. hormone release from the adrenal medulla
c. involuntary contraction of skeletal muscle
d. release of thyroid hormones

A

a. vasodilation of dermal blood vessels

43
Q

Lipolysis is the breakdown of:

a. lactic acid
b. triglycerides
c. glycerol and fatty acids
d. glycogen

A

b. triglycerides

44
Q

Which lipoproteins when found in excessive amounts are responsible for forming fatty plaques in arteries?

a. very-low-density lipoproteins
b. high-density lipoproteins
c. low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons

A

c. low-density lipoproteins

45
Q

Which of the following processes can be carried out by hepatocytes and adipose tissue? .

a. alpha oxidation
b. lipolysis
c. hypogenesis
d. ketogenesis

A

b. lipogenesis, beta oxidation, and lipolysis

46
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause most of the pyruvic acid produced to enter into ATP-producing reactions?

a. ATP levels are low and oxygen levels are low in a cell.
b. ATP levels are high and oxygen levels are high in a cell.
c. ATP levels are low and oxygen levels are high in a cell.
d. ATP levels are high and oxygen levels are low in a cell.

A

c. ATP levels are low and oxygen levels are high in a cell.

47
Q

In order for pyruvic acid to be converted into alanine, what must be added?

a. cholesterol
b. carbon dioxide
c. ribose 5-phosphate
d. an amino group (-NH2)

A

d. an amino group (-NH2)

48
Q

Which amino acid can be converted into pyruvic acid?

a. leucine
b. alanine
c. methionine
d. phenylalanine
e. tyrosine

A

b. alanine, lactic acid and oxaloacetic acid

49
Q

Which of the following applies to the postabsorptive state?

a. absorption of nutrients is complete
b. occurs between meals
c. energy needs must be met by nutrients already in the body
d. All of the choices are correct.

A

d. All of the choices are correct.

50
Q

During fasting and starvation, which of the following are used for production of ATP?

a. amino acids
b. large amounts of glucose
c. ketone bodies
d. glycogen

A

c. ketone bodies

51
Q

During the postabsorptive state, which of the following processes directly elevate blood glucose levels?

a. glycogenesis
b. lipolysis
c. lipogenesis
d. glycolysis
e. neogenesis

A

b. lipolysis

52
Q

Which of the following are true regarding oxidation?

a. is usually endergonic
b. is also known as hydrogenation
c. is never coupled with reduction reactions
d. involves the loss of elements
e. is usually exergonic
f. involves the gain of electrons

A

e. is usually exergonic

53
Q

The definition of a _______ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1°C.

a. BMR
b. calorie
c. calorigenic
d. kilocalorie

A

b. calorie

54
Q

This is the measurement of the energy released from catabolized organic compounds in food.

a. basal
b. kilocalorie
c. calorigenic
d. calorie

A

d. calorie

55
Q

Which hormone(s) is/are the main regulators of basal metabolic rate?

a. cortisol
b. glucagon
c. insulin
d. T3 and T4

A

d. T3 and T4

56
Q

The measurement of energy expenditure during rest is called the _______ metabolic rate.

a. basal
b. calorigenic
c. kilocalorie
d. calorie

A

a. basal

57
Q

The metabolic rate of a child is about half that of an elderly person

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

58
Q

What factor affects metabolic rate?

a. geographic location
b. occupation
c. culture
d. gender

A

d. gender

59
Q

During strenuous exercise the metabolic rate can increase ________ times the basal rate.

a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. 30

A

a. 15

60
Q

Which of the following disorders occurs in children when caloric intake is normal, but protein intake is deficient due to a diet consisting largely of cornmeal?

a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia
c. kwashiorkor
d. marasmus
e. malnutrition

A

c. kwashiorkor

61
Q

Which hormones can pass through the blood brain barrier?

a. Leptin
b. Growth Hormone
c. glucose
d. Estrogen

A

a. Leptin

62
Q

What hormone decreases appetite?

a. Ghrelin
b. Glucose
c. Growth Hormone-releasing hormone
d. Leptin

A

d. Leptin

63
Q

Food-induced thermogenesis is greatest:

a. after a low-protein meal
b. after a high-fat meal
c. after a high-carbohydrate meal
d. after a high-protein meal

A

d. after a high-protein meal

64
Q

This is the measurement used when describing the energy content of foods.

a. kilocalorie
b. calorie
c. calorigenic
d. basal

A

a. kilocalorie

65
Q

These have about the same yield of energy of 4 kcal/g.

a. lipids
b. sugars
c. fats
d. carbohydrates

A

d. carbohydrates

66
Q

If a single young female exhibits amenorrhea, lowered basal metabolic rate, nutrient deficiencies, and dependency on laxatives, she might have the disorder:

a. scurvy
b. rickets
c. pellagra
d. anorexia nervosa
e. bulimia

A

d. anorexia nervosa

67
Q

Protein catabolism is stimulated by the hormone(s) _____________.

a. insulin
b. cortisol
c. T3 and T4
d. epinephrine

A

b. cortisol

68
Q

After ingestion of a meal, which of the following does NOT occur to amino acids that go to the liver?

a. used for synthesis of fatty acids
b. used for synthesis of hormones
c. used for ATP production in the Krebs cycle
d. used for synthesis of proteins
e. used for synthesis of glucose

A

b. used for synthesis of hormones

69
Q

Which of the following total cholesterol levels are considered high?

a. 190 mg/dl
b. above 239 mg/dl
c. 200–239 mg/dl
d. 200 mg/dl

A

b. above 239 mg/dl

BIO235 A&P WileyPLUS (6 decks)

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